Spring 2024 (Exam III) Renal Assessment Flashcards
(134 cards)
1
Q
The kidneys sit retroperitoneal between _______ and _______.
Which kidney is slightly more caudal (lower) to accommodate the liver?
A
T12 and L4
Right
2
Q
What is the functional unit of the kidney and what are its components?
A
- Nephron
Glomerulus
Tubular system - Bowman capsule
- Proximal Tubule (PCT)
- Loop of Henle
- Distal Tubule (DCT)
- Collecting duct
3
Q
The kidneys receive ________% (range) of CO
The _____ _____ receives the majority of RBF (85-90%)
A
- 20% (1 L)
- Outer Layer
*LOH particularly vulnerable for developing necrosis in response to HoTN ((↓kidney perfusion)
4
Q
Besides the kidneys, what organ is retroperitoneal?
A
Spleen
5
Q
Primary functions of the kidneys (6 functions).
A
- Maintain extracellular volume and composition (RAAS and ANP)
- Blood Pressure Regulation (Intermed/Long)
- Excretion of Toxins and Metabolites
- Maintain Acid-Base Balance (excretion of HCO- and H+
- Hormone Production (Renin, Erythropoietin, Calcitrol, PGs)
- Blood glucose homeostasis (Gluconeogenesis and glucose reabsorption)
6
Q
Calcium requires ________ for adequate absorption and utilization.
A
Calcitriol (Active Vitamin D)
7
Q
How does Vitamin D get activated?
A
Through the kidneys
8
Q
What hormone will stimulate the release of Ca++ from the bones and which hormone promotes storage of Ca++?
A
PTH; Calcitonin
9
Q
____-% of body weight in non-obese patients is composed of water.
A
about 60%
10
Q
What are the two main fluid compartments?
A
ECF and ICF
11
Q
Per this lecture ECF is _______ the volume of TBW.
A
< 1/2 volume of TBW
12
Q
____ ____ is mainly mediated by osmolality-sensors in anterior hypothalamus
A
Osmolar homeostasis
13
Q
_____ _____ is mediated by juxtaglomerular apparatus
A
Volume homeostasis
14
Q
What are the ways osmolality sensors in the anterior hypothalamus regulate fluid?
A
- Stimulate thirst
- Release Vasopressin (ADH)
- Cardiac atria releases ANP→ act on kidney to ↓Na+/H20 reabsorption
15
Q
What are ways JGA regulates fluid?
A
- ↓Vol @ JGA triggers Renin-Angiotensinogen-Aldosterone system (RAAS)→Na+/H20 reabsorption
16
Q
What is a normal sodium level?
A
135-145 mEq/L
17
Q
There are no absolute cut offs for sodium level for surgery, but these numbers will be a good reference.
Na level below _________ mEq/L and above _______ mEq/L are a no go for surgery.
A
Below 125 mEq/L
Above 155 mEq/L
18
Q
What are some causes of hyponatremia?
A
- Prolonged sweating
- Vomiting/diarrhea
- Insufficient aldosterone secretion
- Excessive intake of water
- Burns
- Trauma
19
Q
What percent of people in the hospital have hyponatremia and why?
A
- 15%
- over fluid-resuscitation
- ↑endog vasopressin
20
Q
There are two patient populations where we are most concerned about sodium levels.
A
Neuro patients
Kids
21
Q
The most severe consequence of hyponatremia are these three things:
A
- Seizures
- Coma
- Death
22
Q
hypervolemic hyponatremia cause
A
ARF/CKD heart failure (majority)
23
Q
hypovolemic hyponatremia cause
A
generally due Na+/H20 loss (diuretics, gi loss, burns, trauma)
24
Q
euvolemic hyponatremia cause
A
salt restriction, endocrine related -Hypothyroid, SIADH (holding on to H20 >Na+)
25
26
What are treatments for hyponatremia?
* **Treat underlying causes **
* Normal Saline
* Hypertonic 3% Saline
* Lasix
* Mannitol
27
What is the correction rate when supplementing Na with 3% saline?
