Spine Flashcards
(134 cards)
(Ped) 9. A 4-year-old girl with low-grade fever and back pain has an elevated Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) but normal White Cell Count (WCC). Diskitis is considered. Which is the best answer regarding diskitis?
A. Usually affects children 4-10 years old
B. Thoracic spine is most commonly affected
C. Usually involves 3 consecutive disc spaces
D. Decreased marrow intensity on 2 consecutive vertebrae on T1 MR is characteristic
E. Radiographs are usually positive before bone scan
D. Decreased marrow intensity on 2 consecutive vertebrae on T1 MR is characteristic
Diskitis is the most common paediatric spine pathology.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common causative organism.
The peak ages are 6 months-4 years and 10-14 years.
L3-4 and L 4-5 are most commonly affected sites.
(Ped) 10. An eccentric mass expands the cord on MR of a 5-year-old boy. The mass is isointense on T1 and hyperintense on T2. Which is the most common intramedullary neoplasm in children, exhibiting these features?
A. Ependymoma
B. Astrocytoma
C. Ganglioglioma
D. Haemangioblastoma
E. Subependymoma
B. Astrocytoma
Astrocytomas appear as homogenously ill-defined cord tumours, with poorly defined margins and patchy irregular enhancement with gad. Masses can take form of eccentric irregular tumour cysts, polar cysts & syrinxes
@# 28. A follow-up of a young man under the care of the neurooncologists reveals a drop in metastases. Which statement is most true?
A. Drop metastases tend to be in the upper spine
B. Metastases within the spinal canal are usually ventral
C. Glioblastoma is the commonest cause of drop metastases
D. Are associated with positive CSF cytology in approximately 10% of cases
E. Usually demonstrates homogenous enhancement with contrast
E. Usually demonstrates homogenous enhancement with contrast
Drop metastases are usually dorsal in location in the spinal canal.
Medulloblastomas are the most common cause of drop metastases.
A higher percentage of CSF cytology is positive.
(MSK) 30. A 16-year-old girl who has recently moved from India to the UK has back pain. Considering tuberculous spondylitis:
A. 10% of skeletal TB involves the spine
B. Infection usually begins in the posterior part of the vertebral body
C. Medial bowing of the psoas shadow on plain film may indicate an abscess
D. The upper thoracic spine is most commonly affected
E. Calcification within a psoas abscess is highly likely to represent TB
E. Calcification within a psoas abscess is highly likely to represent TB
50% of skeletal TB involves the spine, with the lower thoracic and upper lumbar regions being most commonly affected.
It usually begins at the anterior vertebral body.
A psoas abscess may cause lateral bowing of the psoas shadow on plain film.
@# 42. Which is a cause of solitary dense pedicle rather than erosion/absence?
A. Osteoblastoma
B. Metastatic carcinoma
C. Neurofibroma
D. Tuberculosis with paravertebral abscess
E. Aneurysmal bone cyst
- A Osteoblastoma is a cause of a solitary dense pedicle
- Which is most likely to represent an intramedullary mass lesion?
A. Ependymoma
B. Meningioma
C. Neurofibroma
D. Arachnoid cyst
E. Abscess
A. Ependymoma
Other intramedullary masses include astrocytomas are dermoids (lipoma/teratomas), acutely expanding infarcts and haematoma.
- Which is the most common cause of erosion of the odontoid peg?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. SLE
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Psoriasis
E. Down’s syndrome
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is the most common cause of erosion of the odontoid peg.
(MSK) 47. On review of a casualty film of a patient involved in a road traffic accident, which of the following is an unstable cervical spine fracture?
A. Unilateral facet dislocation
B. Clay shovellers
C. Jefferson
D. Burst
E. Extension tear drop
C. Jefferson
Unstable fractures include bilateral facet dislocation, flexion teardrop, hangman’s, hyperextension dislocation, Jefferson, odontoid and atlanto-occipital dislocation
(Ped) 2) A 14-year-old boy who is a keen gymnast and fast bowler gives a history of several months of central low back pain that suddenly worsened during a game of cricket when he also developed bilateral shooting pains in his legs. There is no overt deformity on clinical examination, but lower back tenderness with generally restricted movement is noted. He undergoes radiographic, CT and MR imaging. What is the most likely radiological finding to explain the patient’s current symptoms?
a. herniated intervertebral disc
b. discitis
c. Scheuermann’s disease
d. spondylolysis
e. spondylolisthesis
e. spondylolisthesis
Back pain in adults is common and most frequently non-specific.
