Solo Stage Check Flashcards
(Airworthiness, performance limitations, weight and balance, weather, airspace, and solo pilot privileges and limitations). (124 cards)
1
Q
What is the acronym SUU uses for airworthiness?
A
DIE
2
Q
What makes up the acronym DIE?
A
Documents, inspections, and equipment
3
Q
What are the documents the aircraft needs to be airworthy?
(ARROWGC)
A
Airworthiness Certification
Registration
Operations Limitations
Weight and Balance
Garmin Manual
Checklists (emergency and normal)
4
Q
What documents does the pilot need to have to be airworthy?
(CLIMB)
A
-Currency Requirement logged
-License
-ID (gov. photo)
-Medical
-Biannual flight review current
5
Q
What is the I in the DIE acronym?
A
Inspections
6
Q
What inspection does the pilot need to perform on themself?
A
Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Emotions/Eating
7
Q
How long does a pilot need to wait to fly after drinking?
A
8 hours and until the affects of the alcohol have worn off.
A hangover is still considered to be an affect of alcohol.
8
Q
What inspections does the pilot need to have done on the aircraft?
A
VFR
-Transponder (24)
-Hundred hour (progressive)
ELT (12)
Airworthiness Directives
Annual (12)
VFR + IFR
VOR (30 days)
Instrument: Altimeter
Pitot/Static
9
Q
What are the three main types of AD’s?
A
-One time AD: Requires one time alteration.
-Recurring AD: Requires a check or service to be performed on an ongoing basis at specific intervals
-Emergency Airworthiness Directives: Absolutely must take care of this before flight.
10
Q
Are AD’s mandatory?
A
Yes
Unless voluntary
11
Q
What causes an issuance of an AD?
A
When the FAA determines a product meets two criteria:
- An unsafe condition exists in a product.
- The condition is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
12
Q
Does an airworthiness certificate expire?
A
No, an airworthiness certificate (CoA) does not expire as long as the aircraft meets certain requirements:
The aircraft is registered in the United States
The aircraft is in good condition for safe operation and maintenance
The aircraft meets its approved type design
Preventative maintenance and alterations are performed in accordance with 14 CFR parts 21, 43, and 91
The aircraft undergoes an annual inspection
13
Q
Can an aircraft overfly a 100 hour?
A
yes
by 10 hours. Only for the purpose of flying to an area that will perform the hundred hour inspection.
14
Q
Can an aircraft overfly an annual inspection?
21.197
A
No
Unless a special flight permit is attained. This is a special circumstance and FAR 21.197 spells out the different circumstances for issuance of a ‘ferry permit.’
15
Q
What equipment does the aircraft need to fly?
FAR 91.205 ATOMATOFFLAMES
A
-Anti-collision Light
-Tachometer (each engine)
-Oil pressure Indicator (pressure system)
-Manifold Pressure Indicator (altitude engine)
-Altimeter
-Temperature Gauge (liquid cooled engine)
-Oil temperature indicator (air cooled engine)
-Fuel quantity gauge (each tank)
-Flotation Gear (over water)
-Landing Gear Position Indicator (retractable)
-Airspeed Indicator
-Magnetic Direction Indicator
-Emergency Location Transmitter
-Seatbelts
16
Q
What is the VFR equipment FAR? What in the POH should you also check before a flight to make sure you have all the necessary equipment onboard?
A
FAR 91.205
KOEL (POH 2-13)
17
Q
What is the nighttime VFR/IFR equipment list?
A
Fuses (circuit breakers)
landing light (hire)
Anti-collision light
Position light
Source of power
18
Q
What makes the POH in the plane special?
A
It is serialized to the aircraft.
Comes with an as delivered weight and balance.
19
Q
Where is the reference datum on the Cirrus SR20?
A
100” forward of the cabin firewall
20
Q
What is a reference datum?
A
An imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances are measured for balance purposes.
21
Q
What is a tare?
A
the weight of all items used to hold or position the airplane on the scales for weighting.