* Na+ correction should not exceed 1.5 meq/L/hr
* Dose: 80 mL/hr over 15h
28
Rapid correction of Na faster than 6 mEq/L in 24 hours can cause __________ syndrome.
What could this result in?
osmotic demyelination
Seizures, coma, death
29
What is the dose and rate of 3% hypertonic saline for patients that are hyponatremic and seizing?
* Medical Emergency
* 3-5 mL/kg of 3% saline
* Give dose of over 20 minutes until seizures resolve
30
Hyponatremic seizures are a medical emergency and can cause __________ brain damage.
Irreversible
31
What are the causes of hypernatremia?
* Excessive evaporation
* Poor oral intake(very young, old)
* Overcorrection of hyponatremia
* Diabetes Insipidus
* GI losses
* Excessive sodium bicarb to tx acidosis
32
Symptoms of hypernatremia
* Orthostasis
* Restlessness
* Lethargy
* Tremor/ Muscle Twitching/ spasticity
* Seizures
* Death
33
What is the recommended Na+ reduction rate and what are the side effects if reduced too quickly?
* ≤0.5 mmol/L/hr and ≤ 10 mmol/L per day
* Cerebral edema, seizures, and neurologic damage
34
Treatments for hypernatremia?
First, assess volume status (tachycardic, hypotensive, u/o, skin turgor, CVP, SV variation)
Then treat the cause.
35
Treatments for the following.
Hypernatremic Hypovolemia:
Hypernatremic Hypervolemia:
Hypernatremic Euvolemic:
Hypernatremic Hypovolemia: normal saline
Hypernatremic Hypervolemia: diuretic
Hypernatremic Euvolemic: water replacement (PO or D5W)
36
What is normal potassium level?
3.5 to 5 mEq/L
37
Patients will not go to surgery if potassium is less than ______ or greater than _______ mEq/L.
K+ less than 3 mEq/L
K+ greater than 5 mEq/L
38
What are the causes of hypokalemia?
Excessive release of aldosterone
Diuretics drugs (*Lasix, hydrochlorothiazide*)
Kidney disease
Excessive intake of licorice (**kids eating too much licorice.**)
DKA (frequent urination)
39
3 major categories for hypokalmeia cause
renal loss
GI loss
transcellular shift
40
s/s of hypokalemia
**Generally, cardiac and neuromuscular (K+ of 2mEq/L)**
Dysrhythmias (K+ of 2mEq/L)
Muscle weakness
Cramps (Eat a banana)
Paralysis
Illeus (lose parastalsis)
41
What changes in EKG will you see with hypokalemia?
**U-waves**
*You will see this on the exams and boards.*
42
Treatments for hypokalemia
* Treat the underlying cause
* PO > IV Potassium
*May require days to correct
Avoid excessive insulin, β-agonists, bicarb, hyperventilation, diuretics*
43
10 mEq of potassium will increase serum K+ by ________ mEq/L.
0.1 mEq/L
44
Why may PO potassium be faster in increasing serum potassium levels?
A larger dose can be given PO compared to 10-20 mEq/hr with IV.
45
When replacing potassium levels, what other electrolytes do you need to keep an eye on?
Phosphorus (normal levels 2.5 - 4.5 mg/dL)
46
Who are at the most risk of dysrhythmias when getting potassium replacement?
CHF patients
Digoxin patients
47
What are the causes of hyperkalemia?
Renal failure
Hypoaldosteroinism
Drugs that inhibit RAAS
Drugs that inhibit K-secretion
Use of depolarizing NMBD (Succs)
Acidosis (Resp./ Metabolic)
Cell Death (trauma, tourniquet)
Massive Blood Transfusion
48
With hyperventilation, a pH increase of 0.1 will cause a ____ in potassium.
0.4 to 1.5 mEq/L decrease in potassium
49
Succynlcholine will increase serum K by ______
about 0.5-1.0 mEq/ L
50
s/s hyperkalemia?
