SPV Questions Flashcards
(107 cards)
1
Q
What does TO/GA AFDS command when engaged for takeoff?
A
The AFDS commands pitch attitude in the following order:
• 15° nose up after lift-off until a sufficient climb rate is acquired.
Then, pitch is commanded to maintain MCP speed plus 20 kts.
2
Q
What does the AFDS pitch command if an engine failure occurs at or after lift-off?
A
At lift-off:
• If an engine failure occurs on the ground, the pitch command target speed at lift-off is V2 or airspeed at lift-off, whichever is greater.
After lift-off:
• If an engine failure occurs, the pitch command target speed is:
- V2, if airspeed is below V2.
- Existing speed if airspeed is between V2 and V2 + 20.
- V2 + 20, if airspeed is above V2 + 20.
3
Q
When below 2,000 ft RA, what N1 will the A/T command with one push of either TO/GA switch?
A
Thrust advances toward the reduced go-around N1 to produce 1000 to 2000 fpm rate of climb.
4
Q
What N1 will the A/T command with a second push of the TO/GA switch?
A
The A/T advances to the full go-around N1 limit.
5
Q
During a go-around, what airspeed will be commanded after pushing either TO/GA switch?
A
The command airspeed cursor automatically moves to a target airspeed for the existing flap position based on maximum takeoff weight calculations.
6
Q
During a go-around, what changes in the MCP pitch mode if you engage the autopilot?
A
TO/GA terminates, and LVL CHG engages.
7
Q
During Approach, how do you exit the APP (VOR/LOC & G/S captured) mode?
A
• Pushing a TO/GA switch
• Disengaging A/P and Turning off both F/D switches (without having one engaged)
• Retuning a VHF NAV receiver
8
Q
What does white “A/T LIM” indication mean on Thrust Mode Display?
A
The FMC is not providing the A/T system with N1 limit values. The A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the related EEC.
9
Q
What does a flashing “8” or “A” mean on IAS/MACH window?
A
The overspeed “8” or underspeed “A” limiting symbol appears when the commanded speed cannot be reached.
10
Q
In which MCP pitch mode are SPD INTV and ALT INTV available?
A
VNAV
11
Q
In order to arm VNAV on the ground, what criteria must be met?
A
• A valid flight plan has been entered.
• Performance data has been entered and executed.
• Both flight director switches have been switched ON.
12
Q
On the ground with the VNAV armed prior to takeoff, at what altitude does the VNAV become active?
A
400 ft AGL
13
Q
During a VNAV PTH descent, what speed does the A/T hold?
A
Autothrottle holds idle but can command FMC SPD mode if ground speed becomes too low to maintain FMC vertical path.
14
Q
What is the importance of an amber FMC Alert light on Autopilot/Autothrottle Indicators Panel?
A
The light indicates an MCDU or Fuel alerting message is displayed in the MCDUs scratchpad. In the MAX, Fuel alerts will also be indicated on the Engine Display.
15
Q
What is the green rectangle around the pitch, roll and A/P status in the FMA?
A
Mode Change Highlight Symbol (green box) means the mode was engaged within the last 10 seconds.
16
Q
What is the best indication to ensure an Autopilot is engaged after selection?
A
FMA indicating a changeover from FD to CMD
17
Q
When in Autothrottle (A/T) Engaged Mode, what does “ARM” indicate on the FMA?
A
No autothrottle mode engaged. Thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the Pilot can set the thrust levers manually. Minimum speed protection provided.
18
Q
At what speed during takeoff roll does A/T mode change to “THR HLD”?
A
At 84 KIAS.
19
Q
When does automatic reduction to climb thrust occur when using the autothrottle for takeoff?
A
When reaching the selected thrust reduction altitude which is shown on the FMC MCDU TAKEOFF REF 2/2 page during preflight, or when the aircraft levels off in ALT HOLD or VNAV PTH.
20
Q
During cruise, you notice a BAT DISCHARGE light illuminated. When you check the battery voltage, what would you expect to see as normal?
A
22-30 volts
21
Q
How long can a fully charged battery/batteries provide standby power?
A
Single Battery: 30 minutes minimum
Dual Battery: 60 minutes minimum
22
Q
You receive a MASTER CAUTION/ELEC and notice a DRIVE light illuminated on the overhead panel. What has occurred and what should be your next course of action?
