Spinal Exam 1 Quiz Questions Flashcards
(311 cards)
1
Q
What is osteology?
A
The study of bone
2
Q
What are the three primary cell types of bone?
A
Osteoblasts, Osteocytes, Osteoclasts
3
Q
What is the function of each type of bone cell?
A
Osteoblast - form bone
Osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone
Osteoclast - remodels bone
4
Q
What are the bone cells embedded in?
A
An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers, and various materials
5
Q
What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
A
Glycosaminoglycans
6
Q
What types of glycoaminoglycans predominate in bone?
A
Condroitin sulfates, keratin sulfates, and hyaluronic acid
7
Q
What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?
A
Collagen Type 1
8
Q
What are the primary constituents of the bone mineral?
A
Calcium, phosphate, citrate, and carbonate ions
9
Q
What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
A
Hydroxyapatite
10
Q
Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?
A
Sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium, and radium
11
Q
What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?
A
Living Tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress
12
Q
What are the three responses of bone that allow it to be described as “living”?
A
It has the ability to HEAL, to REMODEL under stressors and to AGE
13
Q
What are the four basic tissues of the human body?
A
Epithelial, muscle, neural, connective
14
Q
What is bone the embryological derivative of?
A
Mesenchyme or cartilage
15
Q
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
A
Intramembranous ossification
16
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
A
From the second to third month in utero
17
Q
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?
A
Endochondral ossification
18
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
A
From the second to fifth month in utero
19
Q
What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?
A
Chondrocranium
20
Q
Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
A
The clavicle
21
Q
What are the names give to the center of ossification based on time of appearance?
A
Primary centers of ossification appear before birth
Secondary centers of ossification appear after birth
22
Q
Mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density?
A
Cortical or compact bone and spongy, cancellous or trabecular bone
23
Q
What is the name given to the bone below an articulating surface?
A
Subchondral bone
24
Q
What is the name of the outer fibro-cellular covering of bone?
A
The periosteum
25
What is the name given to the fibro-cellular lining of bone?
The endosteum
26
What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?
Sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)
27
What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?
Long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones
28
What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal II?
Heterotopic and accessory bones
29
What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
Accessory bone
30
What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?
Diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphysis (extremities)
31
What is the primary characteristic of short bones?
They are essentially cuboidal
32
What are examples of short bones?
Most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
33
What are flat bones?
A thin layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone.
34
What are examples of flat bones?
The parietal bone and sternum
35
What are examples of pneumatic bone?
Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, and temporal
36
What bones contain paranasal sinuses?
Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, and sphenoid
37
What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?
The bone develops within a tendon
38
What are examples of heterotopic bone?
Calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments
39
What are examples of accessory bone?
Para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae
40
What are the four basic surface feature categories?
Elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways, and facets
41
What are the types of osseous elevations?
Linear, rounded, and sharp
42
What are the types of osseous linear elevation?
The Line, ridge, and crest
43
What is an example of the slightest type of osseous linear elevation?
Transverse lines of sternum
44
What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
Tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus
45
What is the definition of an osseous malleolus?
A hammerhead-like elevation on the surface of bone
46
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
Spine and process
47
What is the definition of the osseous elevation called "spine"?
A thorn-like elevation from the surface of bone
48
What is the definition of an osseous process?
A relatively sharp bony projection from the surface of bone with an increased length
49
What are the categories of osseous depressions?
Linear and rounded depressions
50
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
Notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
51
What is the definition on an osseous groove?
A long furrow of variable depth on the surface of bone
52
What is the definition of an osseous sulcus?
A wide groove of variable length and depth on the surface of bone
53
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
Fovea and fossa
54
What is the definition of an osseous fovea?
A shallow depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone
55
What is the definition of an osseous fossa?
A deep depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone
56
What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?
Ostium or orifice and hiatus
57
What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?
An irregular opening on the surface of bone
58
What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?
Foramen or canal
59
What is the definition of an osseous foramen?
An ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone
60
What is the definition of an osseous canal?
An ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone
61
What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?
Meatus
62
What is the definition of an osseous fissure?
An irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
63
What are the categories of osseous facets?
Flat facets and rounded facets
64
What are examples of a flat osseous facet?
The articular facets of most zygoapophyses of the vertebral column
65
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
Articular heads and articular condyles
66
What is the definition of an osseous condyle?
A knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation
67
How many bones from the typical adult skeleton?
206 bones
68
What are the subdivisions of the skeleton?
Axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton
69
How many bones form the typical adult appendicular skeleton?
126 bones
70
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?