Tare includes blocks, shims, and chocks.
Tare weight must be subtracted from the associated scale reading.
22
Q
What is a Fuselage Station?
A
A location along the airplane fuselage measured in inches from the reference datum and expressed as a number.
A designated spot in the aircraft where weight can be added or subtracted.
Ex. a point measured 123” aft of the reference datum is FS 123.
23
Q
What is CG?
A
The center of gravity is a point on the airplane where if it were to be suspended it would balance.
Its distance from the reference datum is found by dividing the total moment by the total weight of the airplane.
24
Q
What is an Arm in regards to weight and balance?
A
the horizontal distance from the reference datum to the center of gravity of an item. The airplane’s arm is obtained by adding the airplane’s individual moments and dividing the sum by the total weight.
Weight X Arm = Moment
25
What is the moment in regards to weight and balance?
Moment is force that causes or tries to cause an object to rotate. In aviation, moment is used to calculate Centre of Gravity(CG) and is derived by multiplying the weight of an item by its arm.
26
What is Basic Empty Weight?
The actual weight of the airplane including all operating equipment that has a fixed location in the airplane. The basic empty weight includes the weight of the unusable fuel and full oil.
27
What is maximum ramp weight?
the maximum weight approved for ground maneuver and includes the weight of the fuel used for startup and taxi.
28
What is maximum gross weight?
| not the number. the definition
The maximum permissible weight of the airplane and its contents as listed in aircraft specifications.
29
Define maximum takeoff weight.
| Not the actual number...we know its 3150
The maximum weight approved for the start of the takeoff run.
30
Define maximum zero fuel weight.
the maximum permissible weight of the airplane and its contents minus the total weight of the fuel onboard.
31
Define useful load.
The basic empty weight subtracted from the maximum ramp weight.
It is the maximum allowable combined weight of the pilot, passengers, fuel, and baggage.
32
Define maximum landing weight.
The maximum weight approved for the landing touchdown.
33
What is a ferry permit/special flight permit?
| FAR 21.197
(a) A special flight permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight, for the following purposes:
(1) Flying the aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage.
(2) Delivering or exporting the aircraft.
(3) Production flight testing new production aircraft.
(4) Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger.
(5) Conducting customer demonstration flights in new production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests.
(6) authorize the operation of an aircraft at a weight in excess of its maximum certificated takeoff weight for flight beyond the normal range over water, or over land areas where adequate landing facilities or appropriate fuel is not available.
34
When does the registration for an airplane expire?
7 years.
35
What page is the KOEL on?
2-13
36
What is the special use airspace acronym?
MCPRAWN
37
What are the seven types of special use airspace?
Military Operating Area
Controlled Firing Area
Prohibited Airspace
Restricted Airspace
Alert Area
Warning Area
National Security Area
38
What is a Military Operating Area (Airspace)
Blocks of airspace that are established to separate certain military training activities from instrument flight rule traffic.
39
What is a Controlled Firing Area (Airspace)
Contain activities which if not conducted ina controlled environment could be hazardous to non participating aircraft. Ex. Artillery.
40
What is Prohibited Airspace?
A designated area within which the flight of aircraft are prohibited.
41
What is Restricted Airspace?
Areas within which the flight of aircraft is not wholly prohibited but subject to restrictions.
They contain activity that is hazardous to aircraft.
42
What is an Alert Area? (Airspace)
Depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain high volume pilot training, parachute jumping, glider towing, or an unusual type of aerial activity.
43
What is a Warning Area? (Airspace)
Sections of airspace that contain activities that may be hazardous to non participating aircraft.
The purpose of warning areas is to warn non participating pilots of potential danger.
44
What are National Security Areas? (Airspace)
Established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety at ground facilities.
Depicted inside a magenta dash, similar as a class echo airspace extension to surface, but larger.
45
What is the acronym for other airspace?
SWAMPTTOV
46
What is an MTR? (Other Airspace)
Military Training Route.