In contrast, back pain in children is less common and often caused by a serious underlying condition.
Spondylolysis is a defect in the pars interarticularis, the weakest part of the vertebra, and is an acquired condition even in childhood, where it is usually due to repetitive microtrauma in athletically active children.
In isolation, it does not cause neurological symptoms, but bilateral defects can allow slippage of one vertebra over another, creating an abnormality of alignment, a spondylolisthesis.
Disc herniation in children is rare and occurs as a result of a traumatic event rather than degeneration. It is lateral.
Scheuermann’s disease is associated with a kyphotic deformity.
(MSK) 4) CT of the cervical spine is performed on an intubated emergency patient who was a restrained driver in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. This reveals bilateral C2 pedicle fractures. What is the most likely underlying mechanism of injury?
a. hyperflexion and rotation
b. hyperextension followed by hyperflexion
c. axial loading
d. hyperextension and traction
e. hyper-rotation
d. hyperextension and traction
The fracture described is a hangman fracture. This involves either the pedicles or pars interarticularis of C2 bilaterally.
The mechanism is usually extension and traction (as caused during hanging).
Hyperflexion injuries produce anterior tear-drop or of a vertebral body wedge fractures.
Axial loading can produce a burst fracture of C1 (Jefferson’s fracture) or a vertebral body elsewhere in the spine.
Hyperflexion and extension are associated with longitudinal ligament injury.
Hyperrotation is associated with soft-tissue injury or facet joint dislocation.
(MSK) 7) A child passenger is admitted to accident and emergency following a road traffic collision. Radiographs of the spine show a horizontal fracture involving the vertebral body and pedicles of L2. Associated injury to which of the following abdominal organs is most likely?
a. duodenum
b. pancreas
c. spleen
d. liver
e. rectum
a. duodenum
The spinal injury described is a Chance fracture, a fracture through the vertebral body and pedicles caused by hyperflexion, therefore causing compression of the spine anteriorly and distraction posteriorly.
This injury typically occurs in back-seat passengers wearing a lap seat belt during a road traffic collision.
In children, there is a 50% incidence of associated intra-abdominal organ injury.
Retroperitoneal organs are most vulnerable, being closest to the spine. Duodenal injuries are most common, and have a significant associated mortality. The pancreas is also commonly injured due to its retroperitoneal location
11) Degenerative spinal vertebral body endplate changes, as seen on MRI, may have which of the following appearances?
a. type I – high T1W and low T2W signal
b. type I – low T1W and low T2W signal
c. type II – high T1W and high T2W signal
d. type II – low T1W and high T2W signal
e. type II – high T1W and low T2W signal
c. type II – high T1W and high T2W signal
The endplates in degenerative disc disease have three described appearances during their evolution, which are also known as Modic changes.
Type I (marrow oedema) changes show low signal on T1W and high signal on T2W sequences.
Type II (fatty marrow) changes show high signal on both T1Wand T2W sequences.
Type III (sclerosis) changes are low signal on both T1W and T2W sequences.
(MSK) 11) You receive a referral while on call from the orthopaedic consultant regarding a middle-aged woman with a long history of simple back pain. She has attended accident and emergency complaining of worsening lower lumbar pain with a several-hour history of progressive urinary retention, faecal incontinence, saddle anaesthesia and mild bilateral leg weakness. Which method of imaging would you recommend as most appropriate?
a. plain radiography
b. myelogram
c. CT
d. CT myelogram
e. MRI
e. MRI
Bilateral lower limb involvement suggests a myelopathy rather than a radiculopathy. The presence of urinary and bowel symptoms and saddle anaesthesia suggests compression of lumbosacral nerve roots. This complex of symptoms is cauda equina syndrome and is considered an orthopaedic emergency because of the likelihood of permanent neurological impairment, particularly affecting the autonomic supply to the bladder or bowel, which can result in permanent incontinence if surgery is delayed. The Royal College of Radiologists recommends proceeding straight to MRI in patients who have ‘red flag’ signs.
