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PMLS 2 - (MIDTERMS) > SPECIMEN COLLECTING AND PROCESSING > Flashcards

SPECIMEN COLLECTING AND PROCESSING Flashcards

(72 cards)

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1
Q

What are the two areas of a clinical laboratory?

A

The clinical laboratory is divided into Anatomical and Clinical areas.

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2
Q

What is the responsibility of the anatomical area?

A

The anatomical area is responsible for the analysis of surgical specimens, frozen sections, biopsies, cytological specimens, and autopsies.

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3
Q

What sections are included in the anatomical area?

A

Sections of the anatomical area include cytology, histology, and cytogenetics.

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4
Q

What do cytologists do in the cytology section?

A

Cytologists process and examine tissue and body fluids for the presence of abnormal cells, such as cancer cells.

The Papanicolaou (Pap) smear is one of the most common tests performed in cytology.

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5
Q

What is the role of the histology section?

A

Histology technicians and technologists process and stain tissue obtained from biopsies, surgery, autopsies, and frozen sections, which is then examined by a pathologist.

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6
Q

What is cytogenetics responsible for?

A

Cytogenetics performs chromosome studies to detect genetic disorders using blood, amniotic fluid, tissue, and bone marrow specimens.

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7
Q

What sections are included in the clinical area?

A

The clinical area includes hematology, coagulation, chemistry, blood bank (immunohematology), serology (immunology), microbiology, urinalysis, phlebotomy, and sample processing.

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the Laboratory Information System (LIS)?

A

The LIS is responsible for laboratory computer operations, maintaining records, and documentation for compliance with accrediting regulations.

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9
Q

Who typically directs a clinical laboratory?

A

The laboratory director is usually a pathologist, a physician who has completed a 4- to 5-year residency in clinical and anatomical pathology.

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10
Q

What is the role of the laboratory manager?

A

The laboratory manager is responsible for overall technical and administrative management of the laboratory, including personnel and budgets.

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11
Q

What qualifications does a technical supervisor have?

A

A technical supervisor is an MLS with experience and expertise related to specific laboratory sections.

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12
Q

What does a medical laboratory scientist do?

A

A medical laboratory scientist performs laboratory procedures requiring independent judgment and responsibility with minimal technical supervision.

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13
Q

What education is required for a medical laboratory technician?

A

A medical laboratory technician must have a 2-year associate degree from an accredited college medical laboratory program.

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14
Q

What is the role of a laboratory assistant?

A

A laboratory assistant aids the MLS or MLT by preparing samples for testing and has training in phlebotomy and sample processing.

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15
Q

What does a phlebotomist do?

A

A phlebotomist collects blood from patients for laboratory analysis and must have completed a structured phlebotomy training program.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the hematology section?

A

Hematology is the study of the formed elements of the blood, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

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17
Q

What is the primary analysis performed in the hematology section?

A

The Complete Blood Count (CBC) is the primary analysis performed in the hematology section.

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18
Q

What does the coagulation section evaluate?

A

The coagulation section evaluates the overall process of hemostasis, including platelets, blood vessels, coagulation factors, and anticoagulant therapy.

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19
Q

What is the focus of the clinical chemistry section?

A

The clinical chemistry section is the most automated area of the laboratory, designed to perform single and multiple tests from small amounts of specimen.

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20
Q

What types of specimens are primarily used in clinical chemistry tests?

A

Clinical chemistry tests are primarily performed on serum collected in gel barrier tubes, as well as plasma, urine, and other body fluids.

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21
Q

What is the blood bank section responsible for?

A

The blood bank section collects, stores, and prepares blood for transfusion, testing for blood group and compatibility.

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22
Q

What tests are performed in the immunology or serology section?

A

The serology section performs tests to evaluate the body’s immune response, detecting the presence of antibodies against various pathogens.

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23
Q

What is the primary procedure performed in microbiology?

A

The culture and sensitivity (C & S) test is the primary procedure performed in microbiology to detect and identify microorganisms.

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24
Q

What is the purpose of urinalysis?

A

Urinalysis is a routine screening procedure to detect disorders and infections of the kidney and metabolic disorders.