47
What color is a MTR on a sectional?
Grey
48
What are Temporary Flight Restrictions? (Other Airspace)
Areas that the FAA are imposing temporary flight restrictions.
49
What section of the AIM can Airspace information be found?
Section 3
50
What is the P in SWAMPTTO?
Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations
51
What are all the Other
Airspaces?
| SSWWrAAAMPPTTO
-Special Air Traffic Rules (SATR) and Special Flight Rules Areas (SFRA): prescribe special air traffic rules for aircraft operating within boundaries of certain designated airspace.
-Weather Reconnaissance Areas: airspace areas with defined dimensions and published by a NOTAM, which is established to support weather reconnaissance/research flights.
-Wildlife and Recreational Areas: established due to the high volume of scenic tour flights and/or to protect noise sensitive areas.
-Airport Advisory Area and Services: provided at airports without an operating control tower that have certified automated weather reporting via voice capability
-Aircraft Hazards Areas: used by aircraft control to segregate air traffic from a launch vehicle.
-Air Defense Identification Zone: areas of airspace in the vicinity of US boundaries, oer land, or water, in which the ready identification, location, and control of all aircraft is required in the interest of national security.
-Military Training Route: a joint venture by the FAA and the DOD, developed for use by military aircraft to gain and maintain proficiency in tactical ‘low level’ flying.
-Parachute Jump Areas: sections of airspace set aside to contain jump operations
-Published VFR Routes: developed for transitioning around, under and through complex airspace such as class Bravo.
-Terminal Radar Service Area: delineated airspace in which radar and ATC services are made available for pilots under IFR and participating VFR aircraft.
-Temporary Flight Restrictions: issued to clear airspace for the purpose of security or safety.
-Other Non-Charted Airspace Areas
## Footnote
https://www.cfinotebook.net/notebook/national-airspace-system/other-airspace
52
Class A Airspace Specifications and Requirements
Dimensions: Starts at 18,000' MSL with a ceiling of FL600. Above this E starts again.
Entry Requirements: IFR rated in an IFR aircraft.
Equipment: IFR stuff
Pilot Qualifications: IFR
Speed Limit: MACH 1
Wx: N/A
53
Class B Airspace Specifications and Requirements
Dimensions: Not standard. it will be tiered/shelved like a wedding cake. It will top out at 10,000'. Built as needed to accommodate specific airspace and environment. There will also be a mode C veil that encompasses the whole thing prior to entry.
Entry Requirement: Specific clearance required, "tail number, cleared into the bravo airspace." no clearance no entry.
Equipment: Mode C Transponder, ADS-B, and two way radio.
Pilot Qualifications: Private pilot or student pilot with endorsement.
Speed Limit: Below 10,000' MSL remain below 250kts. Airspace underlying class B or a VFR corridor through class B, airspeed at or less than 200 kts.
Wx: 3 sm and CC
54
Class C Airspace Specifications and Requirements
Dimensions: simple wedding cake with the core being 5 nautical miles and the tier 10 nautical miles. Reference the chart for height.
Entry Requirements: Establish two way communication with ATC, no tail number no entry.
Equipment: ADS-B, mode C transponder, and two way radio.
Pilot Qualification: Any
Speed limit: less than 4 nautical miles and less than 2,500 AGL remain below 200 kts. Below 10,000' MSL remain below 250 kts.
Wx: 3sm
1,000 Above
500 Below
2,000 Horizontal
55
Class D Airspace Specifications and Requirements
Dimensions: Cylindrical going up to a height of 2,500' AGL with a diameter of 8-10 NM.
Entry Requirements: Establish two way radio communication with ATC; you need a tail number confirmation. No tail number, no entry.
Equipment: Two way radio, ADS-B, and mode C transponder.
Pilot Qualification: Any
Speed limit: if you are within 4 nautical miles and under 2,500 AGL remain below 200 kts. Additional to the normal, below 10,000' remain below 250 kts. (FAR 91.117)
Wx: 3 152 (ABC)
56
Class E Airspace Specifications and Requirements
| Sometimes indicated on a sectional with a dashed magenta circle
Dimensions: Everywhere, it exists between and around other airspace. The floor can be the surface, 700', or 1,200 and extends up to 17,999.
