SPV Questions Flashcards
(100 cards)
0
Q
If a flow or checklist is preceded by a diamond symbol. It is only accomplished on the first flight of the day. (IE the first flight of the day using ______
A
Local Time
1
Q
ICAO requires all airlines to carry a copy of several different documents on board each airplane. All of these documents are _______ or mounted somewhere in the cockpit.
A
Cockpit forms (yellow book)
2
Q
To easily identify when an additional MEL is required, or may be required, a ______ at the top of the the MEL page alerts the crew.
A
Reverse Header
3
Q
The PWS advisory, caution, and warning alerts are inhibited during takeoff from
A
100 kts to 50ft AGL
4
Q
During the Safety & Power On Checklist, if battery voltage is less than 25.5V, a charging cycle of _____ minutes is
required
A
20 minutes
5
Q
The Configuration Deviation List (CDL) program allows for the dispatch of an aircraft with certain parts that may be
missing providing _____________________ are followed.
A
Performance Limitations
6
Q
During the Safety & Power On Checklist, before starting the APU, ensure an ______________________ is accomplished
A
Fire Test
7
Q
A ___________ placard is used for MEL/CDL items when a maintenance procedure requires repetitive action at a defined
frequency
A
Yellow
8
Q
The Flightdeck Preparation Flow should be accomplished on the first flight of the day, after a crew change or prior to
flights further than 162 NM from the nearest shoreline. This flow should also be accomplished if
________________________ or __________________________.
A
After Maintenance has been performed in the flight deck, or when the flight deck has been left unattended and not in view of the pilot
9
Q
Flight Attendants are responsible for reporting all cabin discrepancies not previously recorded to the flightdeck. The FA
will complete a Cabin Discrepancy Worksheet located in the __________________.
A
Cabin Book
10
Q
According to the DOT Tarmac Delay policy, an opportunity to deplane ONLY exists if the passengers onboard a delayed
aircraft are _________________________.
A
?
11
Q
(True or False) When a request is made to reopen a cabin door prior to departure, all doors will be disarmed.
A
True
12
Q
Referring to the SPAR matrix, are crews allowed to use Standard Thrust (FLEX) on a contaminated runway?
A
No
13
Q
A weight restricted flight is designated when the planned weight of the aircraft is within _______lbs. of any structural or inflight weight limitation. The flight crew will send an ACARS message of the actual FOB as soon as possible after fueling.
A
500 LBS
14
Q
If center tank fuel is not full on the A321, dispatch with more than ____ pounds of total fuel in both ACTs is prohibited,
unless directed by an MEL.
A
200 LBS
15
Q
Where are item service evaluations, aircraft modifications and equipment deactivation not covered by the MEL/CDL
located?
A
FDML
16
Q
The APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed. Maintenance action is
required within the next ____ hours of APU operation.
A
10 hours
17
Q
The actual altimeter setting must be > to ________ for the TPS to be valid
A
29.77
18
Q
Actual OAT must be < to __________ if Thrust/V-Speed data is used with MAX in the AT column.
A
29F/-2C
19
Q
The MTOW Suffix for takeoff on runway 15R indicates the MTOW is based on _____________________ +
_________________.
A
Max Landing weight + Fuel Burn
20
Q
The runway/flap-specific engine out minimum level off altitude displayed as MSL for runway 15R is _________ feet.
A
1020
21
Q
The fuel suffix “A” in the Weight and Balance Data Section indicates the source of data for the fuel is
A
Actual fuel when provided by the flight crew
22
Q
Approximately 10 minutes prior to planned departure and after ATC Route Verification is completed, ______________
before accomplishing the Before Start Flow.
A
Start APU, accomplish electronic release acceptance, accomplish fit for duty declaration
23
Q
The Before Pushback Flow is used to prepare for pushback and starting the engines. The triggers for the Pushback Flow
are __________ and __________.
A
After receiving the cabin ready notification and all doors are closed and armed
24
The Before Start Checklist states “PARK BRK….ON, Checked”. The Pilot Handbook requires the captain to reference the
_________________ whenever the PARK BRK is set ON or OFF.
Reference the triple indicator
25
Operate engines for at least ____ minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust to allow engine temperature to stabilize. The
warm-up can be reduced to a minimum of ____ minutes (workload permitting) if an engine has been shutdown for
__________ hours or less.
5 minutes, 3 minutes 1.5 hours
26
If an amber FAULT light appears in the ENG 1 (2) ANTI ICE pb, this would be an indication the position of the anti-icing
valve ____________________.
