Spinal & Epidural Part 4 ( Tubog) Exam 1 Flashcards by Kimberly Diane Hill

What are possible causes of a unilateral epidural block? (Select all that apply - 2)

A) Catheter tip too close to a nerve.
B) Catheter exiting the epidural space through intervertebral foramen.
C) Catheter is in the bloodstream.
D) Catheter is positioned correctly.

A) Catheter tip too close to a nerve.
B) Catheter exiting the epidural space through intervertebral foramen.

Slide 99 - Spinals/Epidurals

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What are possible solutions if the catheter is causing issues? (Select all that apply)

A) Pull the catheter slightly, about 1-2 cm.
B) Reposition the patient to lateral decubitus position.
C) Inject a concentrated local anesthetic.
D) Replace the catheter if adjustments don’t work.

A) Pull the catheter slightly, about 1-2 cm.
B) Reposition the patient to lateral decubitus position.
D) Replace the catheter if adjustments don’t work.

* slide 99 - inject DILUTE LA to even out block

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If we try to adjust the catheter to fix a unilateral block, how many cm should we ensure remain in the epidural space?

A) 10cm
B) 5cm
C) 4cm
D) 3cm

D) 3 cm

Slide 99 - pull the cath back 1-2cm

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What is the most common cause of Local Anesthetic Systemic toxicity?

A) Delayed injection

B) Inadequate dosage

C) Inadvertent injection

D) Improper storage of the anesthetic

C) Inadvertent injection

Slide 100

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Which statements are true regarding local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST)? (Select all that apply)
A) The most common cause of toxicity is inadvertent injection.

B) The most frequent symptom of toxicity is dizziness.

C) With bupivacaine, cardiac arrest may come before a seizure.

D) LAST is more common in epidural than in peripheral nerve blocks.

A) The most common cause of toxicity is inadvertent injection.

C) With bupivacaine, cardiac arrest may come before a seizure.

slide 100
* most frequent symptom - seizure
* LAST more common w/ peripheral nerve blocks

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Match the plasma concentration of lidocaine (mcg/mL) with the corresponding CNS or cardiopulmonary effects:

1) 1-5 mcg/mL
2) 5-10 mcg/mL
3) 10-15 mcg/mL
4) 15-25 mcg/mL
5) >25 mcg/mL

Effects:
A) seizures, LOC
B) Coma, Respiratory Arrest
C) Tinnitus, skeletal muscle twitching, circumoral numbness, restlessness, vertigo, blurred vision, hypotension, myocardial depression
D) CV collapse
E) Analgesia

1 - E

2 - C

3 - A

4 - B

5 - D

Slide 100

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How does hypercarbia increase the risk of CNS toxicity w/ LAST?

A) Decreases cerebral perfusion

B) Decreases drug delivery to the brain

C) Increases cerebral perfusion

D) Reduces the free fraction of local anesthetic available to enter the brain

C) Increases cerebral perfusion (think vasodilation)
* SLIDE 101 - increases drug delivery to brain

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How does hyperkalemia increase the risk of CNS toxicity w/ LAST?

A) Makes the neurons less excitable

B) Makes the neurons more excitable and more likely to depolarize

C) Makes the neurons require larger stimuli to depolarize

D) Protects the neurons from depolarization

B) Makes the neurons more excitable and more likely to depolarize
* slide 101

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LAST - CNS toxicity

What condition lowers the seizure threshold and increases brain drug retention?

A) Hyperkalemia

B) Hypercarbia

C) Metabolic acidosis

D) Hypokalemia

C) Metabolic acidosis
* slide 101
* think ion trapping

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Which factors increase the risk of a patient developing CNS toxicity w/ LAST? (Select all that apply)

A) Hypercarbia

B) Hypokalemia

C) Hyperkalemia

D) Metabolic acidosis

A) Hypercarbia, C) Hyperkalemia, D) Metabolic acidosis

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Which factors decrease the risk of CNS toxicity? (Select all that apply)

A) Hypocarbia

B) CNS depressants (like benzodiazepines and barbiturates)

C) Hypercarbia

D) Hypokalemia

A) Hypocarbia (vasoconstriction)
B) CNS depressants (like benzodiazepines and barbiturates)
D) Hypokalemia

slide 101

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Fill in the blank: Metabolic acidosis lowers the seizure threshold and increases brain drug retention, also known as ________.

ion trapping

slide 101

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LAST

Which factors determine the extent of cardiotoxicity of a local anesthetic? (Select all that apply)

