SOP V3 ✅ Flashcards

1
Q

Haz Mat First Responder Operations Level personnel are trained to take defensive action only. What CFD personnel are trained at this level?

A

All CFD personnel.
03-03-02

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the standard assignment for a Haz Mat incident? (9)

A

3 Engines
2 Ladders
2 BCs
1 Rescue
1 Medic
1 EMS Coordinator
SO2
Air Supply
HAZMAT4 (Rescue, Medic, HazMat)
03-03-02 III A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Members wanting to become HazMat techs shall write this request to who?

A

The Captain of Station 4.
03-03-03

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who is responsible for submitting an itemized bill to the CFD Business Office within 10 business days, following a HazMat Incident?

A

The HazMat Branch Officer.
03-03-03

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

At a HazMat scene, what is the only Zone that EMS units can operate in?

A

The Cold Zone.
03-03-04

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Under what 2 Terrorism Threat levels are the Canberra Dover UDR-13BR radiation monitors to be placed on the SCBA waist strap of the member I/C of all Engine, Ladder and Rescue companies?

A

Orange & Red terrorism threat levels.

Note: MAGA Threat Level is still yet to be determined by our dear leader Dementia Biden!!!

03-03-05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often are radiation monitors calibrated?

A

Every 18 months.
03-03-05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Rate Alarm and Dose Alarm set at on the Canberra Dover UDR-13BR radiation monitor?

A

Rate Alarm = 10 milli-Rad per hour.
Dose Alarm = total Dose exceeds 1 rem.
03-03-05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The BDS (Biological Detection System) at the USPS facility located at 2323 City gate Dr is set to find what substance?

A

Anthrax
03-03-06

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Staging areas for Radiological Emergencies should be a minimum of how far from the threat?

A

At least 1/4 mile away.
About 2.5 city blocks

“That’s a RAD 1/4 mile time bro”

03-03-09

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the minimum Hot Zone around a suspected Radiological Device if no radiation meter is available?

A

330 feet.
03-03-09

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When in a Radiological Hot Zone the max dose a member can receive is ____ mrem and dosimeters are to be checked every __ minutes.

A

5000 mrem
15 minutes
03-03-09

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the equivalent ranks in CPD for CFD Lt, Capt, BC & AC

A

CFD LT = CPD SERGENT
CFD CAPT = CPD LT
CFD BC = CPD COMMANDER
CFD AC = CPD DEPUTY CHIEF
03-03-01

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Once CFD personnel have left a crime scene, who must they obtain permission from to reenter the crime scene?

A

The police official in charge.
03-04-02

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fire Division Personnel are not to clean up after themselves after working in a crime scene. What are the 2 exceptions to this rule?

A

•Needles (sharps).
•Items that have contacted body fluids, unless that item is itself, evidence.
03-04-02

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

At an MVC scene, once pt treatment and transport is complete, what is the next priority for the Fire Incident COMMANDER?

A

Restoring traffic flow.
03-03-02

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If CPD finds a Bomb during a search. Who now has operational control of the scene? And, for how long?

A

CFD will have operational control of the scene until the device is rendered safe.
03-04-02

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A cold water drowning victim is considered viable for how long?

A

60 minutes or more.
03-04-02
6.1.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Does CFD or CPD have operational control over civil disobedience/ disorder or terrorist incidents (that do not involve chemical, biological or explosives)

A

CPD has operational control of those incidents.
03-04-03

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What talk group is used to contact the ODOT First Response Team?

A

TRAFFIC 1 talk group.
03-04-04.00

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What vehicles are dispatched to an AVI (Active Violent Incident)? (11)

A

3 Engines
2 Ladders
2 BCs
1 Rescue
5 Medics
2 EMSOs
EMS 10
1 DC
SO2
BS 1
BS 2
03-04-05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What personnel make up an RTF (Rescue Task Force)?

A

2 FD personnel with ballistic protection
2 LE personnel
03-04-05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Can the RTF ever enter the Hazard Zone?

A

No.
03-04-05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

At an AVI, in what zone are the triage & treatment of patients, Staging of equipment and Command functions to be located?