A
Integrated drive generator (IDG) low oil pressure caused by one of the following:
• ISG failure
• Engine shutdown
• IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature
• IDG disconnected through generator drive DISCONNECT switch
Carefully assess any related information. Reference the QRH for corrective action.
23
Q
Why does the QRH direct the generator drive DISCONNECT switch to be placed in the Disconnect position?
A
Disconnection reduces risk by preventing further generator drive damage.
24
Q
What does a SOURCE OFF light indicate?
A
No source has been manually selected to power the related transfer bus, or the manually selected source has been disconnected.
25
How is the transfer bus powered if the respective IDG is disconnected?
If the BUS TRANSFER switch is in the AUTO position, the source powering the opposite transfer bus automatically picks up the unpowered transfer bus through the bus tie breaker.
26
While in cruise flight, you receive a MASTER CAUTION/ELEC and notice a TR UNIT light illuminated on the overhead panel. What could have caused it?
• TR1 failed
or
• TR2 and TR3 failed
27
While in cruise flight, you receive a MASTER CAUTION/ELEC and the following lights on the overhead panel: TRANSFER BUS OFF (both), SOURCE OFF (both), and GEN OFF BUS (both). What provides power to essential systems immediately?
Standby power system:
• The AC standby bus is powered from the batteries via the static inverter.
• The DC standby bus, battery bus, hot battery bus, and switched hot battery bus are powered directly from the battery/batteries.
28
What does the STANDBY PWR OFF light indicate?
Illuminated (amber) – One or more of the following buses are unpowered:
• AC standby bus
• DC standby bus
• Battery bus
29
With a LOSS OF BOTH ENGINE DRIVEN GENERATORS, what other source of electrical power may be available?
As the only power source, the APU generator can meet electrical power requirements for all ground conditions and most flight conditions.
30
What considerations should you consider for starting the APU in flight following a LOSS OF BOTH ENGINE DRIVEN GENERATORS?
• APU start attempts are not recommended above 25,000 feet
• With both busses off, only one start attempt is recommended. Multiple start attempts reduce standby power capacity
31
If the APU generator is the only remaining source of AC power, can you continue to your destination?
Only if the destination airport is the nearest suitable airport to you, as directed by the AOM and QRH.
32
What fire protection do the cargo compartments have?
• The forward and aft cargo compartments each have smoke detectors in a dual loop configuration. Normally, both detection loops must sense smoke to cause an alert.
• ETOPS aircraft have a total fire suppression time of 195 minutes. This includes 180 minutes to land at an airport plus an additional 15 minutes.
• Non-ETOPS aircraft provide for a 60-minute diversion and a 15-minute reserve totaling 75 minutes of fire suppression.
33
Within how many minutes must you land after initial discharge of the cargo bay fire suppression system?
60 Minutes
(MAX8E/ -800E) – 180 Minutes Note: E indicates ETOPS equipped aircraft.
34
During a Cargo Fire Test, the Detector Fault light will illuminate under what condition?
If one or more detectors in the loop has failed.
35
What indications will you receive during a successful Cargo Fire test?
• Fire Warning bell sounds
• Both Master FIRE WARN lights will illuminate
• Extinguisher lights will illuminate
• FWD and AFT cargo fire illuminate when all detectors in selected loops respond to the fire test
• Cargo fire bottle DISCH light illuminates
36
During cruise, the Cargo Fire (FWD/ AFT) Warning light illuminates Red, Master Fire Warn lights illuminate and the fire warning bell sounds. What condition exists?
• At least one detector in each loop detects smoke
• With power failed in one loop, at least one detector on the remaining loop detects smoke
37
What indications will you receive that a cargo fire has been extinguished?
There is no indication in the cockpit.
38
On the ground during engine start and after the pushback Crew has been cleared off, they give you hand signals for an Engine Fire with no fire indications on the Flightdeck. What may be the actual condition?
You may have an Engine Tailpipe Fire.
39
What occurs if one of the two engine fire detection loops fail with the OVHT DET switch in NORMAL?
If one loop fails with the OVHT DET switch in NORMAL, that loop is automatically deselected and the remaining loop functions as a single loop detector. There is no flight deck indication of single loop failure.
40
What powers the engine overheat and fire detection? Extinguishing?
• Engine overheat and fire detection powered by the battery bus.
• Engine fire extinguishing powered by the hot battery bus.