A) Affinity to the voltage-sodium channel in the active state

B) Affinity to the voltage-sodium channel in the inactive state

C) Rate of dissociation from the receptor during diastole

D) Affinity to the voltage-calcium channel

A) Affinity to the voltage-sodium channel in the active state
B) Affinity to the voltage-sodium channel in the inactive state
C) Rate of dissociation from the receptor during diastole

slide 101

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List the LAs in order from most difficult cardiac resuscitation to least difficult

A) Lidocaine, Bupivacaine, Levobupivacaine, Ropivacaine
B) Levobupivacaine, Lidocaine, Bupivacaine, Ropivacaine
C) Bupivacaine, Levobupivacaine, Ropivacaine, Lidocaine
D) Ropivacaine, Lidocaine, Levobupivacaine, Bupivacaine

C) Bupivacaine, Levobupivacaine, Ropivacaine, Lidocaine

slide 101

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Local anesthetics (LA) affect which of the following heart functions? (Select all that apply)

A) Heart’s automaticity
B) Conduction velocity
C) Myocardial contractility
D) Blood pressure
E) AP duration
F) Effective Refractory Period

A) Heart’s automaticity
B) Conduction velocity
C) Myocardial contractility
E) AP duration
F) Effective Refractory Period

decreases all

slide 101

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LAST - CV toxicity

Local anesthetics (LA) depress myocardium by affecting ___________ regulation.

intracellular calcium

slide 101

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Which 4 of these are the main treatments for LAST? (select all that apply - 4)

A) Typical ACLS
B) Manage the Airway
C) Propofol Therapy
D) Limid Emulsion Therapy
E) Treat Seizures
F) Modified ACLS
G) Prevent Seizures

B) Manage the Airway
D) Limid Emulsion Therapy
E) Treat Seizures
F) Modified ACLS

slide 102

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Which of the following steps are included in lipid emulsion therapy according to the 2020 ASRA Guidelines? (Select all that apply)

A) Start with a 100 mL bolus over 2-3 minutes for patients over 70 kg.

B) Follow the bolus with a 250 mL infusion over 15-20 minutes for patients over 70 kg.

C) Start with a 1.5 mL/kg bolus over 2-3 minutes for patients under 70 kg.

D) Continue the infusion until 30 minutes after stability is regained.

A) Start with a 100 mL bolus over 2-3 minutes for patients over 70 kg
B) Follow the bolus with a 250 mL infusion over 15-20 minutes for patients over 70 kg
C) Start with a 1.5 mL/kg bolus over 2-3 minutes for patients under 70 kg.

continue infusion for 15 min after stability is regained

slide 102

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In the modified ACLS protocol for LAST, which of the following are true? (Select all that apply - 2)

A) Use high doses of epinephrine.
B) Be cautious with epinephrine.
C) Use amiodarone for ventricular arrhythmias.
D) Administer a 100 mL bolus of lipid emulsion over 2-3 minutes for patients over 70 kg.

B) Be cautious with epinephrine (use < 1mcg/kg)
C) Use amiodarone for ventricular arrhythmias

slide 102

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LAST Tx

Why should propofol be avoided during seizure management in LAST?

A) It is ineffective against seizures.
B) It can weaken the heart in large doses.
C) It interferes with oxygen delivery.
D) It replaces lipid therapy.

B) It can weaken the heart in large doses

does not replace lipid therapy

slide 102

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Which proposed mechanism of action for lipid emulsion therapy involves reducing the plasma concentration of local anesthetics (LA)?

A) Metabolic effect
B) Lipid sink
C) Inotropic effect
D) Membrane effect

B) Lipid sink

sequesters the LA

slide 102

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What should be prepared if a patient is unresponsive to modified ACLS and lipid therapy during a LAST event?

A) Defibrillation
B) Immediate Surgery
C) Increased epinephrine dosage
D) Cardiopulmonary bypass

D) Cardiopulmonary bypass

slide 102

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Which proposed mechanism of action for lipid emulsion therapy involves boosting myocardial fatty acid metabolism and increasing heart energy use?