* Potentially asymptomatic
* GI upset
* Malaise
* Skeletal muscle paralysis, ↓fine motor
* Severe cardiac dysrhythmias (cardiac arrest)
51
What are EKG presentations of hyperkalemia?
Peaked T-waves (can progress into sine waves if hyperkalemia is severe)
* P wave disappearance
* Prolonged QRS
* sine waves
* Asystole
52
Treatment of hyperkalemia
* Dialyze within 24h prior to surgery (can also cause hypovolemia)
* Calcium- 1st initial treatment (quickly stabilize cell membrane)
* Hyperventilation (↑pH by 0.1 →↓K+ by 0.4-1.5 mmol/L)
* Insulin +/- glucose (10u IV: 25g D50) * works in 10-20 min
* Bicarb
* Loop Diuretics
* Kayexalate (hrs to days)
* *Avoid Succs, hypoventilation, LR & K+ containing IV fluids
53
What do CRNAs do that can cause hyperkalemia in a patient?
Massive Transfusion Protocol and Blood Products
54
How much Ca++ is in the ECF?
Only 1% body’s Ca++ is in ECF; 99% stored in bone
55
What is the normal range of iCa?
Normal iCa++: 1.2-1.38 mmol/L
56
How does alkalosis affect Ca++?
* ↑pH/Alkalosis→↑Ca++ binding to albumin;** therefore ↓iCa++**
57
What are the causes of hypocalcemia?
* ↓Parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion
* Complication of thyroid/PT surgery
* Magnesium deficiency
* Low Vit D or disorder of Vit D metabolism
* Renal failure (kidneys not responding to PTH)
* Massive blood transfusion (citrate preservative binds Ca++)
58
What is required for PTH production?
________ can lead to laryngospasms
* Magnesium
* Parathyroidectomy
59
The majority of patients with hypercalcemia have ____ or cancer
Hyper-parathyroid
60
Less common causes of hypercalcemia
* Vitamin D intoxication
* Milk-alkali syndrome (excessive GI Ca++ absorption)
* Granulomatous diseases (sarcoidosis
61
Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia
* Confusion, Lethargy
* Hypotonia/ ↓DTR
* Abd pain
* N/V
* Short QT-I
* Chronic ↑Ca++→ Hypercalciuria & nephrolithiasis
62
What are the causes of hypomagnesemia?
* Low dietary intake or absorption
* Renal Wasting
63
What are the signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?
* Muscle weakness
* Seizures
* Ventricular Dysrhythmias (Polymorphic Vtach/ Torsades)
64
What is the treament for hypomagnesemia?
* **depends on severity of sx**
* Slower infusions for less severe
* Torsade's/seizures→ 2g Mag Sulfate
65
What are the causes and S/S of Hypermagnesemia?
* Very uncommon
Generally due to over treatment
* Pre-eclampsia/Eclampsia
* Pheochromocytoma
Symptoms
* 4-5 mEq/L: Lethargy, N/V, Flushing
* >6 mEq/L: HoTN, ↓DTR
* >10 mEq/L: Paralysis, apnea, heart blocks, cardiac arrest
66
What is the treatment for Hypermagnesemia?
* Diuresis
* IV Calcium (stabalize cell membrane)
* Dialysis
67
What are lab tests for renal function?
**GFR (best measurement)** 125-140 ml/min
**Creatinine Clearance ** 110-140 mL/ min
**Serum Creatinine** 0.6-1.2mg/dL-
68
What is creatinine?
A substance produced by skeletal muscle and is a byproduct of creatine breakdown.
69
Creatinine production is constant and directly __________ to muscle mass.
proportional
*A emaciated individual will probably have a lower creatinine level compared to a bodybuilder. But if you see that a cachectic person has a high creatinine level, it might be a sign that the kidneys are not working well.*
70
Creatinine undergoes renal _________ but not _________, making it a useful indicator of GFR.
Creatinine undergoes renal **filtration** but not **reabsorption**, making it a useful indicator of GFR.
71
What are normal BUN ranges?