28 bones
71
How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?
8 bones
72
How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?
14 bones
73
What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
The spine
74
What is the definition of "spine" as it pertains to the vertebral column?
The pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column
75
How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?
One bone
76
What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?
The manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni, and the xiphoid process
77
How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?
12 pairs or 24 ribs
78
What term is used to identify the study of joints?
Arthrology
79
What term is use to identify the study of ligaments?
Syndesmology
80
What are the three histological classifications of joints?
Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial fluid
81
What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?
Synarthrosis
Amphiarthrosis
Diarhrosis
82
Which classification of synarthrosis joints implies a bond condition?
Syndesmosis
83
What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?
Synchondrosis
84
What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?
Symphysis
85
What is the name given to a condition in which bones are fused together by bone?
Synostosis
86
What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?
Malocclusion
87
What fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of a syndesmosis?
Interosseous ligament
88
What are the classic examples of the less moveable or "fixed" syndesmosis?
Tibia-fibula shaft articulation (or radio-ulnar shaft articulation, coraco-clavicular joint, or tympano-stapedial joint
89
What are the examples of the typical syndesmosis from the vertebral column?
Most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column and ligamentous sacro-iliac joints
90
What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
They are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template
91
What are examples of temporary cartilage joints?
Metaphysis, neuro-central joint, neural arch joint, and chondrocranium
92
What are examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
Costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint
93
Which cartilage joint classification would be considered secondary?
(Amphiarthrosis) symphysis
94
What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
Fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage
| *Also characteristic of secondary cartilage
95
What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
Limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification
96
What are the classic examples of a amphiarthrosis symphysis?
Intervertebral disc, pubic symphysis, sternal symphyses, and symphysis menti
97
Which example of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?
Symphysis menti
98
What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?
Articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage, and synovial fluid
99
Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the what?
Capsular Ligament
100
What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?
Intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments
101
What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?
Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint "at rest"
102
What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?
Located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion
103
What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?
Present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendons organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
104
What is the function of type IV articular receptors?
Nociceptive, they monitor pain
105
Type IVa articular receptors would would be present in what locations?
Fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels
106
Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?
Accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine
107
Type IV articular receptors would be absent in what part(s) of the synovial (diarthrosis) joint?
Synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial menisci or intra-articular discs
108
What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?
(1) Synovial villi, (2) Articular fat pads or Haversian glands, (3) Synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
109
What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?
Aid in spreading synovial fluid
110
What is the apparent function of synovial villi?
Increase the surface of synovial membrane available for secretion - absorption phenomena
111
Where are the articular fat pads located?
In the fibrous layer of synovial membrane; they are absent from articular cartilage, synovial menisci, intra-articular disc
112
Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?
Lumbar Zygapophyses
113
Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joints examples?
Temporomandibular
Sternoclavicular
Acromioclavicular
Radio-Ulnar joints
114
Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?
Femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses
115
What are the layers of the synovial membrane?
Outer fibrous layer and an inner (lumenal) cellular layer
| AKA synovial lamina intima
116
What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?
Are phagocytic
117
What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?
Secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
118
What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?
Water
Cells
Collagen type II fibers
Proteoglycan gel
119
What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
Form a network for water retention
120
What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
Cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
121
What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
122
Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?
Weeping theory
123
Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?
Boosted theory
124
Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the synovial fluid?
Boosted theory
125
Which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?
Boundary theory
126
What are the properties of synovial fluid?
It is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
127
Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
Hyaluronate
128
What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
Lubricin
129
What is a simple synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
Only one pair of articulating surfaces are observed
130
What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
More than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint
131
What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
Within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus
132
What are the classifications of synovial joints (diarthroses) based on type of movement?
Nonaxial, uniaxial, biaxial, and multiaxial synovial joints
133
What movements are accommodated by nonaxial synovial joints?
Translational movement, a plane or gliding movement
134
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?
Plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)
135
What movements are accommodated by uniaxial synovial joints?
A single combination of movements relative to a single axis:
Flexion - extension
OR
Medial rotation - lateral rotation
136
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as uniaxial?
Hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)
137
what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?
(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)
138
What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?
Ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint
139
What are examples of synovial plane (diarthrosis arthroidal) joint?
Most zygapophyses of the vertebral column
Intercarpal, carpometacarpal, and intermetacarpal joints of the hand
Intercuneiform, tarsometatarsal, and intermetatarsal joints of the foot
140
What are examples of synovial hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) joints?
Humero-ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes
141
What are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?
Median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint
142
What is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints?
An osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring
143
What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?
Temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee
144
What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?
Radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of hte foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
145
Which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?
Ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints
146
What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?
Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
147
What are examples of diarthrosis contyloid joints?
Femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus - glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder
148
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?
33 segments
149
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?
26 segments
150
What constitutes the spine?
the 24 sacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae
151
How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?
5 segments
152
How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?
4 segments
153
Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?
Two-toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three-toed sloth
154
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae
The ant bear and three-toed sloth
155
Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
The manatee and two-toed sloth
156
What does the term "cervical" refer to?
The region of the neck
157
What does the term "thoracic" refer to?
Breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso
158
What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?
The dorsal segments; the dorsals
159
What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?
12 segments
160
What does the term "lumbar" refer to?
The loin; the region between the rib and the hip
161
what is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?
5 segments
162
What does the term "sacrum" refer to?
The holy bone or holy region
163
What does the term "coccyx" refer to?
A cuckoo birds' bill or cuckoo birds' beak
164
What is the length of a typical male spinal column?
About 70 centimeters or 28 inches
165
What is the length of a typical female spinal column?
About 60 centimeters or 25 inches
166
What is the length difference between a typical male and female spinal column?
about 3 inches
167
What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
168
What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?
About 28 centimeters or 11 inches
169
What is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?
About 18 centimeters or 7 inches
170
What is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)?
About 12 centimeters or 5 inches
171
Based on the number for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?
About 58 centimeters or 23 inches
172
What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weigh-bearing transfer?
S1-S3 at the auricular surface
173
What is specifically responsible for shape and position of fthe human frame?
Comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc
174
What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
The eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
175
When does the embryonic disc form?
second week in utero
176
When does gastrulation occur or a 3-layered embryo form?
Third week in utero
177
Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?
Notochord
178
What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?
paraxial mesoderm
179
What embryonic structure gives rise to the somites?
Paraxial mesoderm
180
Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.
Sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome
181
What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?
Membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous
182
Migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?
The perichordal blastema
183
The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?
Neural processes and costal processes
184
What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?
Intersegmental artery
185
What forms between the sclerotomites of the perichonrdal blastema?
the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)
186
The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?
The perichordal disc
187
The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?
The vertebral blastema
188
What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?
The segmental artery
189
When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?
Beginning in the 6th embryonic week
190
What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?
Chondrification
191
What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?
Centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center
192
How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?
Six: 2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arches, 2 for each transverse process
193
What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in cartilaginous vertebra?
During 7th embryonic week
194
What is the name given to centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
3 Primary centers: 5 secondary centers
195
What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
Centrum centers and neural arch centers
196
What are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
Tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers
197
What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?
During puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old
198
What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?
The vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions
199
What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?
Cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform
200
What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?
Superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim
201
What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?
Nutrient foramina or vascular foramina
202
What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?
The basivertebral venous foramen
203
What is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?
The pedicle
204
What is the name given to the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle?
The superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral Incisure; the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
205
What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?
Cervical - posterolateral
Thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
Lumbar - posterior
206
All lamina are oriented in what direction?
Posterior and median
207
What ligament will attach to the lamina?
The ligamentum flavum
208
What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?
Para-articular process
209
What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?
Accessory bone
210
What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray?
Shingling
211
What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral X-ray?
The spinolaminar junction
212
What is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?
The apophyseal regions
213
What is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?
Cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis
214
What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?
The transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process
215
What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?
Cervical - anterolateral; thoracic - posterolateral; lumbar - lateral
216
All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?
The costal element
217
What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?
The transverse tubercle
218
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?
Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position
219
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?
The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward
220
What will the articular process/articular apophysis support?
The articular facet
221
What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?
The zygapophysis
222
What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?
The superior articular facet
223
What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?
The inferior articular facet
224
What names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the front of the zygapophysis?
The superior articular apophysis, the superior articular process, or the pre-zygapophysis
225
What names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the back of the zygapophysis?
The inferior articular apophysis, the inferior articular process, or the post-zygapophysis
226
What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?
The superior articular process or superior articular apophysis
227
What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post-zygapophysis?
The inferior articular process or inferior articular apophysis
228
What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
The inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum
229
What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
The inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
230
What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
The superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure
231
What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
The vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament
232
What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane
233
What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?
Imbrication
234
What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
The spinous tubercle
235
what is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?
Cervical - slight angle inferiorly
Thoracic - noticeable
Lumbar - no inferior angle
236
What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each of the spinal column/vertebral column?
Cervical - Trianglular
Thoracic - Oval
Lumbar - Triangular
Sacrum - Triangular
237
At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?