Is not in required position
27
A variance between the RLS Fuel and the fuel onboard is allowed. If the fuel onboard is Greater than RLS FUEL plus
FERRY fuel by more than _____ pounds or ____%, whichever is greater, then notify the dispatcher to correct the W&B.
500lbs or 1% whichever is greater
28
A supplemental procedure is a procedure used in lieu of a normal procedure in certain circumstances. Pilots may
accomplish the supplemental procedure from memory, by reviewing the procedure prior to its accomplishment, or
__________________________.
by reading the procedure during its accomplishment
29
(True or False) A5 powered aircraft have a fuel de-pulse feature that is initiated during engine auto start. If de-pulse
occurs during engine start, do not abort the start.
True
30
Do not attempt a 180° turn on a surface less than ______ feet wide (A319/320) or _______ feet wide (A321)
100 feet (319/320) or 105 feet (321)
31
Routine ECAM messages may occur as a result of normal procedures or operations and are not considered non-normal by
the manufacturer. Two routine ECAMs listed in the Pilot Handbook are ______________ and ________________.
Elec Gen 2 Off / Doors Cabin/Cargo
32
For a mechanical discrepancy after dispatch before takeoff, if the discrepancy is associated with an ECAM Message, the
crew must refer to the ECAM/MEL ________________________ to determine if “NO DISPATCH” or “NO TAKEOFF”
appear in the DISPATCH CONDITION column.
Cross reference appendix
33
Single engine taxi is the standard mode of taxi. To configure for single engine taxi, the ENG MODE Selector should be in
________, the Y ELEC PUMP is selected to _____ and GEN 2 is selected ________.
Ign/Start, On, Off
34
Before crossing an intersecting runway, scan the full length of the runway for potential conflicts and verbalize
“_____________________”.
Clear left/right
35
Crews should not takeoff if brake temperatures exceed ______ °C with brake fans on (or shortly after brake fans are used)
or ______ °C with brake fans off. If fans are not used for taxi, crews may depart with indicated brake temperatures less
than ______°C, as the reading will represent actual temperature.
150 C, 300C, 300C
36
For acceptable RVSM altimeter tolerances, ground check PFD 1 and PFD 2 with a known airport altitude within +/- ___
feet and altitude tolerance between PFD 1 and PFD 2 within ___ feet.
75 feet / 200 feet
37
If performing single-engine taxi, the Y ELEC PUMP must be selected OFF prior to the second engine start to allow what
action?
PTU to perform necessary self test
38
Total passenger count on the final weight and balance message is allowed to vary by ____ from the customer service
agent's count.
+/- 2 pax
39
On the ground after departing the gate, what requirements must be met before a cell phone may be used for operations?
Aircraft stopped and parking break set
40
All takeoffs performed by US Airways crews meet noise abatement criteria. For a “Normal Takeoff Profile”, climb thrust
is selected and acceleration is initiated at ________ feet AFL. For a “Noise Abatement Profile”, climb thrust is selected at
_________ feet AFL and acceleration is initiated at _______ feet AFL.
1000Ft AFL, 1500AFL, 3000AFL
41
Due to N1 fan blade flutter, IAE engines should not maintain prolonged thrust settings between __________ N1 while on
the ground. Asymmetric thrust can occur if the pilot incorrectly stabilizes thrust settings above 1.05 EPR.
61%-74% N1
42
The maximum 90° crosswind component for takeoff and landing is __________.
29 Gust 35
43
A FLEX temperature was not entered in the MCDU and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent during the
takeoff roll resulting in an ENG FLEX TEMP NOT SET message to appear on the ECAM. The crew should
___________.
Set TOGA thrust and continue the takeoff roll
44
The ailerons are normally controlled by ___________. If it fails, control is automatically transferred to __________.
ELAC 1, ELAC 2
45
The main factors that result in tail strikes during takeoff are _____________, _____________, ______________, or some
combination of the three.
Early Rotation, Over-rotation, Excessive pitch
46
The last waypoint that is common to both the SID and the associated EOSID is known as the __________________. After
this point, the courses for the SID and the EOSID begin to diverge.
Diversion Waypoint
47
During initial climb, with all engines operating, adjust the pitch attitude to follow the F/D commands. Engage the
autopilot by ________ feet AGL for all RNAV departures.
500' AGL
48
Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except
during climb and cruise when the temperature is below ______ °C SAT
-40 SAT
49
When making autoflight systems inputs (FMS or FCU), crews should C_________, A__________, M__________ and
I__________ if necessary.
Confirm, Activate, Monitor, Intervene
50
What are the Maximum Rate of climb speeds for an A319/320?
