Small Ruminant Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

What is an intact male sheep called?

A

Ram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an intact male goat called?

A

Buck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a castrated male sheep AND goats called?

A

Wether

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the name of a weaned young goat?

A

doeling/buckling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of diet for Sheep? Goat?

A

Sheep: grazing grass (grass succulents)
Goats: Browse (twigs/leaves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Do goats or sheet have wattles?

A

goats-wattles and beards

sheep-mane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do sheep get aged by dentition?

A

buck teeth on bottom=1 yr
teeth next to it grow ascending with age
4 years all teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What virus causes contagious ecthyma?

A

parapox virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the clinical signs of contagious ecythema?

A
  • vesicles
  • papules
  • crusty proliferative lesions–>lips, nose, gums
  • Lesions on tongue, conjunctiva, genitalia, udder perineum
  • reluctant to nurse/be nursed
  • reluctant to walk/eat–>weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you diagnose contagious ecythma?

A
  • HX and PE
  • signalment
  • EM
  • PCR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you treat contagious ecythma?

A
  • lasts 1-4 week
  • supportive care
  • antibiotics
  • larvocides/fly repellant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the prognosis of orf?

A

morbidity >80%

mortality low and usually heals without scars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the common clostridial diseases types in goats/sheep?

A
  • type c (enterotoxemia)–>bloody scours
  • Type D (enterotoxemia)–>pulpy kidney and overeating disease
  • Tetnus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the bacteria that cause contagious agalactica in sheep and goats?

A

M. agalactica
M. mycoides sub mycoides
M. capricolum sub capricolum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does contagious agalactica spread?

A

infected animals into herd

spread via milk and ocular discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What clinical signs do you see with contagious agalactica?

A

mastitis
arthritis
conjunctivitis

**may not see al three
typically you see abrupt agalactica w/ abcessation of mammary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you diagnose contagious agalactica?

A

culture
PCR
serology

18
Q

What are the treatment options for contagious agalactica?

A

antibiotics mitigate it but don’t cure

have to aim for prevention–>biosecurity, milking hygiene, testing

19
Q

What is contagious caprine pleuropnemonia?

A

highly contagious goat disease from Mycoplasma capricolum

subsp. capripneumoniae

20
Q

What are the clinical signs of contagious caprine pleuropnemonia?

A

mouth breathing
salivation
death within days

**can have septicemia

21
Q

What is the diagnosis for contagious caprine pleuropnemonia?

A
PCR
latex agglutination (checks go IgM antibodies in response to mycoplasm)
22
Q

What is the etiology of Ketatoconjunctivitis?

A

causedby M.conjunctivae through direct contact/fomites

23
Q

What are the clinical signs with infectious ketatoconjunctivitis?

A

blepharospasm, conjunctivitis, lacrimation, and varying degrees of corneal opacity and ulceration

24
Q

How would you diagnose infectious ketaroconjunctivitis?

A

clinical signs

culture

25
How do you treat infectious keratoconjunctivitis?
tetracyclines (parenteral-iv) prevention is dust and insect control-->stress can increase the prevalence
26
What is Eperythrozoonosis? CS-->TX
Caused my M. ovis bacteria through horizontal transfer (vertical can occur too) mainly through biting insects (midges/mosquitoes) clinical signs: icteroanemia (acute) and ill thrift when chronic (anemia and jaundice) DX: PCR, blood smear, serology (herd-level) TX: tetracyclines control by preventing blood to blood contact-->shearing, market ect ***The Mycoplasma ovis bacterium infects the red blood cells of the animals, prompting the spleen to attempt to clear the infection by destroying the diseased blood cells. It is this excessive destruction of the blood that leads to anaemia, jaundice and death. Disease outbreaks can last for 14 to 28 days.
27
What is caprine Arthritis and encephalitis? What are its four clinical manifestations?
``` Lenti Virus Synovitis leukocephalomyelitis interstitial pneumonia mastitis ```
28
What is OPP?
Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Lentivirus CULL because virus shed in colustrum/milk CS: progressive emaciation and debilitating pneumonia "hard bag"-->firm udder, scant milk production no signs of inflammation
29
What is the difference between OPP and CAE clinical signs?
CAE: polyarthritis in adults, encephalitis in kids, chronic mastitis in adults (i.e., hardbag). OPP: pneumonia, poor-doers (weight loss, lethargic, mastitis, febrile); affects adults more than lambs
30
What clinical signs are seen with Caseous Lymphadenitis? (CLA) How do you treat?
-causes caseation (cheese) of lymph nodes CS: swollen LN, draining tract, chronic weight loss DX: serology, culture, necropsy TX: antimicrobials (intralesional or systemic) and supportive care
31
How do you prevent caseous lymphadentitis?
vaccination disinfect shearing equipment (prevent contact with pus) remove hazards in environment prepurchase exam for lesions serologic screening and quarantine before new introductions
32
How does CLA spread?
is spread from animal to animal primarily through contact with material from subcutaneous abscesses (pus) or fomites (inanimate objects) contaminated with abscess material. The organism can survive several months in the soil and environment, remaining a source of infection.
33
What is Bluetongue?
Orbivirus primary host is sheep (others= cattle goat and deer) spread by biting insects (culicoides-biting midges) high morbidity w/ low mortality
34
What are the clinical signs of blue tongue?
``` severe fever lasting 5-6 days nasal d/c reddening of buccal/nasal mucosa edema of face, lips and jaw cyanosis of tongue and MM erosion/sloughing of oral mucosa coronitis/lameness-->reluctance to move abortion and deformed limbs ```
35
What is the bacteria that causes footrot in sheep?
Dichelobacter nodosus and usuallly fusobacterium necrophorum HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS-->lesion d/c
36
What are the clinical signs of footrot?
interdigital inflammation underrunning of soft and hard horn severe lameness foul smell
37
What is the treatment for footrot?
aggressive hoof trimming topical antibiotics parenteral antibiotics ``` control: footbaths isolation vx culling ```
38
What is foot scald?
caused by fusobacterium necrophorum-->cause mild-mod lameness wet conditions (NOT contagious) CS: interdigital dermatitis sometimes also involve the heel bulbs TX: footbaths, dry clean pasture
39
What is strawberry foot?
Caused by dermatophilus cogolensis scabs and contaminated ground remain inefective for LONG periods (summer/high morbidity) CS: proliferative dermatitis (scabs pile up from coronet to hock/knee, no itching/lameness TX: self heal in 5-6 weeks
40
What is the disease agent for Caceous Lymphadenitis?
cornebacterium psuedotuburculosis