Spirochetes and Miscellaneous Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Helically coiled bacteria transmitted through arthropod bites (e.g. lice, ticks)

A

Borrelia spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Borrelia spp. are ________ bacteria transmitted through arthropod bites (e.g. lice, ticks).

A

Helically coiled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How are Borrelia spp. transmitted?

A

Through arthropod bites (e.g. lice, ticks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

These are flexible organisms resembling a stretched spiral

A

Borrelia spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Borrelia spp. are flexible organisms resembling a _______.

A

Stretched Spiral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

________ is the causative agent of Louse-Borne Relapsing Fever.

A

Borrelia recurrentis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Borrelia recurrentis is the causative agent of _____.

A

Louse-Borne Relapsing Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vector of Louse-Borne Relapsing Fever

A

Human louse (pediculus humanus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The scientific name of human louse is _____.

A

Pediculus humanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Symptoms of Louse-Borne Relapsing Fever

A

High fever, muscle and bone pain, confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

________ is the causative agent of Tick-Borne Relapsing Fever.

A

Borrelia hermsii or Borrelia parkeri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Borrelia hermsii or Borrelia parkeri is the causative agent of _______.

A

Tick-Borne Relapsing Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vector of Tick-Borne Relapsing Fever

A

Ornithodoras ticks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

________ is the causative agent of Lyme Disease.

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi is the causative agent of ________.

A

Lyme Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vector of Lyme Disease

A

Ixoda Ticks and Deer Ticks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lyme Disease has how many stages?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Stage 1 of Lyme Disease

A

Presence of erythema chronicum migrans (lesion; bull’s eye rashes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Erythema chronicum migrans resemble _______.

A

bull’s eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which Stage of Lyme Disease?

Appearance of lesion; Erythema chronicum migrans (bull’s eye rashes)

A

Stage 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Stage 2 of Lyme Disease

A

Dissemination through blood, bones, CNS, heart, and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which Stage of Lyme Disease?

Dissemination through blood, bones, CNS, heart, and liver

A

Stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Stage 3 of Lyme Disease

A

Neurological abnormalities, arthritis and skin lesion (chronic stage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which Stage of Lyme Disease?

Neurological abnormalities, arthritis and skin lesion (chronic stage)

A

Stage 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Culture for Borrelia spp.

A
  • Kelly’s medium
  • Barbour-Stoenner Kelly’s (BSK)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Borrelia spp. can also be detected through ________.

A

Serological tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Serological test for Borrelia spp.

A
  • ELISA
  • Western Blot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Golden standard for the serological identification of Borrelia spp.

A

Western Blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A serological test used to identify the DNA

A

Western Blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A serological test used to identify the RNA

A

Northern Blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Western blot is used for the identification of _____.

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Northern blot is used for the identification of _____.

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tightly twisted organisms resembling a cork screw

A

Treponema spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treponema spp. are tightly twisted organisms resembling a ______.

A

Cork Screw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

________ is the causative agent of Venereal Syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum is the causative agent of _______.

A

Venereal Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Other terms for Venereal Syphilis

A
  • Great pox
  • Evil pox
  • French/Italian pox
  • Spanish disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mode of transmission for Venereal Syphilis

A
  • Sexual
  • Direct
  • Transplacental
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Syphilis in newborns is called _____.

A

Congenital Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

____ is seen once the baby is born.

A

Congenital Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the manifestations seen in Congenital Syphilis?

A

Hutchinsonian Triad
* Notched teeth
* Keratitis
* Eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What do you call the group of manifestations seen in Congenital Syphilis?

A

Hutchinsonian Triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Venereal Syphilis has how many stages?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Stages of Venereal Syphilis

A
  • Primary syphilis
  • Secondary syphilis
  • Latent syphilis
  • Tertiary syphilis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Primary syphilis

A

Presence of hard chancre (painless and firm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which Stage of Venereal Syphilis?

Presence of hard chancre that is painless and firm

A

Primary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Secondary syphilis

A

Condylomata lata (wart-like lesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which Stage of Venereal Syphilis?

Presence of wart-like lesions called Condylomata lata

A

Secondary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Wart-like lesions seen in syphilis is called ______.

A

Condylomata lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Latent syphilis

A

Absence of clinical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which Stage of Venereal Syphilis?

Absence of clinical symptoms

A

Latent syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Tertiary syphilis

A

Presence of gummas, neurosyphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which Stage of Venereal Syphilis?

Presence of gummas, neurosyphilis

A

Tertiary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What kind of microscope is used in observing Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum during Direct Microscopic Examination?

A

Darkfield Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

________ can be used to identify Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum

A

Serological tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Heavy metals used for treating Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum

A

Arsenic, Arsphenamine, Salvarsan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Drug of Choice for Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A reaction wherein large quantities of toxins are released as the bacterium dies during treatment.