41
When pressing the OVHT DET switch you notice the FAULT Light is illuminated. What may be the problem and how do you determine in which engine the fault occurred?
If the FAULT light illuminates, a detection loop is inoperative. The related ENGINE FIRE WARNING switch and ENG OVERHEAT light do not illuminate.
42
During a Cargo Fire Detection System Test, how can you determine if a loop is inoperative?
If a cargo fire warning light does not illuminate and the DETECTOR FAULT light does illuminate, a detection loop is inoperative.
43
What consideration, with regards to the landing gear, should be taken during execution of the Wheel Well Fire checklist in QRH NNC 8 Fire Protection following a wheel well fire warning?
• Landing gear speed limitations should be observed during this checklist.
44
In an ETOPS aircraft with an ARMED Cargo Fire switch what occurs when pushing the Cargo Fire Discharge switch?
The first extinguisher bottle discharges into the selected compartment and the timer set to discharge the second extinguisher bottle with a reduced metered flow.
45
What the significance of the small white bug on the PFD Airspeed Indicator during takeoff? Approach?
Takeoff = V2 + 15
Approach = -700: Vref+15
-800/8MAX: Vref+20
46
On takeoff, what is the minimum speed for flap retraction?
Normally, the initial flap retraction will be made at V2 + 20.
V2 + 15 is the minimum speed required for flap retraction except for a Flaps 1 takeoff. For a flaps 1 takeoff, begin flap retraction when reaching the flaps 1 maneuvering speed.
Limit bank angle to 15 degrees until reaching V2 + 15. For a flaps 1 takeoff, begin flap retraction when reaching flaps 1 maneuvering speed.
47
What does IAS DISAGREE alert indicate?
The Captain’s and First Officer’s airspeed indications disagree by more than 5 kt for 5 continuous seconds.
48
In an NG, what is the difference between a CDS MAINT alert and a CDS FAULT alert?
CDS MAINT (white)— A dispatchable CDS fault has occurred.
CDS FAULT (amber)— A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred.
49
What does a (NG) DSPLY SOURCE/ (MAX) DSPLY SOURCE 1 alert and the illumination of both EEC ALTN lights indicate? Which QRH Checklist should be used?
A DEU (NG) or DCU(MAX) has failed. Loss of the DEU/DCU results in a loss of signal to both EECs. The EEC ALTN lights illuminate, and each EEC reverts to the alternate mode.
The root cause loss of a DEU would lead to the selection of the DISPLAY SOURCE QRH checklist but either the DISPLAY SOURCE checklist or the EEC ALTERNATE MODE checklist will address the situation.
50
During flight below FL220 you observe a DSPLY SOURCE message on the primary flight display. Will the autopilot and/or flight director be affected?
Yes, below FL220 available autopilot modes and flight director commands will be affected depending on phase of flight and which autopilot is engaged.
Note: During the DISPLAY SOURCE QRH procedure you will be directed to select the opposite autopilot to regain full mode functions.
51
When VNAV is engaged when will VNAV automatically switch from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD?
When the airspeed exceeds the top of the VNAV Speed Band.
52
After performing the Immediate Action Items, QRC, and QRH for an Airspeed Unreliable, what resource would you go to that can help determine your pitch and thrust settings as you continue with the flight?
Refer to the Flight with Unreliable Airspeed table in the Performance Inflight chapter of the QRH.
53
What does the lower limit of the VNAV Speed Band in the PFD trigger?
Lower limit will trigger autothrottle wakeup.
54
During climb on the on the RAMBL6 from DAL departing runway 31L, ATC issues a climb and maintain 17,000’. How should you delete the hold down over NNOLN and XPRES?
Each selection of ALT INTV deletes the next altitude restriction if the MCP altitude is beyond the next altitude restriction.
Note: The use of the ALT INV Switch does not affect speed restrictions on the FMC LEGS page.
55
You are in VNAV cruise at FL380 100 miles from TOD and ATC issues a descent clearance to FL240. How would you initiate a descent?
The use of early descent is recommended for VNAV PATH descents prior to the TOD.
To initiate an early descent, use the following procedure.
1. Set the clearance altitude limit in the MCP.
2. Select the DES page.
3. Select the DES NOW> prompt (LSK 6R).
4. Press the EXEC function key. The MOD DES page changes to ACT and the descent is initiated.
56
What would happen if ALT INTV is used to initiate a descent greater than 50 miles from the TOD?