A

Cold Zone.
03-04-05

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Rescue Techs shall complete at least __% of scheduled continuing education, as determined by the Rescue Coordinator.
75 03-05-01
26
One of three specially equipped Ladder Companies will be dispatched to all working structural collapse incidents. What are these 3 Ladder companies?
Ladders 1, 13 or 15 03-05-02
27
The atmosphere of a confined space is considered _________ until proven otherwise.
Hazardous 03-05-04
28
At a confined space rescue, how often are multi gas meter readings be taken & recorded?
Every 5 minutes. 03-05-04
29
A flammable atmosphere is defined as any atmosphere that contains __% or more of the LEL for any substance.
10 03-05-04
30
The CFD form ES-223, Confined Space Rescue Permit, is valid for only 1 hour. After this hour is up, what must happen?
All plans & information must be reviewed, updated & approved. 03-05-04
31
Rope rescues are divided into Non-technical and Technical Categories. Define both.
Non Technical = less than 40° inclination, single rope belay, majority of the weight on the ground. Technical = 40° to 90° inclination, two-rope system, majority of the weight on the rope. 03-05-05
32
All rope rescues will use what size rope for the main line and belay line?
1/2 inch (12.5mm for you eurotrash fucks) 03-05-05
33
During Civil Disturbance / task force operations, BCs are assigned what.
A Driver / Aide. 03-06-01
34
During Civil Disturbance / task force operations. What vehicles make up the Fire Supression Task Force?
2 Engines 1 Ladder 1 BC with driver / aide 1 CPD Cruiser or Wagon 03-06-01
35
During Civil Disturbance / task force operations. What vehicles make up the EMS Task Force?
2 medics with 3rd man. 1 EMSO or 1 BC with driver / aide 1 CPD cruiser or wagon. 03-06-01
36
Define the 3 levels of command used during Venue / Event Command.
Level 1 = 150,000 participants, known high risk, Level 2 = 25,000 - 150,000 participants, moderate risk Level 3 = less than 25,000 participants, low risk 03-06-03
37
When operating outside the City of Columbus, on mutual aide, do CFD fire investigators have the same law enforcement powers as they do in the city?
Yes. 03-07-03
38
Can a CFD Fire Investigatior use their firearm to stop an animal from attacking another animal?
No. Pets are property. 03-07-04
39
According to the Use of Force Policy, define Minor and Serious injuries.
Minor injury = any injury that does not require transport to a medical facility. Serious injury = any injury that requires transport to a medical facility for treatment 03-07-05
40
How often are CFD Fire Investigators required to complete Use of Force training?
Annually 03-07-05
41
Once a suspect is handcuffed and compliant, the Fire Investigator shall place the suspect in what position?
An upright position. 03-07-05
42
Are Fire Investigators allowed to carry their firearm into secured areas of an airport or aboard an aircraft?
No. 03-07-06
43
Who will provide the primary method of transport for persons seized by authorized Fire Investigators?
CPD. 03-07-07 MOU 2.06
44
DART members must complete and maintain a PSDA ( Public Safety Divers Association) level 1 card. What month must this card be recerified each year?
November 03-08-01
45
DART members use a __ Cubic foot steel SCUBA tank.
80 03-08-02
46
DART operations may commence when a victim is believed to be submerged for less than __ minutes.
60 03-08-05
47
Upon recognition of a Barotrauma related injury, the Dive Supervisor must contact who?
Diver's Alert Network (DAN) 03-08-03
48
Normally, Rescue dive operations will convert to Recovery dive operations at the __ minute mark.
60 03-08-05
49
Normally, Dive Rescue Operations require a minimum of how many dive personnel?
Three 03-08-05
50
During a DART dive, who is responsible for the dive operation, safety, pattern selection, diver rehab and equipment use?
The Dive Supervisor. 03-08-05
51
To function as a Dive Tender, what minimum qualification must be met?
CFD Tender Training 03-08-05
52
Anytime DART is on a rescue mission, what is required to be on standby?