10-20 mg/dL
*BUN can be misleading. Diet and changes in intravascular volume can increase or decrease BUN.*
72
What is BUN: Creatinine ratio?
10:1
good measure of hydration status
73
What is the normal value for proteinuria and what would a high value indicate?
* <150 mg/ dL
> 750 mg/ dL could = glomerular injury or UTI
74
What is urine specific gravity?
comparing?
measures?
* 1.001-1.035
* Comparing 1ml urine to 1ml distilled water
* measures nephron’s ability to concentrate urine
75
What causes low BUN
Overhydration, too much hydration, dilution.
Decrease Urea production (malnutrition)
76
What causes a BUN of 20-40 mg/dL?
Dehydration
Increase Protein diet
GI bleed, trauma, muscle wasting
77
A medical condition characterized by abnormally high levels of nitrogen-containing compounds (such as urea, creatinine, and various body waste compounds) in the blood. It is largely related to insufficient or dysfunctional filtering of blood by the kidneys.
Azotemia
78
Oliguria definition.
Oliguria is decreased u/o **<500 mL in 24 hours**
79
What number indicates good urine output from an anesthesia standpoint?
30 mL/hr (no standardization for weight and no clinical picture)
**0.5-1 mL/kg/hr is more accurate**
80
What should we assess/ consider when determining volume status?
Look at the big picture
* H/P
* Orthostatic BPs
* ↓BE
* ↑Lactate
* Drop in UOP ** late sign**
81
What is an early indicator of volume change (arm just got cut off)?
-Base Excess or Base Deficits will indicate volume loss (Indicator of acid/base balance in the blood).
-Increase in Lactate
82
What are ways we can monitor volume?
* US to assess IVC
* CVP, RAP
* LAP, PCWP
* PAP
* Stroke Volume Variation (SVV)
83
_______ is a powerful stimulus for renal vasoconstriction.
Left atrial pressure (wedge pressure)
*Increase LAP, increase vasoconstriction. Afferent arteriole will increase to decrease hydrostatic pressure.*
84
What does stroke volume variation assess?
* Compares inspiratory v expiratory pressure
* Assumes pt is vented and in NSR
* Assumes sinus rhythm
85
An IVC greater than _______% collapse indicates a fluid deficit.
50%
To assess, place an ultrasound on IVC and perform a passive leg raise, if the quick change in volume dilates IVC, the patient may be in a fluid volume deficit.
86
What is acute renal failure?
* Deterioration of renal function over hours to days.
* Failure to excrete nitrogenous waste products or maintain fluid/ electrolyte homeostasis
*generally caused by hypotension, hypovolemia, and nephrotoxins (ie. IV contrast)
87
If someone with AKI progress to dialysis and MSOF, mortality is now greater than ________.
50% (due to sepsis, CV dysfunction, pulmonary compilations)
*Reversible with timely interventions. CVVHD to get through the temporary insult
88
What are the risk factors for AKI?
* **Pre-existing renal disease**
* Advanced age
* Congestive HF
* PVD
* DM
* Sepsis (hypotension)
* Jaundice
* Major Operative Procedures (Cross-Clamped)
* IV Contrast
89
Diagnostic threshold AKI lab and physical symptoms
**Labs**
↑SCr by 0.3 mg/dL within 48 h
↑SCr by 50% within 7 days
↓Creatinine clearance by 50%
Abrupt oliguria *although not always seen in AKI*
**Physical**
Asymptomatic
Malaise
HoTN
Hypovolemic or hypervolemic=
90
What are the types of AKI?
Pre-renal Azotemia
Renal Azotemia
Post-renal Azotemia
91
What are the causes of prerenal azotemia (ARF)?
Hemorrhage
GI fluid loss
Trauma
Surgery
Burns
Cardiogenic shock
Sepsis
Aortic clamping
Thromboembolism
Anesthesia meds+ volume/ blood loss → ↓RBF
**All these will decrease renal perfusion**
92
What are the causes of Renal Azotemia (ARF)?