L1
238
At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?
S2
239
What are the segmental arteries?
The arteries whose branches supply the vertebra or segment
240
Identify all segmental arteries
Vertebral, ascending cervical, deep cervical, superior (highest) intercostal, posterior intercostal, subcostal, lumbar, iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral
241
What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?
The vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery, and deep cervical artery
242
What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?
The deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery, and subcostal artery
243
What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?
The lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median (middle) sacral artery
244
What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?
C1-C6
245
What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?
C1-C6
246
What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?
C7-T1
247
What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?
T1-T2
248
What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?
T3-T11
249
What segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the subcostal artery?
T12
250
What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?
L1-L4
251
What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?
L5, S1-S5, and coccyx
252
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?
Osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery
253
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
254
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?
Posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
255
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?
Anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery
256
Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?
Anterior radicular artery
257
Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root, and nerve root ganglion?
Posterior radicular artery
258
What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?
Anterior spinal artery
259
The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
The vertebral artery
260
Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?
No
261
As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
Anterior medullary feeder arteries
262
The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
The posterior inferior cerebellar artery
263
What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?
It lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord
264
Is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?
No
265
As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
Posterior medullary feeder artery
266
What changes to the arterial vasa corona occur between C3 and C6?
Right and left anterior spinal arteries fuse to become a single median anterior spinal artery, the right and left posterior spinal arteries are unchanged, and the four communicating arteries are reduced to three communicating arteries
267
What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?
Pial perforating arteries
268
What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?
Anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders
269
What vessels drain the spinal cord?
Pial veins
270
Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?
Anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins
271
Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?
Anterior radicular veins
272
Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?
Anterior radicular veins
273
Which vessels will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve roots?
Posterior radicular veins
274
What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?
Posterior radicular veins
275
What veins will lie in the subarachnoid space?
Pial veins, venous vasa corona, anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, communicating veins, anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins, anterior radicular veins, posterior radicular veins
276
What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein
277
What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?
Posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
278
What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?
Intervertebral veins
279
Identify the meninges of the spinal or (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis) and the commonly accepted meaning of each
Dura mater - tough mother
arachnoid mater - spider mother
pia mater - tender or delicate mother
280
Name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis)
Epidural space - between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater
Subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
Subarachnoid space - between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater
281
what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?
Interstitial fluid
282
What are the contents of the epidural space?
Anterior and posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
Anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
Ligamentum flavum
Posterior longitudinal ligament
283
Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
284
Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?
Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior duralmeningovertebral ligament
285
Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
Posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
Posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Ligamentum Flavum
286
What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?
Cerebrospinal fluid
287
What are the typical contents of the subarachnoid space down to the level C3?
- *Anterior spinal arteries (*and veins), *posterior spinal arteries, *communicating arteries, arterial vasa corona, pial perforating arteries, central/sulcal perforating arteries, *anterior radicular arteries, *posterior radicular arteries, anterior medullary feeder arteries, posterior medullary feeder arteries, dentate/denticulate ligament
- Venous vasa corona, Pial veins, Anterior medullary veins, posterior, medullary veins, intervertebral veins
288
What contents of the subarachnoid space are changed below the level C6?
The arterial vasa corona consists of one anterior spinal artery, two posterior spinal arteries, and three communicating arteries
289
What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?
Dentate (denticulate) ligament
290
What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?
They lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins
291
In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?
Transverse
292
What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?
C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbrosacral) enlargement
293
Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?
C6
294
In which plane (or direction) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2-T1?
Midsagittal or anterior-posterior plane
295
What is the generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?
L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra
296
What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?
Conus Medullaris
297
What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?
Typically S4, S5, and Co1
298
In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?
L1
299
What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?
Cauda Equina
300
What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?l
Filum Terminale Internum
301
What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?
It joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4
302
What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first coverage at the caudal part of the vertebral column?
Typically S2, the dural cul de sac
303
Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale?
Proximal part of the filum terminale internum
304
What does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate?
Lower limbs and the external and sphincter
305
The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?
Cruciate anastomosis
306
What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?
Filum Terminale Externum
307
What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?
Coccygeal medullary vestige
308
What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?
Tethered cord syndrome
309
What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?
It is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord
310
What is the relationship between rib number and vertebral numbers at the costocentral joint?
Rib number always equates to same vertebral number at the costocentral joint
Rib 3 articulates with T3 segment and also with the T2 segment
Only ribs 1, 11, and 12 typically joint with a single segment
311
What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?
The spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple
The rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple
