Spinal exam1 Flashcards
(261 cards)
1
Q
what are the four basic tissues of the human body?
A
epithelial, muscle, neural and connective tissues
2
Q
what is osteology?
A
the study of bone
3
Q
what is the function of each type of bone cell?
A
osteoblast - form bone; osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast - remodel bone
4
Q
what are the bone cells embedded in?
A
an amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals
5
Q
what is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
A
glycosaminoglycans
6
Q
what is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?
A
collagen type 1
7
Q
what is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
A
hydroxyapatite
8
Q
bone is also the repository for what additional ions?
A
sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium and radium
9
Q
what is wolffs law as it pertains to bone?
A
living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress
10
Q
what are the three responses of bone that allow it to be described as “living”?
A
it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age
11
Q
what is bone the embryological derivative of?
A
mesenchyme or cartilage
12
Q
what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
A
intramembranous ossification
13
Q
what is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
A
from the second to third month in utero
14
Q
what is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
A
from the second to fifth month in utero
15
Q
what part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?
A
chondrocranium
16
Q
which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
A
the clavicle
17
Q
what are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?
A
sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)
18
Q
what are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?
A
long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or penumatic bones and sesamoid bones
19
Q
what are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in spinal II?
A
hetertopic and accessory bone
20
Q
what is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
A
hetertopic bone
21
Q
what is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
A
accessory bone
22
Q
what is the characteristic freature of a long bone?
A
it is longer than it is across (length greater than breadth)
23
Q
what are the names given to the parts of a long bone?
A
the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)
24
Q
what is the primary characteristic of short bones?
A
they are essentially cuboidal
25
what are the examples of short bones?
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
26
what are examples of flat bones?
the parietal bone and sternum
27
what are examples of pneumatic bone?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal
28
what is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?
the bone develops within a tendon
29
what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
patella and pisiform
30
what are examples of heterotopic bone?
calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments
31
what are examples of accessory bone?
para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae
32
what are the four basic surface feature categories?
elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets
33
when do the surface features of bone become prominent?
during and after puberty
34
what are the types of osseous linear elevation?
the line, ridge and crest
35
what are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus
36
what are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
spine and process
37
what are the categories of osseous depressions?
linear and rounded dperessions
38
what are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
39
what are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
40
what are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?
ostium or orifice and hiatus
41
what are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?
foramen or canal
42
what is the definition of an osseous foramen?
an ostium passing completely through a thing region of bone
43
what is the definition of an osseous canal?
an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone
44
what is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?
meatus
45
what is the defition of an osseous fissure?
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
46
what are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facets and rounded facets
47
what are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
48
what bones form the axial skeleton?
the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
49
what is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?
the cranium
50
what are the names given to the top of the adult skull?
the calvaria or calva
51
what are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?
the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton) and the auditory ossicles
52
what is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?
28 bones
53
what bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?
the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid
54
how many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?
8 bones
55
how many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?
14 bones
56
what is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
the spine
57
what is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?
24 bones
58
how many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?
1 bone
59
what regions are present along the typical adult sternum?
the manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid process
60
how many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?
12 pairs or 24 ribs
61
what term is used to identify the study of ligaments?
syndesmology
62
what are the three histological classifications of joints?
fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid
63
the ligamentous sacro-iliac joints (or most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column) are examples of which joint classification?
syndesmosis
64
what are the characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template
65
what are examples of a permanent (ampiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint
66
what are the characteristics of a (amphiarthorsis) symphysis?
limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification
67
which example of a (amphiarthrosis) sypmhysis is temporary?
symphysis menti
68
what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joint?
articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid
69
what are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?
located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resmble ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint "at rest"
70
what are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?
located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion
71
what are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?
present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
72
what is the function of type IV articular receptors?
nociceptive, they monitor pain
73
type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?
accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine
74
what are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?