Acute glomerulonephritis
Vasculitis
Interstitial nephritis
ATN
Contrast dye
Nephrotoxic drugs
Myoglobinuria
**Real kidney injury. Think infections and inflammation.**
93
What are the causes of postrenal azotemia (ARF)?
**Nephrolithiasis (kidney stones, most common cause)**
BPH
Clot retention
Bladder carcinoma
UTI- cellular debris
Trauma to the urinary tract
**Think mechanical obstruction post-kidney**
*Easiest to treat*
94
Pre-renal azotemia makes up _________ of hospitalized acquired cases.
If pre-renal azotemia is not treated in time, it will progress to _____.
* Half
* ATN (Pre-renal → Renal)
95
Treatment of pre-renal azotemia.
**Restore RBF**
* Fluids, Mannitol, Diuretics, maintain MAP, Pressors
96
What will be the BUN: Cr ratio of renal azotemia?
What happens to GFR?
What happens to Urea?
What happens to Creatinine?
Less than 15
GFR will decrease, and nothing will get filtered
Urea does not get reabsorbed->low BUN
Creatinine filtration decreases, leading to higher Cr in the blood.
97
Neurological complications from AKI
* Uremic Encephalopathy (improves with HD)
* Mobility Disorders
* Neuropathies
* Myopathies
* Seizures
* Stroke
*RElated to protein/ amino acid builid up in blood
98
List the order of incidence of **cardiovascular compilations** from AKI:
Order of incidence:
1. Systemic HTN
2. LVH
3. CHF
4. Ischemic heart disease
5. Anemic Heart Failure
6. Rhythm Disturbances
7. Pericarditis W/ WO effusion
8. Cardiac Tamponade/ Uremic Cardiomyopathy
99
Hematological complications of AKI
**Anemia**
* ↓ EPO production
* ↓ red cell production
* ↓ red cell survival
**Platelet dysfunction**
**vWF disrupted by uremia**
* Prophylactic DDAVP
* ↑VWF & Factor VIII to improve coagulation
100
Metabolic complications of AKI.
**Hyperkalemia**
Water and Sodium retention
Hypoalbuminemia - responds slower to medication
Metabolic Acidosis
101
Anesthesia concerns of AKI.
Correct what?
map where?
sodium bicarb does what?
* **Correct fluid, electrolytes, acid/base status**
* Volume- NS preffer for renal (no K+)
* Careful with colloids
* MAP W/I 20% of baseline
* Vasopresseors (Alpha-agonists, Vasopressin)
* Prophylactic sodium bicarb
- decreases the formation of free radicals and prevents ATN from causing renal failure
102
____ preferentially constricts the efferent arteriole better than ____ ____ for maintaining RBF.
Vasopressin; alpha agonists
103
What are anesthesia implications for a patient with an AKI
* Low threshold for invasive hemodynamic monitoring
* Prefer preopertaive HD
* Recent labs (esp. K+)
* Have POC equipment available
* Tailored drug dosing
* Avoid drugs w/ active metabolites and renal toxins or drugs that ↓RBF
104
Unlike AKI, CKD is ______ and __________.
What is the leading cause of CKD?
Progressive and Irreversible
**DM and HTN**
105
Describe stages of ESRD and GFR for each stage.
106
On average, GFR decreases by ______ per decade starting from age 20.
10
107
CV effects of CKD
lipid panel?
predisposed to ?
* **Systemic HTN** (cause and consequence)
- Retention of sodium and water
- Activation of RAAS
* **Dyslipidemia**
- Triglycerides > 500
- LDL > 100
* **Prediposed to "Silent MI"**
- Peripheral and autonomic neuropathy, sensation may be blunted
108
Which populations are a high risk for silent MI?
Women and Diabetics,CKD
109
What is the first line treatment for CKD induced systemic HTN?
* Thiazide Diuretics
*ACE-I/ ARBS may be needed as well
110
What are the hematological complications of CKD?
whats associated with transfusions?
give what for target hgb?