A) Lipid sink
B) Metabolic effect
C) Inotropic effect
D) Membrane effect

B) Metabolic effect

slide 102

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Which of the following are proposed mechanisms of action for lipid emulsion therapy in treating LAST? (Select all that apply - 4)

A) Lipid sink
B) Metabolic effect
C) Inotropic effect
D) Receptor-blocker effect
E) Membrane effect
F) Protein-binding effect

A) Lipid sink
B) Metabolic effect
C) Inotropic effect
E) Membrane effect

slide 102

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Which effects are attributed to the inotropic mechanism of lipid emulsion therapy? (Select all that apply) A) Decreasing intracellular calcium concentration B) Increasing calcium influx C) Reducing LA plasma concentration D) Increasing heart muscle calcium levels

B) Increasing calcium influx D) Increasing heart muscle calcium levels | *slide 102*

According to the LAST checklist, which of the following is a preferred treatment for seizures? A) Epinephrine B) Benzodiazepine C) Calcium channel blockers D) Propofol

B) Benzodiazepine | *slide 103*

Which of the following steps are included in the management of a patient with LAST experiencing arrhythmia or hypotension? (Select all that apply - 2) A) Smaller than normal dose of epinephrine B) Use of calcium channel blockers C) Use of vasopressin D) Avoid local anesthetics

A) Smaller than normal dose of epinephrine D) Avoid local anesthetics | *slide 103*

Which steps should be taken once a LAST patient is stable? (Select all that apply) A) Continue lipid emulsion for at least 15 minutes once hemodynamically stable B) Observe for 2 hours after seizure C) Observe for 4-6 hours after cardiovascular instability D) Administer additional bolus of lipid emulsion

A) Continue lipid emulsion for at least 15 minutes once hemodynamically stable B) Observe for 2 hours after seizure C) Observe for 4-6 hours after cardiovascular instability | *slide 103*

If a patient with LAST remains unstable after the initial bolus of lipid emulsion, you should __________ and __________ the infusion.

repeat, double | *slide 103*

In the management of LAST, which medications should be avoided? (Select all that apply) A) Local anesthetics B) Amiodarone C) Beta-blockers D) Epinephrine E) Calcium channel blockers F) Vasopressin G) Versed

A) Local anesthetics C) Beta-blockers E) Calcium channel blockers F) Vasopressin | *Slide 103*

Which of the following is a major risk factor for developing an epidural/spinal hematoma? A) Hypertension B) Diabetes C) Preexisting abnormalities in clotting hemostasis D) Hyperlipidemia

C) Preexisting abnormalities in clotting hemostasis | *slide 104*

Which conditions or situations are associated with an increased risk of epidural/spinal hematoma? (Select all that apply - 2) A) Traumatic or difficult needle placement B) High blood pressure C) Previous spinal surgery D) Indwelling catheters and long-term anticoagulation

A) Traumatic or difficult needle placement D) Indwelling catheters and long-term anticoagulation | *slide 104*

Which of the following are important considerations for the diagnosis and intervention of an epidural/spinal hematoma? (Select all that apply - 2) A) Prompt diagnosis and intervention B) Use of MRI for diagnosis C) Delaying intervention until symptoms are severe D) Ignoring pain as a symptom

A) Prompt diagnosis and intervention B) Use of MRI for diagnosis | *slide 104*

The symptom of ________ is a major indicator of an epidural/spinal hematoma and should not be confused with ________ or ________ caused by the use of local anesthetics.

* Pain * numbness or weakness | *slide 104*

What is the critical time frame for performing a laminectomy to potentially reverse cord ischemia caused by an epidural/spinal hematoma? A) Within 2 hours B) Within 4 hours C) Within 6 hours D) Within 8 hours

D) Within 8 hours | *slide 104*

What is arachnoiditis? A) Inflammation of the spinal cord B) Inflammation of the brain tissue C) Inflammation of the meninges D) Inflammation of the muscles

C) Inflammation of the meninges | *slide 105*

Which factors are associated with the development of arachnoiditis? (Select all that apply) A) Using non-preservative free solutions B) Betadine contamination C) Use of antibiotics D) Nonapproved administration of drugs into the intrathecal or epidural space

A) Using non-preservative free solutions B) Betadine contamination D) Nonapproved administration of drugs into the intrathecal or epidural space | *slide 105*

Arachnoiditis can lead to: (Select all that apply) A) Improved vascular supply B) Reduction in sclerosis of arachnoid membranes C) Extensive sclerosis of arachnoid membranes D) Constriction of vascular supply

C) Extensive sclerosis of arachnoid membranes D) Constriction of vascular supply | *slide 105*