(Ped) 15) Of the following findings on a cervical spine radiograph in a 10- year-old child, which is abnormal in the context of a traumatic injury?
a. anterior wedging of the C3 vertebral body
b. anterolisthesis in flexion at C2–3
c. prevertebral soft-tissue thickness of 15 mm at C6
d. predental space of 6 mm in flexion
e. predental space of 3 mm in neutral
d. predental space of 6 mm in flexion
The maximum predental space is 2.5–3 mm in an adult and 5 mm in a child. Any widening suggests injury to the alar ligamentous complex in the context of trauma.
Other causes of widening are Down’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, neurofibromatosis and osteogenesis imperfecta.
Anterior wedging of C3 and pseudosubluxation at C2–3 and C3–4 are within normal limits in children.
Additionally, prevertebral soft tissues can be greater than in the adult, certainly up to 100% of the anteroposterior dimension of the vertebral body at the C6 level.
16) A 46-year-old female presents with back pain and increasing weakness of the lower limbs. An MR scan shows a lesion in the cord at the level of T11. Which of the following features would suggest an ependymoma rather than demyelination?
a. multiple lesions
b. expansion of the cord
c. high signal on T2W images
d. enhancement with gadolinium
e. peripheral low signal on all sequences
b. expansion of the cord
Ependymomas are the commonest tumour of the spinal cord in adults, accounting for 40–60% of cord tumours. They present with a long history of pain, and sensory or motor disturbance. Less commonly, bladder and bowel dysfunction may occur. Expansion of the cord is more often seen with ependymomas than with demyelination.
Both lesions may enhance and have high signal on T2W images, but multiplicity is more often seen with demyelination.
Peripheral low signal, usually indicating haemosiderin, is not a feature of either of these lesions.
(MSK) 18) In a patient who presents with acute femoral nerve radiculopathy, which of the following MRI sequences is the most useful in the diagnosis of a far lateral upper lumbar vertebral disc protrusion?
a. sagittal STIR
b. sagittal T1
c. sagittal T2
d. axial STIR
e. axial T2
e. axial T2
The far lateral disc protrusion is the least common type of symptomatic disc herniation. It distinguishes itself from the posterolateral herniation in that the disc ruptures outside the spinal canal, lateral to the root foramen. The disc, instead of tethering the traversing nerve root, compresses the more rostral nerve root that has already exited the root foramen. The neurological symptoms therefore correspond to a lesion at the upper disc level, often leading to confusion in the diagnosis. It is also difficult to diagnose radiologically, as the far lateral location isusually not detected on the sagittal images but only on axial images. STIR is an inversion recovery sequence that suppresses fat and so highlights areas of increased fluid. However, it is not sensitive when the herniation is outside the fluid-filled spinal canal; therefore, the T2W gradient echo sequence is better at detecting far lateral disc herniation.
(MSK) 26) On plain radiographs of the neck in a 60-year-old man, which feature is most likely to support a diagnosis of diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis rather than ankylosing spondylitis?
a. enthesopathy
b. confluent intervertebral bony bridging
c. sparing of the posterior elements
d. sparing of the sacroiliac joints
e. changes limited to the thoracic spine
d. sparing of the sacroiliac joints
Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH) is an ankylosing disorder of the spine.
It is most commonly seen in the thoracic region but may involve cervical and lumbar regions.
Diagnostic criteria are of flowing calcification along the anterolateral border of at least four vertebral bodies, relative preservation of intervertebral disc height, and absence of sacroiliac joint or apophyseal involvement.
These three criteria aid differentiation of spondylosis deformans, intervertebral osteochondromatosis and ankylosing spondylitis respectively.
Extra-spinal manifestations of DISH include Achilles tendinosis, tennis elbow, calcaneal and olecranon enthesopathy and dysphagia.
Whiskering is seen radiographically at tendinous insertions, particularly of the pelvis.
(MSK) 27) A lumbar spinal MRI is performed on a young man of south-east Asian origin for back pain and pyrexia of unknown origin. It reveals an anterior paraspinal soft-tissue mass at levels L1 to L3 centred at the L2–3 intervertebral disc. It is located deep to and displaces the anterior longitudinal ligament, and extends into the left psoas muscle. The mass returns intermediate signal on T1W images and high signal on T2W images. There are oedematous changes in the adjacent vertebral bodies, but the intervertebral discs are spared. What is the most likely infectious organism?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Actinomyces
c. HIV
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Aspergillus fumigatus
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
The musculoskeletal system is affected in only 1–3% of tuberculous infections, but the spine is the most common skeletal location affected, accounting for 50% of musculoskeletal tuberculosis.