319/320 260 IAS/.76M
51
During a RVSM Flight Altimeter check, when initially established in cruise flight, at or above ________, crosscheck each
PFD altimeter and the standby altimeter. Record the results for use in contingency situations. The two (2) PFD altimeters
must agree within ________ feet at all times within RVSM airspace.
FL290 / 200ft
52
When above FL250, the pilot at the controls shall don an O2 mask when the other pilot at the controls leaves his
________. All pilots shall don their O2 masks with cabin altitude above ________ feet.
Seat / 10,000
53
Pressing the EMERGENCY pressure selector on the Crew Oxygen Mask creates an overpressure which eliminates
condensation and prevents smoke, smell or ashes from entering the mask. Overpressure supply is started automatically
when cabin altitude exceeds ________ feet.
30,000 feet
54
Periodic system checks are required throughout the flight. One recommended method is to perform a HEFOE (Hydraulic,
Electric, Fuel, Oxygen, Engine) check approximately ________ at or abeam the closest flight plan waypoint.
Every Hour
55
The Cargo Smoke DISCH pb is listed as a “Confirm” item under the non-normal methodology. _______ extinguisher
bottle supplies _______ nozzle in the forward compartment and _________ nozzles in the aft compartment.
One, One, Two
56
Make an INFO-ONLY discrepancy entry in the FDML for intermittent/temporary malfunctions that have been corrected.
If the malfunction has been previously written up in the FDML __________ (excluding this occurrence) in the past
______ days, do not add “INFO-ONLY” to the discrepancy section, and contact MOC.
Two or more times, 10 days
57
There is no requirement to correct a fuel imbalance inflight unless an ____________________ is displayed.
ECAM fuel advisory
58
When accomplishing non-normal procedures, the PF calls for the “_________________” in case of an ECAM Exception
or non-normal procedure that is not indicated by ECAM. The PF calls “__________________” in case of ECAM
procedures that are not ECAM Exceptions.
QRH, ECAM Action
59
Upon entering a holding pattern, the total fuel on board will be calculated every ___ minutes by the _____________.
15 minutes / First Officer
60
Do not pull circuit breakers to deactivate an item unless directed by the _______ or Maintenance Control.
MEL
61
The passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds what altitude?
14,000 feet
62
If severe turbulence is encountered, maintain turbulence airspeed. Turbulence airspeed for the A319/320 is
250 KTS below 20,000
| 275/.76 at or above 20,000
63
(True or False) All turbojet operators must assess landing performance based on actual conditions existing at the time of
arrival. This performance assessment is separate from the dispatcher's landing performance calculations at the time of
dispatch.
True
64
When a flight reports leaving an altitude, the PF maintains a descent rate consistent with ATC requirements and fuel
conservation procedures. Below 2500 feet on the radio altimeter, do not descend at a rate greater than ________ ft./min.
2000FPM
65
When selecting an altitude in the FCU that is below 10,000 feet, the ALT increment selector should be set to ___.
100
66
The PM's Descending Through 18,000 Feet Flow is _________________, ____________________ and
_____________________.
Seatbelts - ON
ECAM - Checked
MCDU - Set
67
The ____________ should be notified as soon as possible of a decision to divert to any airport other than the intended
destination
Dispatcher
68
The maximum holding airspeed 6000ft. and below is __________.
200 KTS
69
The Predictive Windshear System (PWS) will generate an ADVISORY, CAUTION or WARNING alert depending on the
__________ and not the relative strength of the windshear event.
Location
70
The aircraft is certified for an engine-out CAT III Single approach (fail passive) and autoland provided engine-out
procedures are completed prior to ___ feet AFL.
1000 Ft AFL
71
_________ is the standard flap setting for landing
Config 3
72
If “CAT 3 DUAL” is displayed in INOP SYS without any other failure being detected, change the AP in command. This
may allow the CAT 3 DUAL function to be recovered. If this procedure fails, cycle the ______ pbs to OFF and back to
ON one at a time.
FAC's
73
The AUTO LAND lights flash when excessive deviation occurs in LOC or GLIDE, both autopilots disengage, both
localizer transmitters or receivers fail, both G/S transmitters or receivers fail or the difference between RA indications is
greater than 15 feet. The warning flashes in LAND mode below ________.
200' RA
74
The minimum height for the use of the Autopilot during a Non-ILS Approach is _____, _____, or ______
DA, DDA, MDA
75
Maximum gear extension speed (VLO) is ________, maximum gear extended speed (VLE) is ________, and maximum
gear retraction speed (VLO) is ________
250, 280/.67, 220
76
A go-around is mandatory during a CAT II/III approach if the FMA does not display a _______________ below 350 feet
RA, the AUTOLAND warning light illuminates during the approach, or the FMA does not display ________ at
approximately 40 feet.