When initiating a cruise descent, the FMC calculates ECON speed for the new altitude. For example, ECON cruise Mach at FL 410 = 0.772. ECON cruise Mach at FL 310 = 0.648. Mach 0.648 is unacceptably slow at FL 410. CAUTION: A cruise descent may result in a new ECON speed that is unacceptably low for the current altitude. Avoid the use of a cruise descent for large changes in altitude.
57
Are there any additional considerations for the MAX regarding VNAV descents?
VNAV Descent Prediction Anomaly
• FMC performance predictions are periodically recalculated automatically to better account for changing environmental conditions. These performance prediction recalculations may result in additional computing time. As a result, an updated prediction could provide a new path when the aircraft is already in its descent phase.
• When this occurs, a 600 to 800 ft VNAV path discrepancy may result. Based on the prediction outcome, the aircraft can find itself below or above the idle descent path.
• If below the idle descent path, the FMC provides guidance to the enhanced Digital Flight Control System (DFCS) to command a 1,000 fpm descent until VNAV path intercept. If above the idle descent path, the FMC may find itself in late descent where the guidance mode pitch command switches to VNAV SPD. Flight Deck Crew intervention may be required to re-establish path tracking.
58
What does the illumination of a flashing IRS ALIGN light indicate?
Alignment cannot be completed due to IRS detection of:
- Significant difference between previous and entered positions or an unreasonable present position entry.
- No present position entry.
- Excessive motion of aircraft during the alignment period.
If two consecutive entries of the same position do not pass the second internal position test, the FAULT light will illuminate.
59
What are the costs/benefits of a derated thrust takeoff and climb?
Reduced thrust takeoffs lower EGT and extend engine life. They are used whenever performance limits and noise abatement procedures permit.
Use of derated climb thrust reduces engine maintenance costs but increases total trip fuel.
60
What speed does VNAV command at the all-engine acceleration height if the VNAV Climb page is not manually programmed and speed intervention is not selected?
With VNAV armed for the climb phase, VNAV commands acceleration to the following:
• Last MCP speed (V2) + 20 kt until acceleration height.
• The flap placard speed minus 5 kt.
• 230 kt or less, when leading-edge flaps are not fully retracted.
• 250 kt with flaps retracted.
• The active target speed.
• Waypoint speed constraints.
• The speed restriction associated with the origin airport, whichever is more restrictive.
61
You are on an arrival and given holding instructions due to weather at your destination. How does entering an EFC on the FMC HOLD page affect arrival fuel?
Entry of the EFC time will help optimize FMC performance computations. Computation of destination fuel assumes that departure from the holding fix will occur at the EFC time.
62
How does the FMC display Hold Available time?
Displays available holding time in hours + minutes remaining if destination is to be reached with planned fuel reserves as entered on PERF INIT page.
63
Your #1 fuel (wing) tank is inoperative, how would you determine how much fuel is in the tank?
The Captain must monitor any fueling operation requiring the use of Fuel Measuring Sticks to ensure the accuracy of readings according to MEL procedures.
64
Where can you locate the charts used for verifying fuel quantity when using Fuel Measuring Stick readings?
A careful review of the associated MEL will refer you to the Special Procedures section of the MEL.
65
When does a fuel LOW PRESSURE light cause the MASTER CAUTION light to illuminate?
• Two LOW PRESSURE lights illuminated in same tank illuminate MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights.
One LOW PRESSURE light causes MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights to illuminate on MASTER CAUTION light recall.
• With the CTR tank FUEL PUMP switches ON, continuous illumination of one or both (as installed) LOW PRESSURE light(s) for ten seconds illuminates MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights.
• With one CTR tank FUEL PUMP switch OFF, illumination of opposite CTR tank LOW PRESSURE light illuminates the MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights.
66
When does the fuel IMBAL indication illuminate?
Main tanks differ by more than 1000 lbs.
67
When changing the position of the crossfeed switch, what indication should you see with the light?
Blue light illuminates BRIGHT then DIM when moving the switch from Close to Open. Blue light illuminates BRIGHT then extinguishes when moving the switch from open to close.
68
When will the Fuel IMBAL alert extinguish?
Imbalance is reduced to 200 lbs.
69
With a Fuel IMBAL indication, what resource would you use to determine the type of documentation required?
