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A320 S-LOD Prep > SLOD practice > Flashcards

SLOD practice Flashcards

1
Q

Recall the radar’s functionality during the automatic self test.

A

-Radar is fully operational and radiating energy when first turned on during it’s 45 second self test.
-No warm up period required.
-Quick self tests are performed after every sweep.
-Radar system fault/malfunction indications are ONLY displayed on ND

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2
Q

Describe the FMGCs navigation auto-tuning feature.

A

-Provides localizer guidance during takeoff roll for runways served by an ILS
-Auto tunes VOR and DME stations enroute for position and orientation updating
-Auto tunes the ILS frequency for final approach guidance, when an ILS approach has been loaded into the flight plan.

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3
Q

Recall how VOR information is displayed, and how ILS information is displayed.

A

VOR
-displayed on ND’s
-When respective EFIS VOR 1 or 2 selector switches placed in the VOR 1 or 2 position
-When identified by the FMS, the station’s 3 letter ident will be displayed

ILS
-displayed on PFD’s
-When respective (I)LS pushbutton is pressed
-When identified by the FMS, station’s 4 letter identifier is displayed.

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4
Q

Describe SELECTED guidance of the autoflight system

A

-Pulling the SPD/MACH knob selects specific target airspeed
-Pulling the HDG/TRK knob selects specific heading
-Pulling the altitude knob engages an open climb/descent
-Pulling the V/S / FPA knob selects a specific vertical speed or flight path angle climb

Selected guidance ALWAYS takes priority of MANAGED

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5
Q

Describe MANAGED guidance of the autoflight system

A

-Allows the autoflight system to follow commands generated by FMS
-Autoflight system complies with the lateral, vertical and target airspeed profiles defined by the FMGC’s entered into the flight plan and constraints entered by the pilot.
-MANAGED guidance is engaged or armed by momentarily pushing the respective knob on the FCU

Note: Pushing the V/S / FPA knob does not result in a MANAGED mode. This action would command in an immediate level off.

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6
Q

Recall how to engage and disengage the autopilot.

A

To Engage - select the AP1 or AP2 pb on the Flight Control Unit (FCU)
To Disengage
-Pressing the autopilot disconnect pb on either sidestick (preferred)
-Selecting the illuminated AP1 or AP2 pb on the FCU
-Displacing either sidesticks or rudder pedals

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7
Q

Where can you monitor the temperature of the aft cargo compartment?

A

ECAM COND or CRUISE pages

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8
Q

Recall Indications of external high pressure air being applied to the pneumatic system.

A

With NO internal air source being provided (i.e. APU or engine bleed air), a PSI value is displayed on the left side of the ECAM BLEED page.

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9
Q

Recall Indications when APU bleed air is in use.

A

APU Bleed valve indicates open on the ECAM bleed page
APU bleed is displayed in green on the memo section of the E/WD

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10
Q

Describe the G/S mode pb on the GPWS panel

A

G/S Mode
-Inhibits the excessive deviation below glideslope waring “GLIDESLOPE”
-Used for approaches with glideslope out of service, or LDA/LOC approaches

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11
Q

Recall the function of the APU BLEED pb

A

ON - Commands the APU bleed valve OPEN

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12
Q

Recall the function of the APU GEN pb

A

Light Out - APU generator will automatically energize once APU is on speed

OFF - APU generator is de-energized

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13
Q

Why must the aircraft batteries be on for all APU starts AND when the APU generator is the SOLE source of electrical power.

A

Turning the batteries ON permits the APU starter motor to connect to the battery busses, which are the sole source of power for the APU starter motor.

On the ground, in the event of an APU fire while the APU generator is the sole source of power, the batteries being on ensure a power source for proper APU shutdown and extinguisher discharge.

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14
Q

Recall the Emergency Equipment stored on the flight deck

A

4 crew life vests (orange)
1 Halon Extinguisher
1 Crash Ax
4 Crew Oxygen masks
2 escape ropes
1 Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE)

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15
Q

Recall the power sources for the AC Buses during normal operations

(AC BUS 1&2 + AC ESS BUS)

A

AC Buses 1 & 2
- Respective Engine Generator
- External Power
- APU Generator

AC ESS Bus
- Normally by AC BUS 1
- AC Bus 2 manually, when the AC ESS FEED pb is selected to ALTN
- AC BUS 2 automatically, via auto switching logic (AC BUS 1 fails)

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16
Q

Describe ignitor behavior during manual starts

A

Both ignitors (AB) are activated ONLY AFTE the Engine Master Switch has been selected ON.

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17
Q

What is Pitch Protection? When is it available?

A

ELACs will allow no greater than 30deg nose up/15deg nose down, regardless of side stick input.

ONLY AVAILABLE in NORMAL LAW

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18
Q

High Speed Protection

A

Attempts to prevent aircraft from exceeding VMO/MMO
ELACs automatically pitch up to limit further acceleration
- even if sidestick is held full forward

ONLY AVAILABLE in NORMAL LAW

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19
Q

Maneuver Protection

A

Think G’s!
Restricts flight control surface movement that would cause the aircraft to exceed its designed structural limits.

Clean Config : -1.0g to +2.5g
Slats Extended, Flaps retracted : -1.0g to +2.5g
Slats and Flaps Extended : 0.0g to +2.0g

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20
Q

Alpha Protection (Alpha Prot)

A
  • Flight Control computers prevent the aircraft’s AOA from exceeding a predetermined threshold at low airspeeds.
  • AP disconnects, spoilers retract
  • Sidestick changes to direct pitch control
  • Pilot inputs can override protection and further degrade AOA

ONLY AVAILABLE IN NORMAL LAW

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21
Q

Alpha Max

A

Alpha Max is the highest AOA that the flight control computers will allow.
CANNOT BE OVERIDDEN

ONLY AVAILALE IN NORMAL LAW

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22
Q

When are High and Low Speed Stabilities available?

A

Alternate Law

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23
Q

Alpha Prot PFD Indication

A

Top of Amber and Black band on PFD

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24
Q

Under what Laws is Automatic Pitch Trim available during a roll.

A

Normal and Alternate law

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25
Q

Alpha Max PFD Indication

A

Top of Red band on the airspeed indicator.

26
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance between the wing tank inner cells.

A

Approx 3,300lbs.

27
Q

Are Wing Tank fuel pumps equipped with automatic logic?

A

No. Pump operation is controlled by the respective pb and must ALWAYS be manually controlled.

28
Q

When will the transfer valves automatically open? What is their purpose?

A

Both transfer valves automatically open when EITHER wing tank inner fuel cell level reaches approximately 1650lbs. They transfer fuel from wing OUTER tanks TO the wing INNER tanks.

29
Q

With fuel in Center Tank, explain the normal (automatic) fuel feed priority

A

With flaps fully retracted…
- Center tank fuel is consumed first followed by wing tan fuel. ONLY the wing tanks pumps are equipped with pressure reducers. Reducers allow center tank pump pressure to preferentially supply the respective engine.

With flaps extended…
- Center tank pumps automatically shut off, per auto logic, allowing wing tank fuel to be consumed.

30
Q

What is the function of the L & R TK PUMPS pbs?

A

Manually control their respective wing tank pumps.
ON (light out) - pumps runs continuously
OFF (white) - pump is deactivated and remains off

31
Q

Effect of using the EMER CANC pb in response to ECAM WARNING

A

Warnings
- Cancels (stops) the aural warning (CRC) for as long as the failure condition continues
- Extinguishers MASTER WARNING lights
- Does not affect the ECAM message display (MASTER MARNING message remains in view).

EMER CANC pb should only be used to suppress spurious MASTER CAUTIONS

32
Q

Effect of using the EMER CANC pb in response to ECAM CAUTION

A

Cautions
- Extinguishes the MASTER CAUTION lights
- Cancels (stops) the aural warning (single chime) for as long as failure continues
- Cancels ECAM message display for the remainder of the flight (MASTER CAUTION message is removed)
- Canceled MASTER CAUTION messages can be recalled by pressing the RCL pb for 3 seconds.

EMER CANC pb should only be used to suppress spurious MASTER CAUTIONS

EMER CANC pb is NOT to be used in place of ECAM CLR pb when performing ECAM non-normal procedures.

33
Q

Describe FMA and FCU Indications of A/THR system configuration (OFF)

A

OFF (Disconnected)
- FMA Column 1 and the Bottom row of Column 5 are blank
- A/TH pb on FCU is extinguished
- Engine Thrust is controlled by manually positioning thrust levers

34
Q

Describe FMA and FCU Indications of A/THR system configuration (ARMED)

A

ARMED
- MAN FLX or MAN TOGA appears in Column 1 (white)
- A/THR in blue in Column 5
- Engine thrust corresponds to thrust lever position of FLX or TOGA

Note : If thrust levers are placed into TOGA in-flight, TOGA thrust is provided and if in CONF 1 or greater, FMS Go-Around Phase is activated. MAN TOGA (white) + A/THR (blue)

35
Q

Describe FMA and FCU Indications of A/THR system configuration (ACTIVE)

A

ACTIVE
- FMA Column 1 displays the current mode (green)
- Bottom of FMA Column 5 displays A/THR (white)
- Active range is between CLB detent and Idle stop with 2 engines operative. (MCT/Idle OEI) Thrust lever can limit active range.

36
Q

Which ACP controls are used to communicate with various exterior locations of the aircraft (excluding external power panel)?