**Anemia**
- responsive to exogenous erythropoietin
- Target HGB 10
**Platelet Dysfunction**
**Transfusion Risk v Benefits**
- excess HGB leads to sluggish circulation
*Acidosis and hyperkalemia are also associated with blood transfusions*
111
What are the five indications of dialysis?
1. Volume overload
2. Severe Hyperkalemia
3. Metabolic Acidosis
4. Symptomatic Uremia
5. Medication Overdose d/t a failure to clear
112
Considerations of dialysis:
HD is more ______ than PD.
PD is more gradual and favored for patients that can't tolerate __________ associated with HD (CHF/unstable angina).
__________ is the most common adverse event.
_________ is the leading cause of death in dialysis patients.
HD is more **efficient** than PD.
PD is more gradual and favored for patients that can't tolerate **fluid shifts** associated with HD (poor cardiac function).
**Hypotension** is the most common adverse event.
**Infection** is the leading cause of death in dialysis patients (impaired immune system/ healing).
113
The risk of pre-renal azotemia is reduced by maintaining a MAP greater than _______ mmHg and providing appropriate hydration.
>65 mmHg
114
Vasopressin preferentially constricts the __________ arteriole. Maintains GFR and UOP better than NE or Neo.
efferent
115
Anesthesia concerns of CKD.
within 24 hrs need?
what type of bleeding?
Assess the stability of ESRD.
Get the accurate weight of the patient **within 24 hrs of surgery**
Well-controlled BP
Glucose management (A1c).
Aspiration Precaution (increase risk)
Pressors
Uremic bleeding (dysfunctional platelets)
116
What are treatments of uremic bleeding?
Max effect time:
Duration:
**DDAVP - max effect 2-4 hours, last 6-8 hours, give this in pre-op**
Cryo (Factor VIII, vWF)
117
What are som lipid insoluble drugs?
* Thiazide/ Loop diuretics
* Digoxin
* Many abx
118
What neuromuscular blockers are not dependent on the kidneys?
Atracurium
Cisatracurium
*Hoffman elimination- plasma esterases affected by pH and temperature.*
119
When taking care of renal patients, what medications do we worry about having active metabolite?
Opioids (morphine, meperidine)
*Morphine is cleared through the urine, active morphine metabolite will lead to respiratory depression.*
120
Lipid insoluble drugs will have a _________ duration of action in renal patients.
prolonged duration
*Eliminated unchanged in urine and dosing should be dependant on GFR
121
What induction medications are excreted by the kidneys?
Phenobarbital
Thiopental
122
What muscle relaxants are excreted by the kidneys?
Pancuronium
Vecuronium
*If kidneys do not excrete them, the liver will.*
123
What cholinesterase inhibitors are excreted by the kidneys?
Edrophonium
Neostigmine
124
What CV drugs are excreted by the kidneys?
Atropine
Digoxin
Glycopyrrolate
Hydralazine
Milrinone
125
What antimicrobials are excreted by the kidneys?
**Vancomycin**
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
PCN
126
Patients maintained on dialysis should undergo dialysis _______ hours preceding elective surgery.
24 hours
127
What is the concern when giving Sugammadex?
* It covalently binds to NMB but if it is not excreted, it could dissociate and both drugs could be bioavailable in the patient
128
____ of morphine in cleared through the urine
Main concern for Morphine with CKD patients?
* 40%
* circulating active metabolites --> life-threatening respiratory depression
129
What is the main adverse effect for Meperidine (Demerol)?
Active metabolite Normeperidine --> Neurotoxicity
-nervousness, tremors, muscle twitches, seizures
130
Normal creatinine clearance (range): _________
110-140 mL/min
131
These drugs undergo hepatic metabolism and conjugation prior to elimination in the urine (Select all that apply).
A. Pavulon
B. Benzos
C. Opioids
D. Anectine
A, B, and C
Anectine (Sch) is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase
132
What is the ideal volatile agent for renal patients?
Forane (Isoflurane)
133
Which kidney is lower?
The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney.
134
What is the normal range for BUN and serum creatinine?
10-20 mg/ dL and 0.6-1.3 mg/ dL