An ALS Medic unit & crew. 03-08-05
53
Floating deceased are considered crime scenes for Police. When can floating deceased be stabilized?
When not being stabilized would cause the body to be lost downstream. 03-08-06
54
Normally, dive operations will not be undertaken in currents of more than _ knots.
3 03-08-07
55
Is DART ever allowed to operate in known contaminated waters such as sewers, cesspool or chemical tanks?
No 03-08-07
56
Per PSDA (Public Safety Divers Association), what are the Instructor and student ratios for the 4 types of training settings?
Classroom - 30/1 Confined water/pool - 8/1 Water Visibility of 20' or more - 4/1 Zero Visibility- 2/1 03-08-03
57
During an active AVI incident, what is the minimum apparatus that will be dispatched to the scene?
3E 2L 2BC 1R 5M 2EMSO EMS10 1DC SO2 BS1 BS2. 03-04-05 4.2.1
58
All Bomb Squad requests within Franklin County must be approved by whom?
ES-2 03-01-11
59
All requests for a Bomb Squad response outside Franklin County must be approved by whom?
Fire Chief 03-01-11
60
How many BioWatch detectors are in the city? How many are at CFD stations?
10 BioWatch detectors 7 at CFD Stations. 03-02-01
61
What are the responsibilities of the 2 medics on a hazmat incident?
One Medic will be retained primarily for victim care. One Medic will be retained primarily for Hazmat Team care. 03-03-04
62
If the Canberra UDR-13 is available, establish a HOTZONE at how many mR?
Hotzone established at the perimeter of 1000mR. 03-03-09
63
CH4 on the P400 monitors what?
Methane Truck pg 388
64
Carbon Monoxide (CO) Is monitored in what range?
35ppm - 70ppm Truck pg 388
65
Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S) is monitored on what range?
10ppm - 20ppm Truck pg 388
66
Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN) Is monitored at what ranges?
4.7ppm - 10ppm Truck pg 388
67
On a response for a BDS (Biological detection system) alarm at 2323 city gate, the engine will enter by what gate?
The North Gate 03-03-06 VII B
68
On a BDS Alarm, after entering the North gate, the Engine will report where?
The Vehicle Maintenance Facility. 03-03-06 VII B
69
On a BDS alarm at 2323 City Gate Dr. The first Engine will report where and establish what?
Vehicle Maintenance Facility and establish the "VMF" Division. 03-03-06 VII C
70
What is the first responsibility of the first ladder when arriving at 2323 City gate Dr.?
Establish command at the Main entrance on the southeast side of the building. 03-03-06 VIII A
71
Once relieved of command, what is the Ladders responsibility?
Report to VMF (Vehicle Maintenance Facility) to assist with decontamination activities. 03-03-06 VIII C
72
On a BDS incident at 2323 Citygate, Hazmat 4 will establish what? And where will it be located?
Establish HazMat Branch in the rear "truck yard" 03-03-06 XI B
73
When the Ladder is relieved of command, they report to the VMF Branch. What are they able to do IF APPROPRIATE.
Take Command if appropriate 03-03-06 VII D
74
CFD will remain in-charge of the BDS incident at 2323 Citygate until when?
The United States Postal Inspectors have made entry, retrieved the test canister, and accepted control of the building. 03-03-06 XIV A
75
Name the 5 Types of MITIGATION.
•Damming •Diking •Diverting •Absorption •Remove ignition source 03-03-09 4
76
Command post can be set in any "Cold Zone" area that reads less than what?
10 mR/hr 03-03-09 G
77
CFD members are trained to what Hazmat level? What actions are they to take?
•Operations •Defensive actions 03-03-09 III A
78
The Canberra UDR-13BR will normally be carried in what mode?
Sleep mode 03-03-05 2.1.1.3
79
The Canberra UDR-13BR in sleep mode will do what?
"Wake up" every 5 minutes, vibrate and give a current rate reading then return immediately to sleep mode. Lasts 1500 hours (2 months) 03-03-05 2.1.1.1
80
During a Radiological Emergency, hazmat members should check their dosimeters how often?
Every 15 minutes 03-03-09 G
81
On a Biological Emergency, what will the Rescue do?
Report to the staging area and assist the Hazmat Branch Officer with entry and backup duties 03-03-09 E