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25
What is Point of Care Testing (POCT)?
POCT refers to testing performed at or near the site of patient care, increasing the speed of test results and improving patient management.
26
What is POCT?
Point-of-Care Testing (POCT) refers to testing performed at or near the site of patient care, allowing for immediate results.
27
What was POCT previously referred to as?
Alternate site testing, near-patient testing, decentralized testing, bedside testing, or ancillary testing.
28
What does TAT stand for?
Turnaround Time.
29
How is TAT defined?
The time from when the health-care provider orders the test until the result is returned to the health-care provider.
30
Why is a shorter TAT important?
The sooner the TAT, the sooner the health-care provider can treat the patient.
31
What are some benefits of POCT?
Immediate availability of test results, streamlined workflow, and reduced chance of pre-examination errors.
32
What is a waived test?
A simple procedure that poses no reasonable risk of harm to the patient if performed incorrectly.
33
What are moderate complexity tests?
Tests that are more difficult than waived tests and require documentation of training in testing principles.
34
What defines high complexity tests?
Tests that require sophisticated instrumentation and a high degree of interpretation by the testing personnel.
35
Who can perform Provider-Performed Microscopy Procedures?
Physician’s assistants, nurse practitioners, midwives, physicians, and dentists.
36
What does quality assessment for moderate or high complexity tests involve?
Inspections every 2 years, including patient test management assessment and QC assessment.
37
What is included in patient test management?
Methods of patient preparation, proper sample collection, and accurate result reporting.
38
What must quality control (QC) records include?
Records of date, results, testing personnel, lot numbers, and expiration dates for reagents and controls.
39
What is proficiency testing assessment?
A program that requires laboratories performing moderate or high complexity testing to enroll in an approved proficiency testing program.
40
What does personnel assessment include?
Education and training, competency assessment, and performance appraisals.
41
How long must quality assessment records be maintained?
Patient test records for 2 years, blood banking for 5 years, and pathology/cytology for 10 years.
42
What is the purpose of quality control?
To ensure acceptable standards for accuracy and precision during specimen testing.
43
What are external controls?
Tested in the same manner as a patient specimen to verify test systems using urine or blood samples.
44
What are internal controls?
Contained within the test system to verify that the test kit and any added reagents performed as expected.
45
What is electronic quality control (EQC)?
Uses a mechanical or electrical specimen in place of a liquid QC specimen to verify the functional ability of the POCT device.
46
What should be done if a QC result does not perform as expected?
No further patient testing should be performed until the QC result error is corrected.
47
What are common POCT errors?
Errors in patient identification, sample collection, storage of testing supplies, and documentation of results.
48
What phases are involved in laboratory testing?
Pre-examination, examination, and post-examination.
49
What does the pre-examination phase encompass?
Test ordering, patient identification, sample collection, and reagent storage.
50
What is the examination phase?
The phase when the actual test is performed, including QC testing and result interpretation.
51
What can affect patient outcomes before examination?
Correct collection and proper storage of equipment and supplies can affect patient outcomes.
52
What are the storage requirements for many POCT supplies?
Many POCT supplies are sensitive to heat, light, and moisture; they require refrigeration and must warm up to room temperature prior to use.
53
How does the expiration date of testing supplies change?
The expiration date for some testing supplies changes when moved from refrigerated storage to room temperature, or whenever the primary container is opened.
54
What occurs during the examination phase?
The examination phase is when the actual test is performed, including QC testing and result interpretation.
55
What are common sources of error during the examination phase?
Common sources of error include manufacturers’ instructions, application of the sample to the test device, and test timing.
56
Why is timing critical in tests that utilize color formation?
Timing is critical because a test read too early or too late can lead to misinterpretation due to lack of color development or degradation.
57
What role do built-in procedural QC mechanisms play in POCT devices?
Many POCT devices have built-in QC mechanisms to monitor testing and alert the operator if a test is invalid.
58
What does the presence of a control line indicate?
The presence of a control line indicates that the test was performed correctly; if it does not appear, the test is invalid.
59
What types of results can POCT provide?
POCT results can be qualitative, semi-quantitative, or quantitative.
60
What is an example of a qualitative test?
A urine pregnancy test is an example of a qualitative test because the result is reported as either positive or negative.
61
How are semi-quantitative results reported?
Semi-quantitative results are reported in terms of reaction intensity (1+, 2+, 3+) that equates to a range of numeric values.
62
What characterizes quantitative results?
Quantitative results are numeric results, such as a whole blood glucose result.
63
What is involved in the post-examination phase?
The post-examination phase involves documentation of results, recording and reporting, and addressing critical values.
64
How do many POCT devices handle result documentation?
Many POCT devices can capture results electronically and transmit them to the permanent medical record.
65
What is required for manual documentation of POCT results?
Manual documentation often requires duplicate transcription to document the result in the patient’s permanent medical record and on a laboratory log.
66
What information is required for documenting POCT results?
Documentation must include the patient’s name, identification number, date and time of result, testing operator, and test results.
67
What additional information may be included with results?
Results are usually reported with normal patient reference ranges and may include therapeutic ranges for coagulation results.
68
What documentation may be required depending on test complexity?
A written record of lot numbers and expiration dates for supplies may be required.
69
What must POCT operators be familiar with?
POCT operators must be familiar with the critical values for each test and the processes for notifying attending staff.
70
What may some POCT results require?
Some POCT results may require confirmatory testing.
71
What does the confirmatory testing process involve?
The confirmatory testing process may involve obtaining an additional order, getting patient consent, and/or collecting a new sample.
72
What must be done with biohazard items after testing?
The operator must properly dispose of all biohazard items.

PMLS 2 - (MIDTERMS) (2 decks)

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