(1) synovial villi, (2) articular fat pads of Haversian glands, (3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
75
articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertbral column?
lumbar zygapophyses
76
intra-articular discs are a feature of what joints examples?
temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavivular and radio-ulnar joints
77
synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?
femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses
78
synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?
femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapohphyses and lumbar zygapophyses
79
what are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?
are phagocytic
80
what is the specific function of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
81
which collagen fiber type predominates in articular cartilage?
type II
82
what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
form a network for water retention
83
what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
cartilage can deform and returns to original volumerapidly, a time independent property
84
what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
85
which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?
weeping theory
86
which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?
boosted theory
87
which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for ht e low-friction observed during movement?
boundary theory
88
what are the properties of synovial fluid?
it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
89
which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
hyaluronate
90
what substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
lubricin
91
what is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular dis) or meniscus
92
what morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?
plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)
93
what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?
hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)
94
what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?
(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)
95
what morphologial classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?
ball and socket (diarthorsis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classificaitons given to the same type of joint
96
what are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?
median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint
97
what are examples of diarthrosis condylar of diarthrosis bicondylar joints?
temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee
98
what are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?
radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
99
what are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
100
what are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?
femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus - glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder
101
what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?
33 segments
102
what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?
26 segments
103
what is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?
24 segments
104
what constitutes the spine?
the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
105
which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?
the ant bear and three-toed sloth
106
which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
the manatee and two-toed sloth
107
what does the term "cervical" refer to?
the region of the neck
108
what does the term "thoracic" refer to?
breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso
109
what other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?
the dorsal segments; the dorsals
110
what does the term "lumbar" refer to?
the loin; the region between the rib and the hip
111
what does the term "sacrum" refer to?
the holy bone or holy region
112
what does the term "coccyx" refer to?
a cuckoo birds bill or cuckoo birds' beak
113
what is the length of a typical male spinal column?
about 70 centimeters or 28 inches
114
what is the length of a typical female spinal column?
about 60 centimeters or 25 inches
115
what is the length difference between a typical male and a typical female spinal column?
about 3 inches
116
what is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
117
what is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?
about 18 centimeters or 7 inches
118
what is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)?
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
119
based on the numbers for the individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?
about 58 centimeters or 23 inches
120
how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?
ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template
121
what levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weigh-bearing transfer?
S1-S3 at the auricular surface
122
what is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame?
comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc
123
what organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
124
invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?
notochord
125
what is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?
paraxial mesoderm
126
name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.
sclerotome, myotome and dermatome
127
what are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?
membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous
128
migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature
the perichordal blastema
129
the perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?
neural processes and costal processes
130
what is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?
intersegmental artery
131
what forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?
the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)
132
the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?
the perichordal disc
133
the union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?
the vertebral blastema
134
what vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?
segmental artery
135
when will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?
beginning in the 6th embryonic week
136
what is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?
chondrification
137
how many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?
six...2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arches, 2 for each transverse process
138
what is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra?
during the 7th embryonic week
139
what is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?
primary centers appear in utero, secondary centers appear after birth
140
what is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for at typical vertebra?
3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers
141
what are the names of the primary centers of ossification fro a typical vertebra?
centrum centers and neural arch centers
142
what are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
tip of the transverse process tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers
143
what is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?
during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old
144
what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?
cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform
145
what is the name given to the compact bone at the superior inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?
superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim
146
what is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and articular processes attach?
the lamina - pedicle junction
147
what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?
cervical - posterolateral
thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
lumbar - posterior
148
what ligament will attach to the lamina?
the ligamentum flavum
149
what is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?
para-articular process
150
what classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?
accessory bone
151
what is the name given tot eh overlap of laminae seen on an x-ray?
shingling
152
what is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?
cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis
153
what is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral x-ray?
the spinolaminar junction
154
what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical - anterolateral; thoracic - posterolateral; lumbar - lateral
155
all non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?
the costal element
156
what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?
cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position
157
what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the throacic region?
the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward
158
what is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?
the zygapophysis
159
what will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior articular process/poster-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum
160
what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
161
what will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure
162
what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the vertebral body of the segment above, the verterbal body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament
163
what is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane
164
what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on x-ray?
imbrication
165
what is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical - slight angle inferiorly
thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar - no inferior angle
166
what is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?
cervical - triangular; thoracic - oval; lumbar - triangular; sacrum - triangular
167
at what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?