Which patient groups are mentioned in lecture as being involved in ASA claims related to spinal cord injuries? (Select all that apply - 2) A) Anticoagulated patients B) Pediatric patients C) Chronic pain patients D) Elderly patients

A) Anticoagulated patients C) Chronic pain patients | *slide 105*

What factors contributed to the deaths from cardiac-related events after spinal anesthesia? (Select all that apply - 2) A) Positioning injuries B) Undetected respiratory compromise C) Sympathetic blockade D) High doses of local anesthetics

B) Undetected respiratory compromise C) Sympathetic blockade | *slide 105*

Which situations require readiness to convert to general anesthesia in neuraxial cases? (Select all that apply - 5) A) Failed block B) Bradycardia C) High spinal D) Hypoxia E) Severe CV collapse F) LAST (Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity) G) Anaphylaxis

A) Failed block C) High spinal E) Severe CV collapse F) LAST G) Anaphylaxis | *slide 108*

What are common reasons for failure in neuraxial anesthesia that may necessitate conversion to general anesthesia? (Select all that apply - 3) A) Wrong dose B) Wrong location C) Patient refusal D) Wrong position

A) Wrong dose B) Wrong location D) Wrong position | *slide 108*

What are the components commonly found in all spinal trays? (Select all that apply - 4) A) Styleted needle B) Opioids C) Pad for under patient D) Introducer E) Alcohol F) Local anesthetic G) Sterile drapes

A) Styleted needle D) Introducer F) Local anesthetic G) Sterile drapes | *slide 111*

Why is it important to feel the "pop" when using a spinal needle? A) To confirm entry into the muscle B) To confirm entry into the subarachnoid space C) To confirm entry into the epidural space D) To confirm entry into the skin

B) To confirm entry into the subarachnoid space | *slide 111*

What should be done immediately after feeling the "pop" with a spinal needle? A) Pull the stylet to see CSF draining out B) Inject the local anesthetic C) Insert the introducer D) Apply a sterile drape

A) Pull the stylet to see CSF draining out | *slide 111*

What type of needles are included in the spinal kit for skin anesthesia? A) 25 gauge or smaller B) 20 gauge or smaller C) 18 gauge or smaller D) 22 gauge or smaller

B) 22 gauge or smaller * 18g spinal/introducer needle | *slide 111*

Which solution is used to clean the skin before a spinal procedure? A) Alcohol B) Saline C) Chlorhexidine or Betadine D) Sterile water

C) Chlorhexidine or Betadine | *slide 111*

Which steps are involved in the preparation of a spinal procedure? (Select all that apply - 3) A) Apply sterile drapes B) Ensure the bevel of the needle is down C) Insert the introducer to prevent needle bending D) Use a filter needle to draw up SAB medication

A) Apply sterile drapes C) Insert the introducer to prevent needle bending D) Use a filter needle to draw up SAB medication | *slide 111*

What is the concentration of Lidocaine used for skin injection in a spinal? A) 2% B) 1.5% C) 0.5% D) 1%

D) 1% | *slide 111*

What is the volume (dose) for a SAB? A) 1mL B) 3mL C) 2mL D) 0.5mL

C) 2mL | *slide 111*

Which of the following are cutting spinal needles? (Select all that apply - 2) A) Quincke B) Sprotte C) Whitacre D) Pitkin

A) Quincke D) Pitkin | *slide 113*

Which of the following are non-cutting spinal needles? (Select all that apply - 5) A) Greene B) Quincke C) Whitacre D) Gertie Marx E) Pitkin F) Sprotte G) Pencan

A) Greene C) Whitacre D) Gertie Marx F) Sprotte G) Pencan | *slide 113*

What is a common complication associated with cutting spinal needles? A) Infection B) Bleeding C) Post-dural puncture headache (PDPH) D) Nerve damage

C) Post-dural puncture headache (PDPH) | *slide 113*

Which of the following are advantages of using pencil-point needles in SAB? (Select all that apply) A) Dragging fewer contaminants into subnormal tissue B) Higher risk of PDPH C) Sensation of a “click” or “pop” during insertion D) Lower risk of PDPH

A) Dragging fewer contaminants into subnormal tissue C) Sensation of a “click” or “pop” during insertion, D) Lower risk of PDPH | *slide 114*

Pencil-point needles have which of the following characteristics? (Select all that apply) A) Less than 1% risk of PDPH B) Higher failure rate than cutting needles C) A failure rate of about 5% D) Higher contamination rate