Entry Requirements: No specific entry requirements
Equipment: no specific requirements below 10,000'
Pilot Qualifications: Any
Speed limit:
- Below 10,000' MSL no aircraft can operate at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kts.
- Underlying class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kts.
Wx:
Above 10,000': 5 111
Below 10,000': 3 152
57
Class G Airspace Specifications and Requirements
Dimensions: no dimensions, it will usually underlay E airspace between the surface and the floor of E. (700-1,200 AGL)
Entry Requirements: None
Equipment: No specific requirements
Pilot qualifications: None
Speed limit: Basic speed limit as per 91.117. Below 10,000' less than 250 kts. Above 10,000', mach one
Wx: (91.155)
Day:
-Below 1,200' AGL 1 sm and cc
-Above 1,200' AGL and below 10,000' MSL: 1 sm vis, 1,000' above, 500' below, 2,000' horizontal.
-Above 10,000' MSL 5 sm, 1,000' above, 1,000' below, 1 sm across.
Night:
-3sm 152 (ABC)
58
VMC
Visual meteorological conditions. This is a flight category wherein VFR is permitted.
59
IMC
Instrument Meteorological Conditions. An aviation flight category that describes weather conditions that require pilots to fly primarily by reference to instruments. (IFR)
60
IFR, what does the acronym mean and what are the weather minimums as well as subcategory?
Instrument Flight Rules
IFR weather minimums:
500'-1,000' AGL Ceiling and/or 1-3 miles visibility.
LIFR weather minimums:
Below 500' AGL ceiling and/or less than 1 mile visibility.
61
VFR, what does the acronym mean and what are the weather minimums as well as subcategory?
Visual Flight Rules
VFR weather minimums:
-Greater than 3,000' AGL ceiling and greater than 5 sm visibility.
MVFR weather minimums:
- 1,000'-3,000' AGL ceiling and/or 3-5 miles visibility.
62
SR20 Emergency
Rough Engine
| MFFqFMAL
Mixture: Set for Altitude
Fuel Pump: On
Fuel Quantity: Check
Fuel Selector: Switch Tanks
Magnetos: Cycle/Both
Alternate Air: On
Land: As Soon As Practical
63
SR20 Emergency
Low Oil Pressure
| ORAESLE
Oil Temperature: Check
RPM: Reduce
Airspeed: Increase
Evaluate:
-Better: Moderate engine workload
-No change: Land As Soon As Possible
Expectation: Engine Failure
64
SR20 Emergency
Icing
| PEACDAsAs (Emergency Checklist Configuration)
Pitot Heat: On
Exit Icing Conditions: Turn or Change Altitude as Appropriate
Alternate Air: On
Cabin Heat: Hot
Defrost: On
Alternate Static: As Required
Approach Speed: Increase by 10 kts
65
SR20 Emergency
Static Blockage
Alternate Static: On
Cabin Air: Off
66
SR20 Emergency
Flap Failure
Flaps: Up
Approach Speed: Add 10 kts
67
SR20 Emergency
Prop Governor Failure
| RL
RPM: Regulate with power lever
Land: As Soon as Practical
68
SR20 Emergency
Electrical Failure
| AEL
Affected Alternator: Off
Electrical Load: Reduce
Land: As Soon as Practical
69
SR20 Emergency
CO Advisory
Cabin Heat: Cold
Cabin Air: On
Vents: Open
Land: As Soon as possible
70
SR20 Emergency
Smoke
Identify: Type of Smoke
Isolate: Cabin Heat or Cold
Ventilate: Vents Open/Doors if Necessary
71
SR20 Emergency
Fire (Engine)
| FTMAESU
Fuel Selector: Off
Throttle: Full
Mixture: Cut Off
Airspeed: 150 Knots (increase if necessary)
Evaluate:
Successful: Inflight Failure
Unsuccessful: Emergency Descent
72
SR20 Emergency
Fire (Electrical)
| B12SE.UFE.SCB21S
Battery 1/(2 VMC): Off
Avionic Switch: Off
Switches: All Off
Evaluate:
-Unsuccessful:
Use Fire Extinguisher
Emergency Descent
-Successful:
Circuit Breakers: Check (do not reset)
