Special Care Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

What age are you able to make legally binding decisions for yourself in Scotland?

A

Age 16

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2
Q

what is the legal definition of incapacity?

A

the inability of an adult (16 or older) to enter legally binding contracts

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3
Q

AMCUR

What is meant by the term having incapacity?

A

being incapable of
- acting
- making a decision
- communicating decision
- understanding decision
- retaining memory of decision

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4
Q

What is a proxy?

A

A suitable adult substitute decision maker for someone without capacity

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5
Q

True or false: a welfare power of attorney can consent for dental treatment

A

TRUE

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6
Q

Briefly outline power of attorney

A
  • granted while a patient who has capacity for someone to act on their behalf should the need arise
  • no expiry date
  • can be more than one person
  • often trusted family member or friend
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7
Q

What is a continuing (financial) power of attorney?

A
  • only covers financial affairs and property
  • cannot consent to dental treatment
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8
Q

Briefly outline guardianship orders

A
  • court appointed person to make designs on behalf of adult with incapacity
  • appointed by Sheriff after adult has lost capacity
  • requires 2 medical reports
  • usually appointed for 3 years
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9
Q

give a common example of when a guardianship order would be used

A

Parents of a child with a learning disability may need to apply for guardianship after turning 16

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10
Q

Who can consent for dental treatment?

A
  • patients with capacity
  • welfare power of attorney
  • welfare guardians
  • medical and dental practitioners under section 47 of adults with incapacity act (requires a short course before being able to do this as a dentist)
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11
Q

What is meant by ‘impairment’

A
  • any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function
  • occurs at the level of organ or system function
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12
Q

what is meant by the term ‘disability’?

A
  • Any restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within range considered normal for human being
  • actively restricted by impairment
  • concerned with functional performance or activity
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13
Q

What is meant by the term ‘handicap’?

A

A disadvantage for a given individual
- resulting from an impairment or disability
- that limits or prevents fulfilment of a role that would be considered normal for that individual

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14
Q

What law protects people from discrimination in the workplace and wider society?

A

the equality act 2010

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15
Q

Briefly outline the inverse care law

A

The availability of good medical care usually varies inversely with the need for it in the population served

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16
Q

What are the barriers to care?

A
  • Accessibility
  • accommodation
  • affordability
  • acceptability
  • availability
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17
Q

Management of a patient on warfarin prior to extraction

A

check INR no more than 24 hours before procedure (72 hours if patient stably anti coagulated)
if INR below 4 - treeat
delay if over 4

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18
Q

Examples of DOACs

A
  • rivaroxiban
  • apixaban
  • edogaban
  • dabigatran
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19
Q

DOAC that needs to be taken twice daily

A

apixaban and dabigatran

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20
Q

Management of a patient on apixaban prior to extraction

A

miss morning dose
take dose 4 hours after haemostasis is achieved

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21
Q

Physical features of down syndrome

A
  • growth failure
  • short and broad hands
  • broad flat face
  • diminished muscle tone
  • flat back of head
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22
Q

what is downs syndrome?

A
  • neurodevelopmental disorder of genetic origin affecting chromosome 21
  • 95% cases due to a full trisomy of chromosome 21
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23
Q

outline the social model of disability?

A

disability is caused by the way society is organised, rather than by a person’s impairment or difference

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24
Q

outline the medical model of disability

A

people are disabled by their impairments or differences
these impairments or differences should be ‘fixed’ or changed by medical and other treatments

