special care Flashcards

(149 cards)

1
Q

what is the definition of conscious sedation

A

a technique in which the use of drug produces a state of depression of the central nervous system enabling treatment to be carried out, with verbal communication maintained
loss of consciousness unlikely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 4 types of conscious sedation

A

inhalation
intra venous
oral
intranasal - not widely available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is assessed pre-conscious sedation

A

thorough MH, SH
airway assessment - neck size/posture/mallampati score
- height, weight, BMI
- heart rate, BP, SpO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what consent is needed for conscious sedation

A

written

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the 3 standard techniques of conscious sedation

A

inhalation alone
IV with single drug by single route
oral with single drug by single route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is used for inhalation sedation

A

nitrous oxide and oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how is inhalation sedation delivered

A

gas via nose piece mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what anxiety levels is IHS used for

A

mild

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is required by pt for IHS

A

ability to breathe through nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what effects does IHS have

A

anxiolytic
analgesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the brand name for nitrous oxide

A

entonox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what kind of gas is nitrous oxide

A

sweet smelling
colourless
heavy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the properties of nitrous oxide

A

rapid onset of action (3-5 mins)
crosses blood-brain barrier rapid
elimination rapid
no hangover effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are signs of IHS overdose

A

headache
nausea
vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what can IHS overdose cause

A

diffusion hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how do you treat IHS overdose

A

reduce dose
O2 flush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is diffusion hypoxia

A

when nitrous oxide is discontinued, it leaves the blood more quickly than nitrogen from the air is absorbed
leads to dilution of oxygen in the lungs
causes hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how is diffusion hypoxia prevented

A

administer 100% oxygen after cessation of nitrous oxide for 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the indications for IHS

A

mild anxiety
needle phobia
pt not suitable for IV/GA
straightforward dental tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what should be considered before IHS

A

ability to cooperate:
- age
- learning disability/cognitive impairment
- ability to tolerate mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are IHS contraindications

A

copd
recent eye or ear surgery
mask intolerance
pregnancy
vit b12 deficiency
methotrexate intraction
chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what equipment is required for IHS

A

RA machine
gas cylinders or piped gas
scavenging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what drug is used for IV sedation

A

midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what anxiety levels would IV sedation be used for