Tuberculous spondylitis (or Pott’s disease) can result in significant neurological sequelae.
A history of pulmonary infection may or may not be present.
The infection usually begins in the anterior vertebral body via haematogenous spread.
The intervertebral discs are frequently involved, and the loose internal structure of the disc allows the infection to disseminate more widely, often resulting in paraspinal or psoas abscess.
Calcification within the abscess is very specific for tuberculosis.
The disease process often leads to vertebral collapse with gibbous deformity and obliteration of the disc space. However, elevation of the anterior ligaments by subligamentous abscess allows tracking superiorly and inferiorly, and classically spares the disc.
Tuberculosis characteristically results in little reactive sclerosis or periosteal reaction, which helps to distinguish it from pyogenic infections.
(MSK) 31) Plain radiographs of the spine in a 40-year-old man performed following a road traffic collision reveal a slightly expanded midthoracic vertebral body with coarse vertical trabeculations. Subsequent CT shows a ‘polka-dot’ appearance to the same vertebral body in the axial plane. What is the most likely disorder affecting the vertebra?
a. aneurysmal bone cyst
b. osteoid osteoma
c. haemangioma
d. compression fracture
e. osteopoikilosis
c. haemangioma
Metastatic disease, myeloma and lymphoma are the most common malignant spinal tumours, and haemangioma is the most common benign tumour of the spine.
The appearances described are characteristic of a vertebral haemangioma. On MRI, these lesions typically appear of mottled low-to-high signal on T1W images depending on the degree of fat present, and of very high signal on T2W images.
Other primary osseous lesions of the spine are more unusual but may exhibit characteristic imaging features that can help develop a differential diagnosis.
Radiological evaluation of a patient who presents with osseous vertebral lesions often includes radiography, CT and MRI. The complex anatomy of the vertebrae means that CT is more useful than conventional radiography for evaluating lesion location and assessing bone destruction.
The diagnosis of spinal tumours is based on patient age, topographic features of the tumour and lesion pattern as seen on imaging.
45) A 21 year old presents with back pain, increasing over time. There are no neurological symptoms. A radiograph of the lumbar spine shows a grade II spondylolisthesis at L5–S1. Which of the following features would suggest the presence of bilateral spondylolysis as the cause?
a. narrowing of AP diameter of spinal canal at L5–S1
b. widening of AP diameter of spinal canal at L5–S1
c. lucencies through the laminae of L5
d. sclerosis of the pedicles of L5
e. reduced height of the L5–S1 disc
b. widening of AP diameter of spinal canal at L5–S1
Spondylolysis (pars defect) is seen in 3–7% of the population, with 50% being symptomatic.
L5 is the most commonly affected level.
There are fractures through the pars interarticularis, which may be unilateral or bilateral.
Spondylolisthesis can occur only when pars defects are bilateral.
The AP diameter of the canal is widened, as the vertebral body and pedicles are detached from the posterior elements and migrate anteriorly.
Narrowing of the canal is seen with other causes of spondylolisthesis, particularly degenerative causes.
Sclerosis of one pedicle is seen with unilateral pars defects, as the contralateral pedicle undergoes reactive sclerosis due to excessive stress.
(MSK) 36) A 40-year-old man falls down the stairs and remains unconscious for several hours. On admission to hospital, he is found to have bilateral upper limb weakness, patchy sensory loss, full power in the lower limbs and a normal level of consciousness. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine and CT of the brain are normal. On MRI of the cervical spine, there is a small area of oedema identified within the cord. Clinical symptoms persist for 4 days following injury. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. central cord syndrome
b. anterior cord syndrome
c. SCIWORA (spinal cord injury without radiological abnormality)
d. spinal shock
e. Brown-Se’quard syndrome
a. central cord syndrome
In trauma, an incomplete spinal cord injury is one in which there is any degree of sparing of motor or sensory function distal to the site of injury, whereas complete cord injury results in complete lack of neurological function distal to the injury.