A) Less than 1% risk of PDPH, C) A failure rate of about 5% | *slide 114*

What is the purpose of lying the patient flat in the first 5 min after a spinal? A) prevents caudal spread B) prevents high spinal C) allows for better pain control D) ensures more dermatomes will be blocked

B) prevents high spinal | *slide 115*

If the patient tells you their hand is getting numb, what should you be concerned for? A) the spinal is not working B) they are having an allergic reaction C) a high spinal will soon follow D) the local anesthetic volume injected was not the correct amount

C) a high spinal will soon follow | *slide 115*

How often do we need to get vital signs during a SAB per AANA standards? A) every 30-60 seconds B) every 5-10 min C) every 1-2 min D) every 3-5 min

D) every 3-5 min | *slide 115*

What action should be taken if the patient experiences paresthesia during SAB? A) Continue with the procedure B) Increase the dose of local anesthetic C) Stop and reposition the patient D) Apply pressure to the injection site

C) Stop and reposition the patient | *slide 116*

What should be done if blood instead of CSF is observed during SAB? A) Continue the procedure B) Withdraw the needle and start again if it is a lot of blood C) Increase the dose of local anesthetic D) Rotate the needle

B) Withdraw the needle and start again if it is a lot of blood | *slide 116*

What steps can be taken if there is resistance with injection during SAB? (Select all that apply) A) Rotate the needle B) Increase the dose of local anesthetic C) Withdraw the needle completely D) Push the needle in a little more

A) Rotate the needle D) Push the needle in a little more | *slide 116*

What are common problems encountered during a SAB? (select all that apply - 5) A) Pain on injection B) Lack of free flow CSF when spinning 360 degrees C) Swirl present with aspiration D) Resistance with Injection E) No swirl F) Hypotension G) No block/partial block H) Blood instead of CSF

B) Lack of free flow CSF when spinning 360 degrees D) Resistance with injection E) No Swirl G) No block/partial block H) Blood instead of CSF | *slide 116*

Which items are included in an epidural kit for the administration of anesthesia? (Select all that apply - 4) A) Tuohy needle B) 3 ml, 5 ml, and 20 ml syringes C) Line filter D) Introducer Needle E) Loss of resistance syringe

A) Tuohy needle B) 3 ml, 5 ml, and 20 ml syringes C) Line filter E) Loss of resistance syringe | *slide 120*

What is the purpose of the loss of resistance syringe in an epidural kit? A) To identify the epidural space B) To inject the anesthetic C) To clean the injection site D) To draw up the medication

A) To identify the epidural space | *slide 120*

Which local anesthetic solution is used for the skin in an epidural kit? A) 2% lidocaine (5 ml) B) 1% bupivacaine (5 ml) C) 1% lidocaine (5 ml) D) 2% bupivacaine (5 ml)

C) 1% lidocaine (5 ml) | *slide 120*

What is the test dose used in an epidural kit? A) 1% lidocaine (5 ml) B) 0.5% bupivacaine (5 ml) C) 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine (5 ml) D) 1.5% lidocaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine (5 ml)

D) 1.5% lidocaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine (5 ml) | *slide 120*

Which of the following characteristics describe the Tuohy needle? (Select all that apply - 3) A) Most curvature (30 degrees) B) Blunt tip C) 15-degree curve D) Less likely to puncture subarachnoid space

A) Most curvature (30 degrees) B) Blunt tip D) Less likely to puncture subarachnoid space | *slide 121*

Which epidural needles have a 15-degree curve? (Select all that apply - 2) A) Hustead B) Tuohy C) Crawford D) Weiss

A) Hustead, D) Weiss | *slide 121*

Which epidural needle is preferred when catheter placement is difficult or the angle is steep, such as in thoracic epidural procedures, and has 0 degrees curvature? A) Tuohy B) Hustead C) Crawford D) Weiss

C) Crawford | *slide 121*

Epidural catheters are typically how many gauges smaller than the needle used for insertion? A) 1 gauge B) 2 gauges C) 3 gauges D) 4 gauges

B) 2 gauges | *slide 123*

What is the optimal length that should be in the epidural space when placing an epidural catheter? A) 1-2 cm B) 6-8 cm C) 3-5 cm D) 9-10 cm

C) 3-5 cm | *slide 123*

Which of the following are advantages of multi-orifice epidural catheters? (Select all that apply - 3) A) Better distribution of local anesthesia B) Lower incidence of inadequate anesthesia C) Lower risk of intravascular placement D) Most commonly used currently