A

mild-moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what effect does midazolam have on memory
amnesia
26
what is the reversal drug for midazolam
flumazenil
27
what are the indications for IV sedation
dental anxiety/phobia medically suitable social history unpleasant procedures
28
what are the contraindications for IV sedation
needle phobia medical reasons social reasons pregnancy poor venous access
29
what equipment is required for IV sedation
midazolam flumazenil syringes & labels saline pulse oximeter BP cuff and machine tourniquet
30
what is the concentartion of midazolam
1 mg/ml
31
what is the concentration of flumazenil
500 micrograms in 5 ml
32
what would stop pulse oximeter from being accurate
dark nail polish/gel or acrylic nails finger tapping/playing with pulse oximeter
33
what are signs of IV overdose
loss of protective reflexes loss of consciousness decreased respiration decreased heart rate
34
what kind of drugs midazolam and flumazenil
benzodiazepine
35
what is oral sedation
midazolam delivered as a drink
36
what must also be done for oral sedation
cannulation - for reversal
37
what is a premed
preliminary administration of a drug preceding a procedure, as an antibiotic or antianxiety agent
38
give an example of a drug regimen for premed with diazepam
5-10mg diazepam taken last thing at night and on wakening morning of appt 60-90 mins before appt
39
what are the drug interactions with diazepam
antibacterials - rifampicin antivirals - ritonavir proton pump inhibitors - omeprazole
40
what are the indications for diazepam premed
very anxious patients pts when sedation is contraindicated more complex and prolonged procedures
41
what are contraindications for diazepam
hepatic impairment renal impairment pregnancy breast feeding
42
what are cautions for diazepam
avoid prolonged use reduce dose in debilitated pts reduce dose in elderly respiratory disease
43
what is an alternative premed to diazepam
temazepam
44
what effects can benzodiazepines have
anxiolytic anticonvulsant sedation amnesia muscle relaxation
45
why do benzodiazepines cause muscle relaxing
central effect: depression of spinal reflex activity
46
what are short term side effects of benzodiazepines
drowsiness dizziness reduced concentration & coordination hypotension respiratory depression sexual fantasy
47
what are the long term side effects of benzodiazepines
tolerance dependence withdrawal symptoms
48
where would you get sedation standards and guidance
IACSDS intercollegiate advisory committee for sedation in dentistry standards SCDEP - conscious sedation in dentistry
49
what is the definition of general anaesthesia
state of controlled unconciousness with loss of protected reflexes
50
what are the indications for GA
lengthy or complex surgery very anxious and unable to tolerate concious sedation profound learning disability multiple XLA in multiple quadrants severe trauma or acute infection when conscious sedation is contraindicated
51
what are the advantages of GA
cooperation not required pt unaware of procedure taking place significant amount of tx can be carried out in one visit may be able to coordinate interventions with other specialities
52
what are the disadvantages/limitations of GA
needs careful tx planning tx has to be more radical to be done in one visit open consent needed as tx plan can change doesnt help pt get over fear # hospital admission required pre-op fasting and after care risk of morbidity and mortality
53
what is the only place GAs can be administered
hospital with intensive care facillites
54
what is deep sedation
nearly unconscious, only has purposeful response to repeated and painful stimulation
55
what is sedation used to achieve
get pt relaxed enough to allow tx to proceed safely and with minimal physiological and psychological stress
56
what are general indications for sedation
anxiety and phobias prolonged or traumatic procedures bad gag reflex medical conditions aggravated by stress special care
57
why is conscious sedation safe
pt is conscious - communcation maintained pt spontaneosuly maintains own airway cario-respiratory fucntion is normal
58
what happens after IV injection
rapid rise in plasma level drug passes through R side heart, pulmonary circulation and the L side heart goes to brain via arterial system effects start once crossed blood-brain barrier
59
what is the hand-heart-brain circulation time
25 seconds
60
what is a non-barbiturate sedation drug
propofol
61
what are the 2 ways a pt recovers from sedation
1. redistribution of the drug from CNS into body fat 2. uptake and metablosim of drug by liver and elimination by kidneys
62
what is redistribution responsible for after sedation
intial recovery, the alpha hald-life, time taken for serum conc to drop by 50%
63
what is elimination responsible for after sedation
beta half-life, time taken to remove half the drug from the body
64
what are the differences in benzodiazepines due to
affinity for receptors (potency) half life active metabolites
65
describe the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines
gamma aminobutyric acid endogenous inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA controls synaptic flow of chloride ions activation of the benzodiazepine receptors enhances the flow of chloride ions
66
what happens when chloride ions enter the cell
resting membrane potential more negative more difficult to fire an action potential so reduces: - polysynaptic transmission - depressing uptake of sensory information
67
is diazepam soluble in water
no
68
what is the half life of diazepam
30 hours
69
why is diazepam no longer used for IV sedation
the organic solvent caused vein damage, pain, thrombophlebitis, skin ulceration
70
what is the issue with diazemuls
long half life and possibility of rebound sedation
71
is midazolam water soluble
yes
72
what is the pH of midazolam
<4
73
describe the administration of midazolam
2-2.5mg 5-10 mins before procedure at 2mg/min, increase steps of 1mg if required usual total dose is 3.5-5mg maximum 7.5mg per course
74
what is the current limit of midazolam on clinic
10mg
75
describe administration of midazolam for elderly ppl
initially 0.1-1mg 5-10 mins before procedure at 2mg/min increase in steps of 0.5-1mg 3.5mg max per course
76
what happens to midazolam when it enters the bloodsteam
becomes lipid soluble at physiological pH
77
what is the elimination half-life of midazolam