LAND, FLARE
77
In flight, the pilot monitoring (PM) will normally move the landing gear and flap controls upon command of the pilot
flying (PF). Prior to moving the landing gear or flap handle, the PM will check the ___________ to ensure that it is in the
normal operating range for the aircraft configuration.
Airspeed
78
When flying a VOR/NDB (if ADF installed) approach, the underlying raw data must be monitored during the approach.
Once established inbound on the approach, a missed approach must be executed if bearing deviation differs by more than
_______ from the inbound approach course (except for station passage).
.3
79
The “Stable, Target, Sink ___” callout at 500 ft. (auto callout- if installed) is not required on a non-ILS approach unless
“________” callout has been made above 500 feet.
Landing
80
Either pilot may make a go around callout. If the go around callout is made, the PF must _________________.
Execute a go around
81
At airports with a Final Approach Runway Occupancy Signal, whenever observing a pulsing PAPI, prior to 500 feet AGL
look for and visually acquire the traffic on the runway. If the PAPI is still pulsing by ____ feet AGL, contact ATC to
confirm landing clearance.
300
82
During a go-around, ensure NAV is engaged. Then, if the desired missed approach path cannot be flown in NAV or ATC
assigns a heading, utilize HDG. Maintain current heading until reaching ______ feet AFL.
400
83
Normally, during a go around above 1000 ft AFL, the best course of action is to initially move the thrust levers to the
TOGA detent and then return them to the CL detent when TOGA thrust is not required. This would be accomplished only
after verifying that _________________ was annunciated on the FMA.
MAN TOGA-SRS
84
Sufficient visual clues must exist to continue the approach below applicable minimums. If visual clues are subsequently
lost due to shallow fog, snow flurries or heavy precipitation, the pilot shall immediately initiate a ________________ and
fly the ______________________.
Go Around / Fly published missed
85
(True or False) On slippery runways, the predetermined deceleration may not be reached due to antiskid operation. In this
case, the green DECEL light will not illuminate. This does not indicate the autobrake is not working.
True
86
Landing with CONF 3 rather than CONF FULL will increase the normal landing roll by approximately ____ feet,
depending upon landing weight.
500 Feet
87
After landing, maintain up to maximum reverse thrust until the airspeed approaches ________ knots. Then start reducing
the reverse thrust so the reverse levers are moving down at a rate commensurate with the deceleration rate of the airplane.
Reverse idle should be reached by __________knots.
80kts / 60 kts
88
Acceptable autoland performance cannot be assured at weights above the certified ______________________.
Max Landing Weight
89
During an Automatic Roll Out, with one engine inoperative, the use of the remaining thrust reverser is permitted provided
____________________ and crosswind component is not more than ____ knots.
Not more than Idle reverse it used / 15 kts
90
The PM will monitor the pitch attitude on the PFD and call “Pitch” if pitch attitude reaches _____ degrees for the A319/
320 or ______ degrees for the A321.
10 degrees / 7.5 degrees
91
(True or False) If, during a go around, both thrust levers are set to TOGA detent after touchdown, the autopilots will
disengage.
False?
92
What is the trigger for the Captain's After Landing Flow?
After the aircraft clears the active runway
93
Single engine taxi is the standard mode of taxi. Run engines at IDLE for approximately ________ minutes to allow for
engine thermal stabilization before shutting down engine #2.
3 minutes
94
If the brake temperatures do not appear likely to exceed ____, do not utilize brake fans unless required to meet brake
temperature limitations for a subsequent takeoff.
500 degrees
95
As part of the First Officer's After Landing Flow, if the OAT is greater than _________, place the FLAPS Lever in the 1
detent during taxi and at gate to avoid “AIR L(R) WING LEAK” caution
38C/100F
96
If non-normal circumstances require operation of the APU, BAT 1 & 2 must remain ON to ensure ________
_________________.
Fire Protection
97
The captain will taxi the aircraft to the gate. If waiting for guideman, the aircraft may be turned on to the lead-in line, but
should not approach closer than approximately _________________________ from the parking position.
1 aircraft length
98
Contact Ops if ground power and/or air is available and not connected. The APU may remain ON only if
__________________ or _______________.
Ground power Inop / Ground air inop and is necessary for passenger comfort
99
The _________________________ is a confirm item on the ground.
Passenger door disarming lever