FOM Event Reporting requirements
70
What are the primary reasons to avoid fuel imbalances?
Structural life of the airframe and landing gear, not for controllability.
71
What is the risk of routine fuel balancing when not near the imbalance limit?
Pilot errors and not identifying a fuel leak in a timely manner.
72
When does the Captain declare Minimum Fuel?
When it is determined that the landing will occur below the greater of the following quantities:
• 4,000 lbs of fuel onboard
• FAR RESERVE quantity listed on the dispatch release (Domestic)
• 30 FAR +10PCT quantities listed on the dispatch release (Flag)
73
When does the Captain declare Emergency Fuel?
When it is determined that a low fuel state requires immediate traffic priority. It is an explicit statement that priority handling by ATC is both required and expected.
74
What does the FUEL FLOW alert indicate (MAX)?
Engine fuel flow is abnormally high when compared to the FMC expected fuel flow. The message is displayed independently for each engine.
75
What does the illumination of the fuel FILTER BYPASS light indicate?
An impending or actual fuel filter bypass due to a contaminated filter.
76
What is the primary concern when the Fuel FILTER BYPASS light is illuminated?
Engine flameout may occur.
77
What does the INSUFFICIENT FUEL alert on the engine display and the MCDU scratchpad indicate in the MAX? How would NG aircraft display?
FMC fuel at the destination is predicted to be less than 2,000 lb. NG aircraft only display INSUFFICIENT FUEL as a scratchpad message in the MCDU
78
What are considered GPWS “radio altitude-based alerts?”
• Excessive Descent Rate.
• Excessive Terrain Closure Rate.
• Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around.
• Unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration.
• Excessive deviation below an ILS glideslope.
79
Additionally, how does the (E)GPWS provide “lookahead terrain alerts?”
Using an internal world-wide terrain database.
80
What condition will inhibit a terrain alert?
An actual windshear warning (aircraft in windshear).
81
Can terrain and weather radar show together on a display?
No. If one pilot selects terrain and the other pilot selects weather radar, each display updates on alternating sweeps.
82
What conditions inhibit TCAS alerts?
GPWS and windshear warnings.
83
What must an aircraft be equipped with to allow Resolution Advisories?
Mode C transponder.
84
Why should TCAS be placed in TA ONLY when performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine?
To prevent receiving RAs beyond the aircraft’s capabilities.
85
GPWS windshear alerts are enabled below what altitude?
1,500 ft RA. GPWS Windshear detection begins at rotation.
86
When does the weather radar automatically begin scanning for windshear
(-700) Thrust levers set for takeoff, even if engine is off or IRS not aligned or in flight below 2,300 ft RA (predictive windshear alerts are issued below 1,200 ft RA).
(-800) Thrust levers set for takeoff or in flight below 1,800 ft RA (predictive windshear alerts are issued below 1,200 ft RA).
(MAX) Thrust levers set for takeoff, even if engine is off or IRS not aligned or in flight below 1800 RA (predictive windshear alerts are issued below 1,200 ft RA).
87
When are Predictive Windshear Cautions inhibited?
Between 80 kts and 400 ft RA
88
When are Predictive Windshear Warnings inhibited?
Between 100 kts and 50 ft RA
89
You are on final for a CAT III approach and the RVR is reported below minimums. What would you do?
Go-Around. A Look-See Approach is not authorized during CAT III approaches.
90
What HGS Mode(s) may be used during CAT II and SA CAT I approaches?
PRI, IMC or AIII (Unless AIII mode is specifically required on the Jepp Approach plate).
91
During Taxi, what is required while performing Intensive Tasks when the visibility is reported below 4000 RVR or 3/4 miles?
Stop the aircraft and set the parking brake.
92
Prior to departure while reviewing your weather packet, you notice the forecast for your destination indicates a chance of thunderstorms and wind gusts greater than 20 knots. Is an alternate required?
Yes. Company requires an alternate be listed when your ETA, from one hour before to one hour after, and Thunderstorms or wind gusts greater than 20kts more than the steady state wind velocity.
93
When is a takeoff alternate required?
A takeoff alternate is required and must be shown in the Dispatch Release when the weather conditions at the departure airport are below non-HGS CAT I landing minimums.
94
What are the fuel requirements needed to complete a flight?