L1
168
at what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?
S2
169
what are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?
the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subscostal artery
170
what are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?
the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
171
what are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
172
what are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?
iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
173
what segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?
C7-T1
174
what segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?
T1, T2
175
what segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?
T3-T11
176
what segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the subcostal artery?
T12
177
what segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?
L1-L4
178
what segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle sacral artery?)
L5, S1-S5 and coccyx
179
what segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?
L5, S1-S5 and coccyx
180
which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?
L5
181
what are the segmental arteries to L5?
iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery
182
what branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?
dorsospinal artery
183
which artery is primarily observed in teh distal part of the intervertebral foramen?
spinal artery
184
which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid spaces?
spinal artery
185
what are the branches of the spinal artery?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery
186
which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery
187
what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament??
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
188
what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
189
which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?
anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery
190
which vessel will supply teh ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?
anterior radicular artery
191
which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular artery
192
what is teh location and number of medullary feeder arteries present int he adult?
9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries
193
hat is the name given tot he artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?
anterior spinal artery
194
the anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
the vertebral artery
195
is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?
no
196
as the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
anterior medullary feeder arteries
197
the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
the posterior inferior cerebellar artery
198
what is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?
it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord
199
is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?
no
200
as the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
posterior medullary feeder arteries
201
what forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?
right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries
202
what forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?
a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries
203
what is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?
intramedullary arteries
204
what are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?
pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries
205
what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter an d most of the spinal cord?
ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries
206
what intramedullary branches supply about one third of teh spinal cord?
pial perforating arteries
207
what is the source for pial perforating arteries?
the pial plexus
208
what is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?
anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders
209
what vessels drain the spinal cord
pial veins
210
what will pial veins drain into?
venous vasa corona
211
which vessels form the venous vasa corona?
right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins
212
which vessels will rain the venous vasa corona?
anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins
213
what vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular veins
214
what veins are observed int eh epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein
215
what veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
216
what venous vessels are identified in teh intervertebral foramen?
intervertebral veins
217
identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis).
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
218
what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space
interstitial fluid
219
which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?
subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
220
which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
221
what is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?
serous fluid
222
what is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?
cerebrospinal fluid
223
in horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?
transverse
224
what are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?
C3-T11, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement
225
where is the greatest transverse diameter of teh spinal cord?
C6
226
what is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?
L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra
227
what is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?
conus medullaris
228
what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?
typically S4, S5, and Co1
229
in which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?
L1
230
what is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?
cauda equina
231
what is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?
filum terminale internum
232
what is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first coverge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?
typically S2, the dural cul de sac
233
neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale?
proximal part of the filum terminale internum
234
what is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?
in joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4
235
what does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate?
lower limbs and the external anal sphincter
236
the last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?
cruciate anastomosis
237
what is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?
filum terminale externum
238
what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?
coccygeal medullary vestige
239
what is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?
tethered cord syndrome
240
what is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?
it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord
241
what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?
the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple
242
which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?
ant bear, three-toed sloth
243
which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
two-toed sloth, manatee
244
what is the number of vertebrae in the typical cervical spine?
seven segments
245
which vertebrae are typical cervicals?
C3-C6
246
which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?
C1, C2, C7
247
what is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from teh cranial view?
rectangular
248
what is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?
posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters
249
what would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?
posterior or kyphotic
250
what accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?
the intervertebral disc height
251
what is the direction of the typical cervical curve?
anterior or lordotic
252
at which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?
C5/C6
253
what is the effect of aging on the cervical vertebral body?
it diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body
254
what are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes
255
what are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?
uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip
256
at what developmental age will the uncinate process first be obvserved?
3rd-4th fetal month
257
what are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves
258
what are the names given to the lateral modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim?
lateral groove or enchancrure
259
what is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis
260
what is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior groove articulation?
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis
261
what is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar)
