Small Animal

Question 1

Which of the portions of your medical records is an unbiased, impartial assessment of the animal you are examining?

Answer 1

(Objective)

Question 2

Where within your medical record would you include your differentials?

Answer 2

(Assessment)

Question 3

Where within your medical record would you put client history?

Answer 3

(Subjective)

Question 4

Where within your medical record would you put what you are going to do with a patient in a month from today’s visit?

Answer 4

(Plan)

Question 5

Where within your medical record would you include information about the lifestage, behavior, and/or diet of a patient?

Answer 5

(Subjective)

Question 6

What is the most important part of your wellness appointments?

Answer 6

(History)

Question 7

Compare and contrast the grading of BCS versus MCS.

Answer 7

(BCS is a scale from 1-9, MCS is normal, mild loss, moderate loss, or severe loss, although Dr. Persons mentions she still grades out of 1-9 for MCS so you do you)

Question 8

What are the four locations you should evaluate muscle mass over?

Answer 8

(Spine, shoulder blades, skull, and hips)

Question 9

(T/F) Regardless of vaccine status, high risk cats should be tested for FeLV/FIV annually or even biannually.

Answer 9

(T)

Question 10

(T/F) Regardless of vaccine status, dogs should be tested with a 4DX test annually.

Answer 10

(T)

Question 11

What dental disease grade is described: mild to moderate tartar and gingivitis are present on multiple teeth, gingivitis is usually reversible after professional scaling and polishing.

Answer 11

(Grade 2)

Question 12

What is the typical dental disease grade of young, healthy dogs and cats between 6 and 12 months of age?

Answer 12

(Grade 0)

Question 13

With which dental disease grade is tooth loss imminent?

Answer 13

(Grade 4)

Question 14

What life stage is a dog that is still growing and reproductively mature?

Answer 14

(Junior)

Question 15

What life stage is a dog that is finished growing and who is structurally and socially mature?

Answer 15

(Adult)

Question 16

What is the difference between sterilizing and protective immunity?

Answer 16

(Sterilizing → disease cannot develop i.e. rabies vaccine; protective → reduces severity of disease i.e. COVID-19 vaccine, hopefully everyone knows that bc they received one if not, bombastic side eye)

Question 17

What are therapeutic biologics such as cytopoint?

Answer 17

(Non conventional vaccines that are intended to support TREATMENT instead of prevention like typical vaccines)

Question 18

Ideally, vaccines should be given prior to or after (choose one) immunosuppressive therapies.

Answer 18

(Prior to)

Question 19

Preferentially, immunocompromised patients should receive MLV or killed (choose one) vaccines.

Answer 19

(Killed)

Question 20

What are the four core diseases vaccinated against in dogs?

Answer 20

(Rabies, canine distemper, canine parvovirus, and canine adenovirus-2)

Question 21

You are presented with a 6 month old dog who has never had vaccines before. The owner only wants to pursue core vaccines. You consider the dog a low risk for distemper.
A. What vaccines should be given?
B. When should they be revaccinated?
C. How often should revaccination occur after the initial revaccination?

Answer 21

A. (You should give a single dose of rabies and distemper)
B. (Both should be boostered one year later)
C. (Rabies → 1-3 years depend on laws, life style, and vaccine label instruction; distemper → every 3 years)

Question 22

What are the five core diseases vaccinated against in cats?

Answer 22

(Rabies, feline panleukopenia virus, feline herpesvirus-1, calicivirus, and feline leukemia virus)

Question 23

FVRCP should be boostered every how many weeks in kittens until what age in weeks?

Answer 23

(Boostered every 3-4 weeks until 16-20 weeks of age)

Question 24

(T/F) Cats vaccinated for FeLV will be positive on a SNAP test.

Answer 24

(F, cats vaccinated for FIV will be positive on a SNAP test, not FeLV)

Question 25

(T/F) In the state of Virginia, all domesticated feline and canine patients must have a rabies vaccination by the age of 16 weeks old.

Answer 25

(T)

Question 26

Rabies vaccines should not be given earlier than what age in puppies and kittens?

Answer 26

(12 weeks/3 months)

Question 27

(T/F) An animal is not considered immunized against rabies until 28 days after their most recent vaccination.

Answer 27

(T)

Question 28

As the levels of maternally derived antibodies varies significantly among litters, the vaccination guidelines group recommends the administration of how many vaccines doses to puppies and kittens, with the final dose of these being delivered at what age or above?

Answer 28

(3 vaccine doses with the final dose of these being delivered at 14-16 weeks of age or above)

Question 29

(T/F) The parenteral bordetella vaccine can be administered as early as 2-3 weeks of age in dogs.

Answer 29

(F, the intranasal can be administered that early; parenteral cannot be started until 8 weeks of age)

Question 30

Does the intranasal/oral or parenteral bordetella vaccine need two doses given 2-4 weeks apart?

Answer 30

(Parenteral)

Question 31

(T/F) Two initial doses, 2-4 weeks apart, are required regardless of a dog’s age for the leptospirosis vaccine.

Answer 31

(T, can start it as early as 8-9 weeks in babies but if an owner bring you their 10 year old dog wanting lepto after reading an article about it, they also need two doses 2-4 weeks apart)

Question 32

How early can you start the two dose lyme vaccine series in dogs?

Answer 32

(8-9 weeks of age. Second dose should be given 2-4 weeks later. Any dog of any age getting lyme for the first time should get a two dose series)

Question 33

The canine influenza vaccine series should begin how many weeks prior to an expected exposure such as boarding or travel?

Answer 33

(4 weeks)

Question 34

How early can you start the two dose canine influenza vaccine series in dogs?

Answer 34

(6-8 weeks of age. Second dose should be given 2-4 weeks later. Any dog of any age getting canine influenza for the first time should get a two dose series)

Question 35

How much feces is needed for a centrifugal fecal floatation?

Answer 35

(At least 3 grams of feces)

Question 36

The American Heartworm Society recommends annual screening for heartworm in all dogs over what age with both an antigen and microfilaria test?

Answer 36

(7 months of age)

Question 37

(T/F) Most microfilaria positive dogs can be detected by direct smears so direct smears can be used with asymptomatic patients known to be on regular HW preventative.

Answer 37

(T)

Question 38

What microfilaria test should be used under situations of increased possibility of heartworm such as symptomatic dogs, previous heartworm preventative hx unknown, dog not on year-round preventive, dog older than 6 months and never on preventative, and anytime you suspect heartworm?

Answer 38

(The microfilaria knotts test)

Question 39

What tick says f**k all of you and your assumptions that ticks are a summer pest and has peak activity in the winter, which is an argument for why flea and tick prevention should continue in winter months?

Answer 39

(Ixodes scapularis aka the fricking carrying of lyme disease)

Question 40

Which of the following does not tolerate freezing temperatures? A. Toxocara B. Ancylostoma C. Trichuris

Answer 40

(B, the eggs of the other two are not killed by freezing)

Question 41

(T/F) You do not need to start kittens on dewormer as soon as possible like in puppies because hookworms are not a concern in pet cats.

Answer 41

(T, should tx them every 3 weeks until 12 weeks of age)

Question 42

(T/F) Broad spectrum end of life care only pertains to hospice-supported natural death.

Answer 42

(F, broad spectrum end of life care also includes death by euthanasia → it entails providing physical, emotional, and social needs of animals from their terminal diagnosis to death whether it be euthanasia or natural)

Question 43

What is the goal of palliative care?

Answer 43

(Relieve suffering through treatment that supports or improves quality of life)

Question 44

What are the cons to CO/CO2 for euthanasia? Three answers.

Answer 44

(It is challenging, expensive, and there is a risk to personnel)

Question 45

What agents are unacceptable for use as euthanasia agents in conscious vertebrate animals? Three answers.

Answer 45

(Magnesium sulfate, potassium chloride, and neuromuscular blocking agents)

Question 46

(T/F) It is best for the veterinarian to bring up euthanasia first.

Answer 46

(T)

Question 47

What are the exceptions to the VA laws saying euthanasia can only be performed by or under direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian?

Answer 47

(Shelters and animal control officers)

Question 48

Injection of what agent is the only approved method for routine and emergency companion animal euthanasia in VA besides anything approved by the AVMA guidelines?

Answer 48

(Sodium pentobarbital)

Question 49

What sign of death is the only sign of death that confirms death when it is alone i.e. no other signs need to be present?

Answer 49

(Rigor mortis)

Question 50

What are the eight assessments that must be performed 5 and 30 minutes after administration of sodium pentobarbital to a patient for the purpose of euthanasia in the state of VA?

Answer 50

(Auscultation and palpation of no heartbeat, auscultation, palpation and visual confirmation of no respiration, no corneal reflex, no toe-pinch reflex, and no CRT)

Question 51

When do you need to check the 8 parameters of death confirmation (as set per VA) after administration of sodium pentobarbital? Two answers.

Answer 51

(5 and 30 minutes after giving the injection)