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25
medical features of Down syndrome
congenital heart defects epilepsy leukaemia diabetes mellitus intellectual impairment hearing impairment thyroid disease
26
Downs syndrome - intra-oral features
micro or macro dontia class iii occlusion AOB large tongue
27
what is cerebral palsy?
a neurological condition that affect movement and coordination
28
Why might a patient with cerebral palsy have limited mouth opening?
it can affect the muscles that open and close the mouth and move the lips and tongue
29
Why does downs syndrome increase perio risk?
- impaired immune system - unregulated production of inflammatory mediators - reduced manual dexterity - OH - enamel defects
30
5 principles of the 2000 adults with incapacity out
- benefit - minimum necessary intervention - take account of the wishes of the adult - consultation with relevant others - encourage adult to exercise 'residual capacity'
31
aims of dental pre-assessmnet for cancer patient
- identifying existing oral disease and potential risk of disease - remove infection and potential infection before start of cancer therapy - prepare patient for expected side effects of cancer therapy - establish adequate standard of oral hygiene to meet increasing challenges during cancer therapy - develop plan for maintaining OH, providing preventative care, completing oral rehabilitation and follow up - establish necessary multidisciplinary collaboration
32
potential dental issues than can occur during cancer treatment
- oral mucositis - oral candida - traumatic ulceraion - reactivate of HSV - xerostomia - trismus - dental erosion - caries - periodontal disease
33
risk factors for osteoradionecrosis
- total radiation dose exceeded 60Gy - dose fraction was large with a high number of fractions - local trauma as a result of tooth extraction, uncontrolled periodontitis or ill-fitting denture - person is malnourished - pt is immunodefiecient
34
Radiation caries pattern
- V shaped - around cervical margin
35
prevention and management of oral mucositis
- calcium phosphate mouth rinse - mucoadhesive oral rinse - soluble aspirin - zinc supplements - aloe vera - cryotherapy - Manuka honey - intensive oral hygiene - 2% lidocaine mouthwash prior to eating - tea tree oil mouthwash - morphine and opioid analgesics
36
What is dementia?
an acquired progressive loss of cognitive functions, intellectual and social abilities
37
dementia characteristics/signs
amnesia - especially for recent events inability to concentrate disorientation in time, place or person intellectual impairment also commonly accompanied by deterioration in - emotional control - social behaviour - motivation
38
types of dementia
Alzheimers Vascular Frontotemporal dementia with lewy bodies
39
How is Alzheimers caused?
reduction in size of the Cortex Plaques (deposits of beta-amyloid protein) build up in spaces between nerve cells tangles (twisted fibres of tau protein) built up inside cells
40
How is vascular dementia caused?
reduced blood flow to the brain, which damages and eventually kills the brain cells can develop as a result of - small vessel disease - a single large stroke - lots of mini strokes
41
dementia with Lewy bodies is caused by...
deposits of an abnormal protein called Lewy bodies inside brain cells - also found in people with Parkinson's
42
dementia risk factors
age gender genetic background medical history lifestyle
43
give at least 3 features of a dementia friendly healthcare environment
reception desk visible from entrance door ceilings, floors and floor coverings should be acoustically absorbent to support audible communication colour and tone of walls should be distinctive from flooring colour and tone of furniture should be distinctive from flooring avoid non-essential signs any signage should be at eye level with simple clear use of text and colour ensure good levels of natural light any staff only or locked rooms should be coloured the same as walls to avoid attention
44
risk factors for drug misuse and addiction
men 2x as likely genetics socioeconomic factors environmental: - home and family, friends and acquaintances that do drugs personality - low self esteem - stress availability coexisting mental problems peer pressure physical and sexual abuse early exposure to drugs
45
You have an addiction problem. What should you do?
put interest of your patient first consult senior colleague to ask for advice and support - document encounter if you are the colleague are you safe to practice? support groups - British doctors and dentists group engage with medical services
46
one of your patient's is an alcoholic, what considerations would you make in regards to treating them?
morning appointments - least likely time to be under the influence patient may have poly-substance misuse including smoking sedatives have an addictive effect with alcohol GA best avoided - increased risk of vomiting and inhalation of vomit - may be resistant to GA many recovering addicts may be on disulfiram (Antabuse) - psychoitic reaction with metronidazole