1.9 hours +/- 0.9 hours
78
where is midazolam metabolised
rapidly in liver but some in bowel
79
what active metabolite does midazolam produce
alpha-hydroxymidazolam
80
what is the half life of alpha-hydroxymidazolam
1.25 hours +/- 0.25 hours
81
what can happen shortly after midazolam injection
laryngeal reflexes dulled
82
what can rapid injection of midazolam cause
respiratory depression and apnoea
83
what happens every time you add an increment of midazolam
the half-life starts again with that dose increment and a dangerous accumulation can build up
84
what 4 drugs interact with midazolam
antibiotics - cins antivirals - avirs antifungals - azoles anticancer- ibs
85
what are side effects of midazolam
vomiting skin reactions
86
what are 2 precautiosn for midazolam
cardiac disease debilitated patient (children)
87
what are 3 contraindications for midazolam
CNS depression compromised airway severe respiratory depression
88
what can benzodiazepines cause in pregnancy
neonatal withdrawal symptom late pregnancy - neonatal hypothermia, hypotonia, respiratory depression small amount present in breast milk, avoid for 24 hours
89
what are the guidelines for use of benzodiazepines in hepatic/renal impairment
mild/moderate hepatic - advised caution severe hepatic - avoid renal - advised caution due to risk of increased cerebral sensitivity
90
why is caution needed for midazolam in elderly
altered drug distribution: - lower total body water - increased body fat - decreased serum albumin - altered hepatic metabolism - altered renal excretion
91
what is the half life of flumazenil
50 minutes
92
how does flumazenil work
has a higher affinity for the benzodiazepine receptor than vitrually all known active drugs
93
how is flumazenil adminitsred (dose)
200 ug bolus and wait 1 min increments of 100 ug every minute until pt fully recovered
94
how much flumazenil can be given in one dose
500 ug
95
what is the maximum dose of flumazenil
1mg
96
what is propofol
aqueous white emulsion with rapid onset, clearance, distrubiton and metabolism
97
what is the half life of propofol
distribution 2-4 mins elimination 30-40 mins
98
what are the problems with propofol
pain on injection expensive narrow margin of safety not licensed for dentists to use
99
what does propofol interact with
alcohol LA anti-hypertensives anxiolytics CBD
100
what are contraindications for nitrous oxide
1st trimester pregnancy copd vit b12 deficiency history of substance abuse methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase deficiency mental health conditions
101
name 2 topical anaesthetics creams
EMLA ametop gel
102
what is emla cream
2.5% lidocaine 2.5% prilocaine
103
what is ametop gel
4% amethocaine(tetracaine)
104
can you use ametop gel in pregnancy
no
105
how many problem drug users in scotland
72000
106
how much does drug users cuase per year
2.6bn
107
5 most common drugs in scotland
cannabis cocaine ecstasy amphetamines heroin
108
what % scottish adults use cocaine
3.8
109
what does cocaine + alcohol cause
cocaethylene
110
what does cocaetheylene do to the body
makes u 24x more likely to have heart attack
111
name 5 stimulants
caffeine nicotine cocaine amphetamines ecstasy
112
name 5 depressants
alcohol solvents heroin morphine benzodiazepines
113
name 3 hallucinogens
LSD magic mushrooms cannabis
114
how many deaths per year from drug abuse
500
115
how many deaths per year from alcohol
5-250000
116
how many deaths per year from smoking
100,000
117
what are the 2 main statures relating to drugs in the UK
the medicines act 1968 misuse of drugs act 1971
118
what are 5 class A drugs
heroin cocaine methamphetamine ecstasy methadone
119
name 2 class B drugs
amphetamines cannabis
120
name 3 class 3 drugs
benzodiazepines ketamine anabolic steroids
121
what is heroin a derivative of
morphine
122
how much more potent is heroin than morphine
4x
123
what are the positive effects of opiates
initial euphoria removal of tension tranquility sense of control detachment from worries & fears analgesia
124
what are the negative effects of opiates
itching flushing myosis appetite suppression slurred speech slow gait depression constipation
125
what health problems come with risky behaviour
unwanted pregnancy death STDs assault BBV's
126
what health problems are associated with injecting
BBVs DVT collapased veins amputation abscesses
127
what mental health problems are associated with drug use
paranoia schizophrenia depression bulimia/anorexia bipolar
128
what is the ffoulds classifications
organic psychosis neurosis personality disorder eating disorder
129
what is neurosis
contact retained with reality
130
what is psychosis
contact lost with reality
131
give 5 examples of neuroses
anxiety phobic obsessional hypochondrial depressive
132
name 2 funtional psychoses
bipolar schizoprenia
133
what is schizophrenia
though and emotion disorder
134
name 3 eating disorders
anorexia nervosa bulimia nervosa pica
135
what are the oral effects of anorexia
ulcers dry mouth infections bleeding
136
what are oral effects of bulimia
dental erosion oesophageal stricture
137
what are oral signs of pica
fractured teeth dentures braces
138
what are 3 ways of breaking the cycle
harm reduction substitution prison
139
what are 3 reasons for homelessness
relationship breakdown prison loss of employment
140
what is methadone
methadone hydrochloride synthetic opiate analgesic
141
how does methadone work
action on CNS continuous occupancy of Mu opioid receptors stabilizes neurochemistry
142
where is methadone absorbed
buccal mucosa stomach
143
what is the sugar content in normal methadone
50% 70ml = 35g sugar
144
why do drug misusers have poor oral health
dry mouth bruxism sugar craving sugar in medication non-attendance poor knowledge smoking and alcohol
145
what is found orally with amphetamines
xerostomia - caries and perio bruxism - TMD attrition/erosion
146
what does ecstasy cause OH wise
bruxism - TMD occlusal wear on posterior teeth xerostomia attrition and erosion mucosal burns
147
what does cocaine cause OH wise
xerostomia caries in unusual surfaces bruxism TMD erosion gingival and tongue erosions ulceration of palate cluster headaches
148
what is the risk of LA after cannabis use
increased risk of tachycardia with adrenaline
149
what is some methadone specific advice for users
drink with a straw take near mealtime swallow immediately rinse with water after chew sugar free gum to increase saliva