A) Better distribution of local anesthesia B) Lower incidence of inadequate anesthesia D) Most commonly used currently | *slide 123*

Which features are associated with coil reinforced epidural catheters? (Select all that apply - 3) A) Stronger B) Less likely to shear when removed or placed C) Higher risk of SAB placement D) Softer tip

A) Stronger B) Less likely to shear when removed or placed D) Softer tip | *slide 123*

Which characteristics describe plastic catheters used in epidural procedures? (Select all that apply - 4) A) Easier to thread B) Inadvertent SAB puncture is a possibility C) Stiffer D) Difficult placement E) Less expensive

A) Easier to thread B) Inadvertent SAB puncture is a possibility C) Stiffer E) Less expensive | *slide 124*

What steps are involved in measuring the distance from the skin to the epidural space? (Select all that apply - 3) A) Measure the total length of the needle B) Measure the visible needle length C) Subtract the visible needle length from the total length of the needle D) Add the visible needle length to the total length of the needle

A) Measure the total length of the needle B) Measure the visible needle length C) Subtract the visible needle length from the total length of the needle | *slide 125*

If the total needle length is 9 cm and 4 cm is visible, the distance from the skin to the epidural space is __________ cm.

5 | *slide 125*

How do you determine the distance from the skin to the epidural space after reaching the epidural space with the needle? A) Subtract the visible needle length from the total length of the needle B) Add the visible needle length to the total length of the needle C) Multiply the visible needle length by two D) Divide the total length of the needle by the visible needle length

A) Subtract the visible needle length from the total length of the needle | *slide 125*

What are the concerns regarding epidurals and tattoos? (Select all that apply - 2) A) Increased risk of neurological problems B) Risk of carrying tattoo ink into the spine C) Potential for inflammation (chemical arachnoiditis) D) Decreased effectiveness of anesthesia

B) Risk of carrying tattoo ink into the spine C) Potential for inflammation (chemical arachnoiditis) | *slide 127*

What is a recommended approach to avoid placing the needle through tattooed skin? A) Midline approach B) Subcutaneous approach C) Intramuscular approach D) Paramedian approach

D) Paramedian approach | *slide 127*

# Epidural Procedure What is the recommended direction for pointing the epidural needle tip during insertion? A) Cephalad (upwards) B) Downwards C) Lateral D) Medial

A) Cephalad (upwards) | *slide 128*

# Epidural Procedure What method is used to determine the correct placement of the epidural needle? A) Fluoroscopy B) Ultrasound C) Loss of resistance (LOR) D) Palpation

C) Loss of resistance (LOR) | *slide 128*

# Epidural Procedure Which methods can be used for determining loss of resistance (LOR) during epidural needle insertion? (Select all that apply - 3) A) Air B) Saline C) Contrast dye D) Both air and saline

A) Air B) Saline D) Both air and saline | *slide 128*

# Epidural Procedure What are the important numbers to record during the epidural catheter procedure? (Select all that apply) A) Catheter marking at the skin B) Catheter depth/length in the epidural space C) Depth from epidural to SA space D) Depth to epidural space

A) Catheter marking at the skin B) Catheter depth/length in the epidural space D) Depth to epidural space | *slide 128*

Which symptoms should be monitored to identify accidental IV placement during an epidural procedure? (Select all that apply - 4) A) Ringing in ears (tinnitus) B) Metallic taste in mouth C) BP increase by 15-20% D) Numbness around the mouth E) Jump in heart rate by 20% or more

A) Ringing in ears (tinnitus) B) Metallic taste in mouth D) Numbness around the mouth E) Jump in heart rate by 20% or more | *slide 130*

What special considerations should be taken into account when giving a test dose during an epidural procedure? (Select all that apply - 2) A) Use a higher concentration of lidocaine B) For pregnant women, give the test dose after a contraction ends C) Monitor for a big increase in blood pressure (>20 mm Hg) in patients on heart medications D) Administer the test dose slowly

B) For pregnant women, give the test dose after a contraction ends C) Monitor for a big increase in blood pressure (>20 mm Hg) in patients on heart medications **BP increase >20mmHg = needle in blood vessel - pts on heart meds** | *slide 130*

What indicates an accidental spinal injection during an epidural procedure? A) Ringing in ears B) Metallic taste in mouth C) Dense motor block within 5 minutes of a test dose D) Increase in heart rate