47
alcohol abuse potential dental implications
advanced caries, periodontal disease and NCTSL angular stomatitis RAS increased risk of leukoplakia and oral cancer dialysis erosion nocturnal bruxism dry mouth secondary to dehydration and vomiting
48
considerations to take prior to an extraction on an alcoholic
impaired wound healing liver cirrhosis = bleeding risk avoid use of aspirin and NSAIDs - paracetamol safest analgesic
49
dental implications of opiate abuse
trauma infective endocarditis enhances sedation agents impaired drug metabolism oral neglect
50
methadone - dental implications
high sugar content - 5ml methadone = 2.5mg sugar - sugar free prep available caries rate higher in methadone users
51
dental advice for methadone users
use a straw drink water after consumption - prevents regurgitation don't brush teeth immediately after engage with dental services prevention sugar free suspension available
52
opioids - dental considerations
suboptimal oral hygiene and self care use leads to salivary hypofunction - xerostomia - caries - burning mouth - taste impairment smooth surface, buccal and cervical caries often present prior to beginning methadone therapy anxiety and opioid use can reduce effectivenesss of LA injecting drug users at greater risk of BBV and endocarditis can cause thrombocytopenia putting patients at risk of post op bleeding - especially if liver function impaired
53
patient smokes cannabis and is due to come in for sedation appointment. what advice should you give prior to appointment?
patients should be advised to not use cannabis for at least 72 hours before treatment under conscious sedation in order to reduce the likelihood of drug interactions and unpredictable sedation quality
54
cocaine dental and facial consequences
bruxism, clenching and NCTSL gingival erosions, retraction and ulcerative lesions at the site of application - owing to rubbing of powder topically - resolve upon abstaining from use within 2weeks to 18 months chronic sinusitis nasal crusting epistaxis (nose bleeds) higher periodontitis risk use of powder intramurally = decrease in saliva pH enhances body's response to adrenaline links between cocaine use and development of cluster headaches
55
treating cocaine users in practice - considerations
defer dental treatment for 6-24 hours after last administration of cocaine administration of LA after recent cocaine use can lead to acute increase in blood pressure - use of lidocaine may increase chance of convulsions
56
long term physical effects of cocaine use
palatal and nasal septum perforation due to acidic nature and vasoconstrictor
57
methamphetamine use dental implications
poor oH - meth mouth = rampant caries bruxism, clenching and NCTSL xerostomia risk of osteonecrosis of mandible
58
Patients at low risk for MRONJ
patients being treated for osteoporosis or other non-malignant diseases of bone with bisphosphonates for less than 5 years, who are not concurrently being treated with systemic glucocorticoids patients being treated for osteoporosis or other non-malignant diseases of bone with denosumab and are not being treated with systemic glucocorticoids
59
Patients at higher risk for MRONJ
patients being treated with bishosphonates for over 5 years patients being treated with bisphosphonates or denosumab who are being concurrently treated with systemic glucocorticoids patients being treated with anti-resorptive or anti-angiogenic drugs as part of the management of cancer patients with previous MRONJ diagnosis
60
When would you refer a potential MRONJ patient post extraction?
If socket has not healed after 8 weeks
61
Patients at increased risk of infective endocarditis
acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation hypertrophic cardiomyopathy previous infective endocarditis structural congenital heart disease valve replacement
62
Infective endocarditis - sub group requiring special consideration
63
If a patient required antibiotic prophylaxis prior to treatment, what would you be abale to give them?
3g oral powder sachet Amoxicillin, 1 hour before procedure or (if allergic to penicillin) 600mg (2x 300mg capsules) Clindamycin, 1 hour before procedure
64
Give examples of invasive dental procedures
65
give examples of non-invasive dental procures
66
signs of early stage dementia
loss of short term memory confusion poor judgement anxiety, agitation or distress over perceived changes inability to manage everyday tasks communication problems
67
signs of middle stage dementia
more support required - reminders to eat, wash, dress etc increasing;y forgetful - may fail to recognise people distress - aggression, anger, mood changes, frustration risk of wandering and getting lost may experience hallucinations, throw-back memories
68
signs of late stage dementia
inability to recognise familiar objects, surroundings or people - may be flashes of recognition increasing physical frailty - may start to shuffle or walk unsteadily difficulty eating and sometimes swallowing - weight loss incontinence and gradual loss of speech