A

Jorisch-Herxheimer Reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which bacterium is associated with Jorisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

________ is the causative agent of Yaws

A

Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue is the causative agent of ________.

A

Yaws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A chronic non-venereal disease of skin and bones

A

Yaws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Mode of transmission for Yaws

A

Direct contact of traumatized skin with infected lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

________ causes non-venereal syphilis and endemic syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum subsp. endecume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Treponema pallidum subsp. endecume causes _____.

A

Non-venereal syphilis and Endemic syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

________ is the causative agent of Bejel

A

Treponema pallidum subsp. endecume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Treponema pallidum subsp. endecume is the causative agent of _____.

A

Bejel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Mode of transmission for Bejel

A

Mouth to mouth by utensils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A lesion in the oral cavity, oral mucosa, skin, bones and nasopharynx

A

Bejel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

________ is the causative agent of Pinta

A

Treponema carateum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Treponema carateum is the causative agent of _____.

A

Pinta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

An ulcerative skin disease

A

Pinta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Mode of transmission for Pinta

A

Direct contact of traumatized skin with infected tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Tightly twisted organisms with one or both ends bent into a hook

A

Leptospira spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A non-pathogenic species of Leptospira that is found in water and soil

A

Leptospira biflexa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

________ is the causative agent of Leptospirosis

A

Leptospira interrogans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Leptospira interrogans is the causative agent of _____.

A

Leptospirosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Leptospirosis is a ______ infection.

A

zoonotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Mode of transmission for Leptospirosis

A

Direct contact with urine of animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

____ is the severe form of Leptospirosis.

A

Weil’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Weil’s disease is associated with ______.

A

Leptospira interrogans serovar. icterohemorrhagiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Leptospira interrogans serovar. icterohemorrhagiae is associated with _____.

A

Weil’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Infectious jaundice is associated with ______.

A

Leptospira interrogans serovar. canicola

84
Q

Leptospira interrogans serovar. canicola is associated with _______.

A

Infectious jaundice

85
Q

Fo’rt Bragg or Pretibial Fever is associated with ______.

A

Leptospira interrogans serovar. autumnalis

86
Q

Leptospira interrogans serovar. autumnalis is associated with _______.

A

Fo’rt Bragg or Pretibial Fever

87
Q

Marsch Fever is associated with ______.

A

Leptospira interrogans serovar. grippotyphosa

88
Q

Leptospira interrogans serovar. grippotyphosa is associated with ______.

A

Marsch Fever

89
Q

7-Day Fever is associated with ______.

A

Leptospira interrogans serovar. hebdomadis

90
Q

Leptospira interrogans serovar. hebdomadis is associated with _____.

A

7-Day Fever

91
Q

Swine-herd’s Disease is associated with ______.

A

Leptospira interrogans serovar. mitis/pomona

92
Q

Leptospira interrogans serovar. mitis/pomona is associated with _____.

A

Swine-herd’s Disease

93
Q

Specimen for Leptospira spp.

A
  • Blood (first week)
  • Urine (second week)
94
Q

Culture media for Leptospira spp.

A
  • Elinghausen-McCullough-Johnson-Harris
  • Fletcher’s and Stuart’s
95
Q

______ is formerly known as Bedsonia

A

Chlamydia spp.

96
Q

Chlamydia spp. is formerly known as ______.

A

Bedsonia

97
Q

Chlamydia spp. are also known as _____.

A

“Large virus”

98
Q

“Large virus” pertains to _____.

A

Chlamydia spp.

99
Q

These are obligate intracellular organisms

A

Chlamydia spp.

100
Q

A unique feature of Chlamydia spp.

A

Elementary bodies

101
Q

Elementary bodies are ______.

A

Infectious particles

102
Q

________ is the causative agent of Psittacosis or Ornithosis

A

Chlamydia psittaci

103
Q

Chlamydia psittaci is the causative agent of _______.

A

Psittacosis or Ornithosis

104
Q

A disease of birds, parrots, parakeets, and cockatoos

A

Psittacosis or Ornithosis

105
Q

How is Psittacosis or Ornithosis transmitted?

A

Through the inhalation of contaminated aerosols or fomites

106
Q

It is associated with mild respiratory tract infections

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae

107
Q

Chlamydia pneumoniae is associated with ________.

A

Mild respiratory tract infections

108
Q

Chlamydia pneumoniae is also known as _____.

A

Taiwan Acute Respiratory (TWAR) Strain

109
Q

Which Chlamydia sp. is sexually transmitted?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

110
Q

Subtypes of Chlamydia trachomatis

A
  • A, B, Ba, C
  • D-K
  • L1, L2, L3
111
Q

________ causes Endemic Trachoma

A

Chlamydia trachomatis subtype A, B, Ba, C

112
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis subtype A, B, Ba, C causes _______.