No aircraft will depart with less fuel than is required by the CFR. Each flight must be released with sufficient fuel to at least comply with the following:
• Fly to the airport to which it is dispatched. Note: This includes the fuel required to fly one instrument approach.
• Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport, where required, for the airport to which dispatched.
• Thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
95
What important limitation is associated with the Engine Anti-ice on the MAX?
AFM L (MAX) The use of engine anti-ice (EAI) when not in actual or anticipated icing conditions is prohibited.
Note: Failure to follow anti-ice procedures can result in engine cowl lip damage. Note: This limitation does not apply to any engine dispatched under Minimum Equipment List (MEL) 30-21-01B. This MEL locks the High-Pressure Shutoff Valve (HPSOV) in the closed position and eliminates the exposure of the engine inlet to high temperature 10th stage bleed air. This limitation applies to the other engine on the aircraft not operating under MEL 30-21-01B.
96
When is an overweight landing permitted?
An overweight landing is permissible in the following cases:
• An emergency
• Any condition or combination thereof, in which an expeditious landing would reduce exposure to the risk of additional problems that would result in a compromise of safety
• A Passenger or Crew Member needs immediate medical attention
• Any inflight interruption due to a non-normal situation (e.g., aircraft system, ATC restriction, company requirement) that prevents the flight from continuing to the dispatched destination.
97
If utilizing the max cooling procedure during taxi-in, unless directed by a supplemental or non-normal procedure, in what position is the FO required to place the engine bleed switches during the engine shutdown flow?
The engine bleed switches should be placed in the ON position during the engine shutdown flow.
98
When the autopilot is on and the flaps are extended where should the Pilot Flying’s hands and feet be positioned? What about the Pilot Monitoring?
(PF) - Prior to the final approach segment, position hands and feet on the aircraft controls when the autopilot is engaged and flaps are extended for maneuvering or approach.
(PM) - Prior to the final approach segment, position hands and feet to immediately assume control of the aircraft if circumstances warrant.
99
Who initiates the 1000ft callout on ALL approaches?
The PM initiates the 1000ft callout on all approaches.
100
Inside the RRM Model, Risk factors are anything that increases risk and decreases performance. What 3 categories are Risk Factors divided into?
Risk factors are split into three categories:
1. Task Loading
2. Additive Conditions
3. Crew Factors
101
Inside the RRM model what actions do you perform to improve operational effectiveness and reduce risk?
A - Assess
B - Balance
C – Communicate risk and intentions
D – Do and Debrief
102
What is the only way to verify that an MCP mode selection has occurred?
Proper annunciation on the FMA is the only way to verify that an MCP mode selection has occurred.
103
What are the authorized MCP modes for an LDA Approach with Glideslope? What about an LDA without Glideslope?
With Glideslope: VOR/ LOC and APP
Without Glideslope:
Roll- LNAV or VOR/LOC
Pitch- VNAV or V/S
104
You are at the gate in KMIA and dispatch informs you that the PWB will be unavailable due to a malfunction at the PWB data center. What resource do you have to acquire take off data?
If a component in the event of systems or component outages (e.g., Ops Suite not available, ACARS inoperative, internet connection not available, or PWB Data Center inoperative), the following PWB sources, in order, may be used:
1. AeroData cFDP app on the EFB communicating with the PWB Data Center
2. Dispatch app communicating with the PWB Data Center
3. Flight Suite app on the EFB
105
Where would you find instructions for using Flight Suite?
AOM 17.9.1
106
What are the limitations when using Flight Suite?
The use of Flight Suite for Takeoff is only authorized if:
• The Flight Deck Crew contacts the flight’s Dispatcher.
• The flight’s Dispatcher verifies that the PWB Data Center is either not operational or not available due to a technology issue between Southwest Airlines and the Data Center preventing the calculation of takeoff data.
Flight Suite for Takeoff is not authorized under any of the following conditions:
• Performance limiting MEL or any CDL
• Possibility of windshear
107
You are flying a straight in visual approach. In addition to the FMC, what are the general guidelines for energy management.
Straight-In Visuals
• 20 NM 5,000 AGL/250 kt
• 15 NM 3,000 AGL/250 kt
• 12 NM 2,000 AGL/250 kt
• In IFR weather, allow an extra 3 miles
• Remember to adjust the descent accordingly for navigation aids that are not co-located with the airport
Correct for aircraft weight at top of descent