C) Dense motor block within 5 minutes of a test dose | *slide 130*

What is the purpose of the test dose in epidural procedures? A) To provide long-lasting anesthesia B) To identify unintentional IV or SAB placement C) To reduce inflammation D) To monitor patient heart rate

B) To identify unintentional IV or SAB placement | *slide 130*

What are the two ways to maintain an epidural? A) Bolus dose and continuous dose B) Continuous dose and injection C) Infusion and injection D) Bolus dose and infusion

D) Bolus dose and infusion | *slide 131*

What is the recommended initial dose per segment of the spine to be anesthetized for an epidural? A) 1-2 mL B) 0.5-1 mL C) 2-3 mL D) 3-4 mL

A) 1-2 mL | *slide 131*

What are the best practices for maintaining an epidural? (Select all that apply - 4) A) Perform accurate dermatome assessments B) Aspirate for blood or CSF C) Inject slowly in 5 mL increments D) Use a higher concentration of anesthetic E) Administer the initial dose all at once F) Monitor closely for 30 minutes G) Perform the procedure in a supine position H) Check the patient's heart rate continuously

A) Perform accurate dermatome assessments B) Aspirate for blood or CSF C) Inject slowly in 5 mL increments F) Monitor closely for 30 minutes | *slide 131*

When should the "top-up" dose be given to maintain adequate anesthesia? A) After three-segment regression B) After one-segment regression C) Before two-segment regression D) Before one-segment regression

C) Before two-segment regression | *slide 131*

Which anesthetics have a recommended top-up time of 120 minutes after the initial dose? (Select all that apply - 2) A) Lidocaine B) 2-Chloroprocaine C) Bupivacaine D) Mepivacaine E) Ropivacaine

C) Bupivacaine, E) Ropivacaine | *slide 132*

Which anesthetic has the shortest recommended top-up time after the initial dose? A) 2-Chloroprocaine B) Lidocaine C) Mepivacaine D) Bupivacaine

B) 2-Chloroprocaine **45 min** | *slide 132*

What is the recommended top-up time for lidocaine after the initial dose in an epidural? A) 30 minutes B) 45 minutes C) 60 minutes D) 120 minutes

C) 60 minutes **Mepivacaine is also 60 min** | *slide 132*

What is a CSF "wet tap" during an epidural procedure? A) Puncturing a vein with the epidural needle B) Accidentally injecting air into the epidural space C) Penetrating the dura with the Tuohy needle and entering the subarachnoid space D) Failing to insert the catheter into the epidural space

C) Penetrating the dura with the Tuohy needle and entering the subarachnoid space | *slide 133*

Which issues can be encountered during an epidural procedure? (Select all that apply) Which issues can be encountered during an epidural procedure? (Select all that apply - 4) A) Aspirate blood B) High blood pressure C) CSF "wet tap" D) Difficulty locating the epidural space E) Inability to thread the catheter F) Positive test dose G) Paresthesia H) Patient anxiety

A) Aspirate blood C) CSF "wet tap" E) Inability to thread the catheter G) Paresthesia | *slide 133*

If you can't thread the catheter during an epidural, it might be due to the presence of the __________.

PLICA | *slide 133*

Which steps are involved in the Combined Spinal-Epidural (CSE) procedure? (Select all that apply - 3) A) Locating the epidural space B) Introducing a spinal needle through the Tuohy needle C) Removing the Tuohy needle before injecting the anesthetic D) Observing CSF flow after removing the stylet

A) Locating the epidural space B) Introducing a spinal needle through the Tuohy needle D) Observing CSF flow after removing the stylet | *slide 136*

What are potential complications or considerations during a CSE procedure? (Select all that apply - 2) A) The catheter could enter the dural puncture site B) Risk of shearing the spinal needle C) Difficulty in locating the epidural space D) The spinal anesthetic may set up in the sacral area without spreading cephalad

A) The catheter could enter the dural puncture site D) The spinal anesthetic may set up in the sacral area without spreading cephalad | *slide 136*

Why must the spinal anesthetic/analgesic be injected quickly into the subarachnoid space during a CSE procedure? A) To reduce pain B) To avoid contamination C) To prevent the spinal from setting up in the sacral area without spreading cephalad D) To ensure proper needle placement

C) To prevent the spinal from setting up in the sacral area without spreading cephalad | *slide 136*

Spinal & Epidural Part 4 ( Tubog) Exam 1 Flashcards

(100 cards)