A

Endemic Trachoma

113
Q

_____ leads to blindness.

A

Endemic Trachoma

114
Q

______ causes cervicitis, urethritis, pelvic inflammatory disease, epididymitis, and infant pneumonia

A

Chlamydia trachomatis subtype D-K

115
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis subtype D-K causes ________.

A

Cervicitis, urethritis, pelvic inflammatory disease, epididymitis, and infant pneumonia

116
Q

______ causes Lymphogranuloma Venereum

A

Chlamydia trachomatis subtype L1, L2, L3

117
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis subtype L1, L2, L3 causes _______.

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

118
Q

Culture for Chlamydia trachomatis

A

McCoy’s Cell

119
Q

A delayed hypersensitivity skin test for LGV

A

FREI’s Test

120
Q

FREI’s Test is associated with ______.

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

121
Q

They are known to be the smallest free-living organisms

A

Mycoplasma spp.

122
Q

Mycoplasma spp. are formerly known as ________.

A

Pleuropneumonia-like organisms (PPLOs)

123
Q

______ are formerly known as Pleuropneumonia-like Organisms (PPLOs)

A

Mycoplasma spp.

124
Q

________ causes Pleuropneumonia in cattles.

A

Mycoplasma spp.

125
Q

Mycoplasma spp. causes ________ in cattles.

A

Pleuropneumonia

126
Q

________ is also known as Eaton’s Agent

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

127
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is also known as ______.

A

Eaton’s Agent

128
Q

______ causes community-acquired pneumonia and tracheobronchitis in children and young adults.

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

129
Q

_______ causes primary atypical pneumonia or walking pneumonia.

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

130
Q

______ is a genital Mycoplasma

A

Mycoplasma hominis

131
Q

_____ causes Non-gonococcal Urethritis in males.

A

Mycoplasma hominis

132
Q

Mycoplasma hominis causes ______ in males.

A

Non-gonococcal urethritis

133
Q

______ is an agent of Salpingitis and Postpartal Fever in females.

A

Mycoplasma hominis

134
Q

Mycoplasma hominis is an agent of __________ in females.

A

Salpingitis and Postpartal Fever

135
Q

Inflammation in fallopian tubes

A

Salpingitis

136
Q

Culture for Mycoplasma spp.

A
  • Shepard’s
  • A7B
  • E-Agar
137
Q

Colonial appearance of Mycoplasma spp.

A

“Fried egg” colonies

138
Q

“Fried egg” colonies

A

Mycoplasma spp.

139
Q

Serologic test for Mycoplasma

A

Cold agglutinin

140
Q

A serological test that detects Anti-I

A

Cold agglutinin

141
Q

______ is associated with Cat-Scratch Disease

A

Afipia felis

142
Q

Afipia felis is associated with ______.

A

Cat-Scratch Disease

143
Q

Genera under Rickettsiae spp.

A
  • Rickettsia
  • Ehrlichia
  • Coxiella
  • Rochalimaea
144
Q

All genera under Rickettsiae are _____.

A

obligate intracellular

145
Q

How are Rickettsiae spp. transmitted?

A

Through vectors (lice, fleas, ticks)

146
Q

______ cannot survive outside animal host or insect vector

A

Coxiella spp.

147
Q

Coxiella spp. cannot survive outside animal host or insect vector EXCEPT ______.

A

Coxiella burnetti

148
Q

Spotted Fever Group

A

ACRONYM: ARCA
* Rickettsia australis
* Rickettsia rickettsii
* Rickettsia conorii
* Rickettsia akari

149
Q

Species: R. australis
Transmission: ?

A

Ticks

150
Q

Species: R. ricketsii
Transmission: ?

A

Ticks

151
Q

Species: R. conorii
Transmission: ?

A

Ticks

152
Q

Species: R. akari
Transmission: ?

A

Mites

153
Q

Species: R. australis
Infection: ?

A

Australian/Queensland Tick Typhus

154
Q

Species: ?
Infection: Australian/Queensland Tick Typhus

A

R. australis

155
Q

Species: R. ricketsii
Infection: ?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)

156
Q

Species: ?
Infection: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)

A

R. ricketsii

157
Q

Species: R. conorii
Infection: ?

A
  • Meditteranean & Israeli Spotted Fever
  • Indian Tick Typhus
  • Kenya Tick Typhus
158
Q

Species: ?
Infection:
* Meditteranean & Israeli Spotted Fever
* Indian Tick Typhus
* Kenya Tick Typhus

A

R. conorii

159
Q

Species: R. akari
Infection: ?

