Sr. Seminar Fall 2017 Flashcards
(241 cards)
1
Q
At birth, which of the following structures is nearest the size it will eventually attain in adulthood?
- Cranium (cranial vault)
- Mandible
- Clavicle
- Middle face
- Nasal capsule
A
1
2
Q
The greatest period of cranial growth occurs between:
- Birth and 5 years of age.
- 6 and 8 years of age.
- 10 and 12 years of age.
- l4 and l6 years of age.
A
1
3
Q
The cranial vault increases rapidly in size the first few years postnatally and completes approximately 90 per cent of its growth by 6 years of age. This is typical of which of the following types of tissues:
- Neural.
- Dental.
- Genital.
- Lymphoid.
- General (somatic)
A
1
4
Q
Genetic influences on physical growth of a child are:
- Apparent from examination of the parents.
- Apparent from examination of the siblings.
- Easily isolated by examination of the child. 85
- Not necessarily apparent from examination of the parents or the siblings.
A
4
5
Q
What is the relationship between the growth curves for lymphoid tissues (tonsils, neck nodes, adenoids) and sexual characteristics?
- Both curves slope upward in parallel form.
- Lymph tissues grow more slowly than genital tissues.
- Lymph tissues stop growing when genital tissues begin growing.
- Lymph tissues regress as genital tissues develop.
- These curves are not related.
A
4
6
Q
Which of the following tissues grows to 200 per cent of its normal adult mass during ages 6-12?
- Neural
- Genital
- Lymphoid
- General (skeletal, muscular)
A
3
7
Q
Enlarged tonsils in a 6-year-old child are, at age 12 or 14 most likely to be:
- Larger.
- Smaller.
- The same size.
- Purulent.
- Hyperemic.
A
2
8
Q
Following the growth rate curve typical for lymphoid tissue, tonsillar and adenoid tissue masses can be expected to show:
- Continuous growth throughout life.
- A rapid increase in size at the time of puberty.
- A decrease in size beginning in the circumpubertal period.
- A progressively decreasing rate of growth from birth to adulthood.
- No significant increase in size between 4 and l0 years of age.
A
3
9
Q
The period of rapid development of genital tissues is associated with which phase of general body growth?
- Progeria.
- Maturity.
- Infantile precocity.
- The pubertal growth spurt.
- The preadolescent plateau.
A
4
10
Q
Sexual development in girls occurs two years earlier than in boys because estrogen specifically promotes female sexual development.
- Both statement and reason are correct and related.
- Both statement and reason are correct but not related.
- The statement is correct but the reason is not.
- The is not correct but the reason is an accurate statement.
- Neither statement nor reason is correct.
A
2
11
Q
There is a differential between girls and boys with respect to the age at which the growth velocity reaches its peak. That difference is:
- Boys six months ahead of girls.
- Girls six months ahead of boys.
- Girls one year ahead of boys.
- Girls two years ahead of boys.
A
4
12
Q
A boy of chronologic age of nine years is l25 cm. in height. The mean for this age is 133.7l cm with a standard deviation of 5.49 cm. His skeletal age is assessed as eight years. This boy may be regarded as:
- Somewhat physically retarded but with potential to “catch up.”
- Severely physically retarded with little potential to “catch up.”
- Just at the right level.
- Destined to be a short-statured individual.
A
1
13
Q
An early prepubertal growth spurt indicates:
- A longer treatment time.
- A fast maturing child.
- A slow maturing child.
- Nothing of interest.
- An endocrine dysfunction, such as hyperthyroidism
A
2
14
Q
Which of the following statements are true regarding the prepubertal growth period?
a) The prepubertal growth period lasts approximately 2 years in girls and 3 years in boys
b) The prepubertal growth period begins around age 11 in girls and around age 13 in boys.
c) The timing of the prepubertal growth period is predictable
d) The prepubertal period is closely associated dental development.
e) The intensity of the prepubertal growth is greater in girls than boys.
f) The prepubertal growth period is not a good time to attempt modifying growth of the maxilla and/or mandible.
1. a, b
2. b, c
3. d, e
4. a, e
5. f
A
1
15
Q
Which of the following can give us information regarding the timing of the prepubertal growth spurt or pubertal growth period.
- hand/wrist film
- growth charts
- onset of menarche
- presence and type of facial hair in boys
- all of the above
A
5
16
Q
Which of the following factors will interfere with growth on a long-term basis:
a) Premature birth.
b) Poor nutrition.
c) Chronic disease.
d) Cardiac malformations (uncorrected).
e) Cleft palate.
1. a, b, e
2. a, b, d
3. b, c
4. b, c, d
5. All of the above
A
4
17
Q
Which of the following dental sequelae would be likely in a child with a history of generalized growth failure (“failure to thrive”) in the first six months of life:
a) Enamel hypoplasia.
b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
c) Retrusive mandible.
d) Retrusive maxilla.
e) Small permanent teeth.
1. a only
2. a, b, d
3. a, e
4. b, c
5. c, e
6. e only
A
1
18
Q
Which of the following methods is least accurate in determining the site of new bone deposition in laboratory animals:
- Implants.
- Radiographs.
- Alizarin stains.
- Tetracycline stains.
- Histochemical stains.
A
2
19
Q
Bone tissue grows by:
- Appositional growth.
- Interstitial growth.
- Osteoclastic activity.
- Proliferation of mesenchymal tissue.
A
1
20
Q
Interstitial growth occurs
- At the alveolar process
- At the chin point
- Posterior border of the mandible
- In condylar cartilage
A
4
21
Q
Bone tissue grows by:
- The “V” principle.