Battery 2 then 1: On
Systems: On as Necessary, One at a Time
Note: If smoke returns undo any last action and isolate the system
73
SR20 Emergency
Fire (Wing)
Landing Light: Off
Strobe Light: Off
Position Light: Off
Pitot Heat: Off
Side Slip: Away From Fire
74
SR20 Emergency
Fire (Outside Source)
Identify: Source of Smoke
Proceed: Away from Affected Area
75
SR20 Emergency
Emergency Descent
| TBCBAC
Throttle: Idle
Bank: 45 Degree Angle
Clear: Area Below
Best Place to Land
Airspeed: 164 kts (up to Vne in smooth air)
CAPS: If safe landing is in doubt, slow to 120, deploy CAPS above 1,000 AGL
76
SR20 Emergency
Engine Failure (Takeoff Roll)
| CBMI
Control: Maintain Centerline
Brakes: As Necessary
Mixture: Cut Off
Ignition: Off and Out
77
SR20 Emergency
Engine Failure (After Takeoff Below 600 AGL)
| ABMISB
Airspeed: Flaps 50% 83 kts
Best Place To land: Select landing field
Mixture: Cutoff
Ignition: Off and Out
Seat Belt: Secure
Brakes: As Necessary After Landing
78
SR20 Emergency
Engine Failure (In Flight Between 600 and 2,000 AGL)
CAPS: If a safe landing is in doubt, slow to 120, deploy CAPS immediately.
79
SR20 Emergency
CAPS Deployment
| ACMFFREB12ST
Aircraft: Above 600 AGL, Below 133 kts
CAPS Handle: Pull
Mixture: Cut Off
Fuel Selector/Pump: Off
Radio/ELT: MAYDAY Call/On
Battery 1/2: Off
Seat Belt: Secure
Touchdown: Emergency Landing Position
Note: Figure on a best exit/evacuation plan and execute as safely as possible.
80
SR20 Emergency
Engine Failure (In Flight Above 2,000 AGL)
| R: MFFAI S:FFMICC
Restart:
-Mixture: rich
-Fuel pump: on
-Fuel selector: tank with gas
-Alternate Air: on
-Ignition: both
engage if prop isn't windmilling.
Secure:
-Fuel pump: off
-Fuel selector: off
-Mixture: cutoff
-Ignition: off
-CAPS: if a safe landing is in doubt, slow to 120, deploy CAPS above 1,000'
-Call: mayday, mayday, mayday over traffic or 121.5 if there is no traffic in the area.
81
What makes an aircraft or airman airworthy?
Having all the right documents, inspections, and equipment.
82
What is the responsibility and authority of the pilot in command? (FAR 91.3)
(A) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
(B) In and in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency.
(C) Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph b of this section shall upon the request of the administrator, send a written report to that deviation to the administrator.
83
What condition must an aircraft be in to be operated? (FAR 91.7)
(A) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition.
(B) The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight. The pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.
84
Who's responsibility is it to maintain an aircraft in an airworthy condition? (FAR 91.403)
The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 of this chapter.
No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations on an aircraft other than as prescribed in this subpart and other applicable regulations, including part 43 of this chapter.
85
(FAR 21.197) What are the reasons a Special Flight Permit would be needed?
A Special Flight Permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight, for the following purposes:
-Flying the aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage.
-Delivering or exporting the aircraft.
-Production flight testing new production aircraft.
-May also be issued to authorize the operation of an aircraft at a weight in excess of its maximum certificated takeoff weight.