The diagnosis can be made only in the absence of spinal shock, a transient spinal cord concussion.
Central cord syndrome is the most common incomplete injury, and is associated with hyperextension injury in middle-aged patients; injury to centrally located grey matter in the cord causes a greater motor neurological deficit in the upper than in the lower extremities. Sensory involvement can be variable, and bowel and bladder function may be affected.
Anterior cord syndrome, caused by anterior spinal vascular insufficiency, causes complete motor paralysis with sparing of the posterior columns.
SCIWORA is seen in children, when the elastic cervical spine deforms sufficiently to cause cord injury but without any radiological findings.
Brown-Se´quard syndrome results from hemitransection and causes ipsilateral muscle paralysis and contralateral hyperaesthesia to pain and temperature.
(MSK) 43) A middle-aged male patient who has previously undergone partial discectomy for radiculopathy, has a lumbar spine MRI due to a recurrence of his symptoms. T1W images show a low-signal area of tissue contiguous with the previously operated intervertebral disc and impinging upon the adjacent exiting nerve root. Which single additional finding favours a diagnosis of postoperative fibrosis over recurrent disc protrusion?
a. high signal on STIR sequence
b. enhancement with intravenous gadolinium
c. evolution at 6-month serial imaging
d. oedema in the surrounding bone
e. low signal on T2W images
b. enhancement with intravenous gadolinium
In MRI of the spine in postoperative discectomy patients with recurrent or persistent radiculopathy, a T1W sequence with intravenous gadolinium enhancement is added to distinguish between postoperative epidural fibrosis (or scarring) and recurrent disc herniation.
Both can have similar, low-signal appearances on unenhanced T1W and T2W images, but fibrosis will show enhancement with gadolinium whereas recurrent disc prolapse will not.
Difficulties arise where both conditions exist concurrently, and fibrosis that is not causing nerve root irritation may also enhance.
The importance of distinguishing between the two is that surgical treatment is indicated for recurrent disc herniation but is of no value in treating postoperative fibrosis, also known as failed back syndrome.
(MSK) 37) Vertebral sclerosis confined to the upper and lower endplates with preservation of the intervertebral disc space (‘rugger jersey spine’), is seen most commonly with which underlying condition?
a. osteoporosis
b. discitis
c. mucopolysaccharidosis
d. Paget’s disease
e. renal osteodystrophy
e. renal osteodystrophy
The ‘rugger jersey spine’ appearance refers to sclerotic bands along the superior and inferior endplates of the thoracic and lumbar vertebral bodies.
These bands represent accumulation of excess osteoid and result in a striped appearance of the vertebral bodies.
Despite being poorly mineralized, the accumulated osteoid appears opaque on plain radiographs because of its increased volume compared with that of normal bone.
The ‘rugger jersey spine’ is said to be almost pathognomonic for the osteosclerosis seen with the secondary hyperparathyroidism of chronic renal failure.
Renal osteodystrophy is a term for the constellation of musculoskeletal abnormalities occurring with chronic renal failure.
Osteoporosis and Paget’s disease are more likely to affect the whole of the vertebrae diffusely.
Discitis usually causes a reduction in the intervertebral disc space on radiographs, with indistinct endplates.
The mucopolysaccharidoses result in anterior vertebral body beaking rather than sclerosis.
59) A 47-year-old female presents with gradual onset back pain over 4 weeks, with associated pyrexia and tenderness at the thoracolumbar junction. Radiographs show destruction of the endplates at the T12–L1 disc level. Which of the following features on further imaging would suggest tuberculous over pyogenic discitis as a cause?
a. single-level involvement
b. paravertebral, soft-tissue mass
c. epidural abscess
d. disc-space loss
e. calcification
e. calcification
Tuberculous discitis tends to occur in children and adults around the age of 50 years.
It most commonly affects T12–L1, compared with pyogenic discitis, which tends to occur more distally.
Tuberculous discitis often affects more than one level contiguously.
Paravertebral masses and epidural abscesses are seen as complications in all types of discitis, but calcification within an abscess is virtually diagnostic for tuberculosis.
Disc-space loss is also seen in all types of discitis, although it tends to be better preserved with tuberculous infection.