A

The Cabin Interphone (CAB) system.

37
Q

What does the blue arc on the N1 gauges represent?

A

The difference between commanded N1 and current N1 when A/THR is active.

38
Q

Does the landing elevation being manually set mean that the pressurization system is in manual mode?

A

No. Reference the respective pb to determine pressurization mode. Landing elevation can be manually set in automatic pressurization mode.

39
Q

During a go around, what conditions cause Speed Reference System to activate and SRS to display in column 2 of the FMA?

A

Flaps 1 or greater
AND
Thrust levers in TOGA position

40
Q

What is the normal procedure for deselecting auto thrust in flight?

A

First, match the thrust levers to the current thrust setting. Then press the instinctive disconnect pb on the thrust lever.

41
Q

What is the emergency generator capable of powering?

A

AC ESS BUS
DC ESS BUS thru the ESS TRR
AC and DC ESS SHED BUS

42
Q

What is the indication of an unpowered SHED bus on the ECAM ELEC page?

A

Amber “SHED” under respective unpowered bus

43
Q

After recovery from an unusual attitude using abnormal law, you notice the aircraft is in alternate law. How long will it remain in this state?

A

For the remainder of the flight. It will not revert to direct law upon extension of the landing gear.

44
Q

What has occurred when an A-LOCK indication appears?

A

Slat retraction has been inhibited due to:
1. Excessively high AOA
2. Excessively slow airspeed

45
Q

What does the green equal sign on the airspeed tape indicate?

A

High Speed Protection limit

46
Q

What are the indications of direct law?

A

Amber X’s on PFD
Amber USE MAN PITCH TRIM msg on PFD
Amber “F/CTL DIRECT LAW (PROT LOST)” on E/WD

47
Q

What is required for mechanical backup controls to be powered?

A

Hydraulic power must be available to servos.

48
Q

What is the normal fuel distribution after refueling?

A

Wing Tanks approximately 27,500lbs
Outer tanks are filled to capacity before inner tanks

49
Q

During single engine operation, what will inhibit PTU?

A

Engine Master Switches in opposite positions. (One ON, one OFF) AND EITHER…

Parking Brake Set
-or-
Nosewheel steering disconnected. (NW STRG DISC)

50
Q

What causes the PTU light to illuminate?

A

High Fluid temperature
Low AIR pressure
Low fluid level

(Green or yellow system)

51
Q

If both Green and Yellow hydraulic systems fail, is anti-skid still available?

A

No. Only Alternate braking without antiskid is available from the yellow system accumulator.

52
Q

What do the triangles on the ECAM wheel page represent?

A

Landing gear position and condition as independently detected by each LGCIU. The FRONT triangle represents the ACTIVE LGCIU.

53
Q

What are the 3 operating modes of the FMGCs?

A

Dual - FMGCs are synchronized and cross-talking. Normal operating modes.
Independent - Caused by conflicting database. Not cross-talking.
Single - Sole operating FMGC provides all related information with some limitations. (One FMGC is inoperative)

54
Q

During the normal alignment process, what does the momentary illumination of the “ON BAT” light indicate?

A

Verifies the ADIRUs are capable of accessing and operating on aircraft battery power if required.

55
Q

When will the GPWS terrain feature automatically display?

A

When an alert is generated. (Terrain Warning or Caution)

56
Q

What occurs when the ENG mode selector is moved to the IGN/START position?

A

Displays ECAM ENGINE page on SD
Activates both FADECs
Commands both pack valves to close for 30 seconds
Increases APU speed (if APU is in use)

Following engine start. Cycling the selector to NORM then back to IGN/START will activate continuous ignition.

57
Q

What occurs when the MAN ENG START pb is pressed?

A

The respective start valve opens, provided:
1. ENG Mode selector is in IGN/START or CRANK
2. Bleed Air pressure is available

58
Q

During a manual start, when will fuel and ignition be introduced?

A

When ENG MASTER switch is placed to ON position.

59
Q

What occurs when the ENG mode selector is moved to the CRANK position?

A

Activates FADEC
Displays ECAM ENGINE page on SD

60
Q

Explain the Autothrust system’s Alpha Floor feature.

A

-Commands TOGA thrust when the aircraft reaches a very high angle of attack.
-Available in normal law from liftoff to 100ft agl.
-Functions regardless of thrust lever position or Autothrust status (will self activate)

61
Q

Recall indications associated with Alpha Floor

A

A.FLOOR (green) surrounded by amber box in column 1 of the FMA
A.FLOOR (amber) above the N1 displays on E/WD
Engine thrust increases to TOGA

Once the condition which caused Alpha Floor no longer exists.
-TOGA LK engages
-TOGA LK (green) replaces the A.FLOOR indication on FMA.

A320 S-LOD Prep (2 decks)

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