A

Rickettsial pox

160
Q

Species: ?
Infection: Rickettsial pox

A

R. akari

161
Q

Typhus Group

A
  • Rickettsia prowazekii
  • Rickettsia typhi
162
Q

Species: R. prowazekii
Transmission: ?

A

Lice, flying squirrels

163
Q

Species: R. typhi
Transmission: ?

A

Fleas

164
Q

Species: R. prowazekii
Infection: ?

A
  • Epidemic typhus
  • Sporadic typhus
  • Brill-Zinsser Disease
165
Q

Species: ?
Infection:
* Epidemic typhus
* Sporadic typhus
* Brill-Zinsser Disease

A

R. prowazekii

166
Q

Species: R. typhi
Infection: ?

A
  • Murine typhus
  • Endemic typhus
167
Q

Species: ?
Infection:
* Murine typhus
* Endemic typhus

A

R. typhi

168
Q

Scrub Typhus Group

A

Rickettsia (Orientia) tsutsugamushi

169
Q

Species: R. tsutsugamushi
Transmission: ?

A

Mites, chiggers

170
Q

Species: R. tsutsugamushi
Infection: ?

A

Scrub typhus

171
Q

Species: ?
Infection: Scrub typhus

A

R. tsutsugamushi

172
Q

Q Fever Group

A

Coxiella burnetti

173
Q

Species: C. burnetti
Transmission: ?

A

Ticks

174
Q

Species: C. burnetti
Infection: ?

A

Q fever

175
Q

Species: ?
Infection: Q fever

A

C. burnetti

176
Q

Ehrlichiosis Group

A
  • Erhlichia chaffeensis
  • Erhlichia phagocytophila
  • Erhlichia owingii
  • Neoricketssia sennetsu
177
Q

Species: E. chaffeensis
Transmission: ?

A

Ticks

178
Q

Species: E. phagocytophila
Transmission: ?

A

Ticks

179
Q

Species: E. owingii
Transmission: ?

A

Ticks

180
Q

Species: Neorickettsia sennetsu
Transmission: ?

A

Ticks

181
Q

Species: E. chaffeensis
Infection: ?

A

Human monocyte ehrlichiosis

182
Q

Species: ?
Infection: Human monocyte ehrlichiosis

A

E. chaffeensis

183
Q

Species: E. phagocytophila
Infection: ?

A

Human granulocyte ehrlichiosis

184
Q

Species: ?
Infection: Human granulocyte ehrlichiosis

A

E. phagocytophila

185
Q

Species: E. owingii
Infection: ?

A

Human granulocyte ehrlichiosis

186
Q

Species: ?
Infection: Human granulocyte ehrlichiosis

A

E. owingii

187
Q

Species: Neorickettsia sennetsu
Infection: ?

A

Sennetsu fever

188
Q

Species: ?
Infection: Sennetsu fever

A

Neorickettsia sennetsu

189
Q

Rochalimeae Group

A

Rochalimaea (Rickettsia) quintana

190
Q

Species: Rochalimaea quintana
Transmission: ?

A

Lice

191
Q

Species: Rochalimaea quintana
Infection: ?

A

Trench fever

192
Q

Species: ?
Infection: Trench fever

A

Rochalimaea quintana

193
Q

Organism: Bartonella quintana
Habitat: ?

A
  • Small rodents
  • Humans
194
Q

Organism: Bartonella quintana
MOT: ?

A
  • Human body
  • Louse
195
Q

Organism: Bartonella quintana
Infection: ?

A

Trench Fever

196
Q

Organism: Bartonella bacilliformis
Habitat: ?

A

Humans

197
Q

Organism: Bartonella bacilliformis
MOT: ?

A

Sand flies

198
Q

Organism: Bartonella bacilliformis
Infection: ?

A
  • Carrion’s disease
  • Oroya fever
199
Q

Organism: Bartonella henselae
Habitat: ?

A

Domesticated cats

200
Q

Organism: Bartonella henselae
MOT: ?

A
  • Bites or scratch from cats
  • Cat fleas
201
Q

Organism: Bartonella henselae
Infection: ?

A
  • Cat scratch disease
  • Peliosis hepatitis
202
Q

Organism: Bartonella clarridgeiae
Habitat: ?

A

Domesticated cats

203
Q

Organism: Bartonella clarridgeiae
MOT: ?

A

Bites or scratch from cats

204
Q

Organism: Bartonella clarridgeiae
Infection: ?

A
  • Bacteremia
  • Cat scratch disease
205
Q

Organism: Bartonella elizabethae
Habitat: ?

A

Rats

206
Q

Organism: Bartonella elizabethae
MOT: ?

A

Fleas

207
Q

Organism: Bartonella elizabethae
Infection: ?

A

Endocarditis