86
What is the FAR for the issuance of Special Flight Permits?
21.199
87
Can an aircraft be operated without an ELT? (FAR 91.207)
No, with exceptions for:
-Ferry a newly acquired airplane from the place where possession of it was taken to a place where the emergency locator transmitter is to be installed.
-Ferry an airplane with an inoperative emergency locator transmitter to a place where repairs or replacements cannot be made to a place where they can be.
88
How often does the ELT need to be inspected? (FAR 91.207)
12 calendar months
89
When must the batteries used for the ELT be changed? (91.207)
when the transmitter has been used for more than 1 cumulative hour.
When 50 percent of the useful life has expired.
90
What is the acronym that can be used to remember the ELT inspections and battery rules?
121.5
12 calendar month inspection.
1 hour cumulative use
.5 (50%) battery life
91
What is a Final Rule Airworthiness Directive?
Final Rule: a legally enforceable regulation that requires aircraft owners and operators to take action to correct a known safety deficiency in an aircraft, engine, propeller, or appliance.
92
What are Emergency Airworthiness Directives?
Emergency AD: issued when an unsafe condition exists that requires immediate action by an owner/operator.
93
What is a notice of proposed rulemaking AD?
Notice of Proposed Rulemaking: an announcement that lets the public know what the agency is considering and provides an opportunity for feedback.
94
What is a Biweekly Airworthiness Directive?
Biweekly AD: A publication that lists new and revised AD's issued within the last two weeks.
95
What are the three types of AD's basically summed up?
1. Emergency
2. Standard
3. Recurring
96
What is the oil grade for the SR20?
15W-50
97
What is the maximum operating altitude?
17,500
98
What is the maximum takeoff altitude?
10,000
99
What are the affects of a forward loaded CG?
-Increase stall speed
-Bad cruise performance
-Increase stall/spin recovery
-Increases stability/controllability
100
What is the FAR for student solo limitations?
61.87
School SOP is also a good place to look for privileges and limitations for students.
101
What are the affects of an aft loaded CG?
-Decreased stall speed
-Good cruise performance
-Decreased stall/spin recovery
-Decreased stability/controllability
102
Is Vy based on elevation or weight?
Elevation (4-3 of the POH)
103
What is the difference between a MEL and a KOEL?
MEL is a list of equipment that can be inoperative for a flight. A KOEL is a list of equipment that must be operative for a flight.
104
What airmen documents and endorsements are you required to carry with you on all solo flights?
-High performance endorsement
-Pilot Certificate
-Logbook
-Government Photo ID
-Medical Certificate
-Biannual Flight Review
| FAR 61.3 Requirements for Certificates, Ratings, and Authorizations
105
What is the flow for inoperative equipment?
-Check 91.205
-Check the KOEL
-Check the Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS)
-Check the AD's
-Make a PIC decision
Note: some instructors will want you to mention STC's
106
What is the type of annual inspection done at SUU?
Progressive 800 hour inspection split into eight phases (50 flight hours).
1,2,3,2,4,2,5,2
Done this way an annual inspection will be completed in 800 hours or failing that what is left by 12 calendar months will be inspected for the annual inspection.
107
What is basic med?
An alternate way for pilots to fly without holding an FAA medical certificate as long as they meet certain requirements.
1. comply with basic med requirements.
2. get a physical exam with a state licensed physician, using the comprehensive medical examination checklist.
3. complete a basic med education course
4. Additionally they must have had a medical certificate prior to this.
108
What are the aircraft and operating requirements under basic med?
| what are the restrictions pilots are under...
-No plane over 6 occupants
-maximum certificated weight of 6,000 pounds
-operates under VFR or IFR, within the united states, at or below 18,000' MSL, not exceeding 250 kts.
-cannot fly for compensation or hire
109
What is a good FAR to reference for medical certificates as well as basic med?
61.23
61.23C for basic med
110
Basic med advisory circular?
68-1A
111
What is the alcohol and drugs FAR?
91.17
112
SOP student solo limitations chapter 15
1. shall not conduct flight in SVFR or IMC conditions
2. shall not conduct emergency procedures or stall training
3. shall not use any visual or audio recording device during flight
4. shall not conduct flight in an aircraft that has an engine total time or time since overhaul of less than 25 hours
5. all landings away from KCDC must be to full stop
6. Solo flights can be done in aircraft on mineral oil with the exception to the first 25 hours out of overhaul, or where restricted to maintenance
7. FAA written test requirements must be completed prior to taking the EOC for a course that will end in an FAA certification
113
Operating procedures for students
students acting as PIC shall ensure that all procedures of chapters 2-15 and parts 61 and 91 are followed.
visibility must be greater than 5 SM
Ceilings must be at least 2,000'
Wind less than
15 knots total
10 knots crosswind
5 knot gust factor
Solo flights must change their call sign from T-bird to Solo flight.
114
before solo flight the instructor must endorse the student. how long ago can that be to still be valid and for what specific kind of aircraft?
within the preceding 90 days
for the specific make and model
115
what are the night limitations on students?
A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight at night unless that student has received:
flight training on night flying procedures that include takeoffs, approaches, landings, and go-arounds at night at the airport where the solo flight will be conducted.
Navigation training at night in the vicinity of the airport where the solo flight will be conducted
An endorsement in the student's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown for night solo flight by an authorized instructor within 90 days preceding the flight.
116
What is the FAR for special flight permits? What are some reasons a special flight permit is needed?
21.197
FAR (21.199) is a reference for the issuance of special flight permits.
-Flying an aircraft in excess of its weigtht.
-Flying an aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of in the case of imminent damage to the aircraft.
-Delivering or exporting and aircraft
-Production flight testing new aircraft.
117
What are the two kinds of drag?
Parasite Drag
Induced Drag
118
What are the three things that make up parasite drag?
Form Drag
Skin Friction Drag
Interference Drag
119
What is Form Drag?
The portion of parasite drag generated by the aircraft due to its shape and airflow around it.
When the air has to separate and move around a moving aircraft and its components, it eventually rejoins after passing the body. How quickly and smoothly it rejoins is representative of the resistance that it creates, which requires additional forces to overcome.
120
What is Interference Drag?
Comes from the intersection of airstreams that creates eddy currents, turbulence, or restricts smooth airflow.
For example: the intersection of the wings and the fuselage at the wing root has significant interference drag.
121
What is Skin Friction Drag?
The aerodynamic resistance due to the contact of moving air with the surface of an aircraft.
More specifically it has to do with the interaction of the free stream velocity air (that is the air *moving*) and the boundary layer air (*that is the air not moving*). The airflow outside the boundary layer reacts ot the shape of the edge of the boundary layer just as it would to the physical surface of an object.
122
When are Wingtip Vortices the strongest?
An aircraft will create
wingtip vortices with maximum strength occurring during
the takeoff, climb, and landing phases of flight.
The intensity or strength of the vortices is directly
proportional to the weight of the aircraft and inversely
proportional to the wingspan and speed of the aircraft. The
heavier and slower the aircraft, the greater the AOA and the
stronger the wingtip vortices.
Just as lift increases with an increase in AOA, induced
drag also increases. This occurs because as the AOA is
increased, there is a greater pressure difference between the
top and bottom of the airfoil, and a greater lateral flow of air;
consequently, this causes more violent vortices to be set up,
resulting in more turbulence and more induced drag.
123
What are four ways to avoid wake turbulence?
-Avoid flying through another aircraft's flight path.
-Rotate prior to the point at which the preceding aircraft rotated when taking off behind another aircraft.
-Avoid following another aircraft on a similar flight path at an altitude within 1,000'.
-Approach the runway above a preceding aircraft's path when landing behind another aircraft and touch down after the point at which the other aircraft wheels contacted the runway.
124
What is the FAA definition of moment?
In aerodynamic terms, the force that causes an object to rotate about it's CG.