- Interstitial growth.
- Osteoclastic activity.
- Proliferation of endodermal tissue.
- Differentiation of cartilaginous tissue.
A
5
22
Q
Cartilage differs from bone in that cartilage increases in size by:
- apposition.
- sutural growth.
- interstitial growth.
- selective resorption.
- endosteal remodeling.
A
3
23
Q
Interstitial growth is observed at which of the following sites:
a) Spheno-occipital synchondrosis.
b) Maxillary tuberosity.
c) Mandibular condyle.
d) Zygomaticomaxillary suture.
e) Apex of an erupting premolar.
1. a, b
2. a, c
3. a, d
4. b, d
5. b, e
A
2
24
Q
Which of the following are sites of cartilaginous growth postnatally:
a) Spheno-occipital synchondrosis.
b) Mandibular condyle.
c) Frontomaxillary suture.
d) Nasal septum.
e) Alveolar process.
1. a, b
2. a, b, d
3. b, c, e
4. c, e
5. All of the above
A
2
25
In determining a patient's skeletal growth pattern, the most important factor is
1. diet.
2. habits.
3. Heredity.
3
26
What dimension of the face has reached the greatest percentage of its adult size at birth?
1. depth
2. height
3. width
4. all are the same
3
27
```
The sequence of completion of facial growth by planes
of space is:
1. Depth, width, height.
2. Height, depth, width.
3. Width, height, depth.
4. Depth, height, width.
5. Width, depth, height.
```
5
28
At birth, jaws are large enough to accommodate:
1. Primary incisors only.
2. All primary teeth, if they were to erupt simultaneously.
3. No teeth. The arches are long enough, but the ridges are too narrow.
2
29
The condyle of the mandible grows by:
1. Membrane bone growth.
2. Interstitial bone growth.
3. Appositional bone growth.
4. Proliferation of cartilage.
5. All of the above.
6. None of the above.
4
30
In the mandible, the main growth site is in the:
1. Gonial angle.
2. Condylar cartilage.
3. Posterior border of the ramus.
4. Inferior and lateral aspects of the body of the mandible.
2
31
Where is the principal site of vertical growth of the mandible?
1. condylar head
2. sigmoid notch
3. coronoid process
4. alveolar process
1
32
Growth at the mandibular condyle during puberty usually results in increases in
1. posterior facial height
2. maxillary arch length
3. mandibular intermolar width
4. upper anterior facial height
1
33
33. Cephalometric studies show that, on the average,
a) The mandible grows more slowly than the maxilla.
b) The maxilla, during growth, is translated in a downward and forward direction.
c) Cranial base growth determines mandibular growth.
d) Mandibular growth stops after maxillary growth.
1. a, b
2. b, c
3. b, d
4. c, d
3
34
A unilateral fracture of the mandibular condyle in a child:
1. Will not affect future mandibular growth.
2. Should always be subject to open reduction.
3. May result in asymmetrical mandibular growth.
4. Inhibits maxillary molar development.
5. Will cause hypertrophy of muscles of mastication on the affected side.
3
35
A patient's chin and mandible deviate to the right upon opening. Which of the following is a possible cause?
(a) hyperplasia of the right condyle.
(b) hyperplasia of the left condyle.
(c) ankylosis of the right condyle.
(d) ankylosis of the left condyle.
1. a or c
2. a or d
3. b or c
4. b or d
3
36
After age 6, the greatest increase in size of the mandible occurs:
1. At the symphysis.
2. Between the canines.
3. Along the lower border.
4. Distal to the first molars.
4
37
Arch length space for the eruption of permanent mandibular second and third molars is created by:
1. Apposition of the alveolar process.
2. Apposition of the anterior border of the ramus.
3. Resorption at the anterior border of the ramus.
4. Resorption at the posterior border of the ramus.
3
38
In development of the mandible, space for eruption of permanent molars is created by:
1. Rapid growth of mandibular crestal bone and resorption along the inferior border of the mandible.
2. Apposition along the inferior border of the mandible and resorption along the crest of the alveolar process.
3. Apposition at the anterior border of the ramus and resorption at the posterior border of the ramus.
4. Resorption at the anterior border of the ramus and apposition at the posterior border of the ramus.
5. Superior migration of the masseter muscle attachment and inferior migration of the internal pterygoid muscle attachment.
4
39
The second molar is located in the ramus of the mandible of a 6-year-old patient. When the patient reaches 12, the second molar is located in the body of the mandible. The body of the mandible increased in length to accommodate the second molar by:
1. Apposition of bone in the condyle.
2. Resorption of bone along the anterior surface of the ramus.
3. Apposition of bone on the alveolar margin and the lower surface of the body of the mandible.
4. Apposition of bone at the symphysis and the posterior surface of the ramus of the mandible.
2
40
After approximately 7 years of age, the mandible increases in size by
a) generalized deposition of bone on free surfaces of the mandible.
b) condylar growth.
c) interstitial growth.
d) growth on the posterior border of the ramus.
e) deposition of bone on the alveolar process.
1. a, b and e
2. a, c and d
3. b, c and d
4. b, d and e
5. c, d and e
4
41
A needle fragment embedded in the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible of a 6-year-old child would:
1. Soon become embedded more deeply as new bone covered it.
2. Soon become free in the soft tissue as resorption uncovered it.
3. Remain on the surface as the ramus was translated.
4. Stimulate formation of a bony protuberance at the site of the needle fragment.
2
42
Which of the following contributes principally to the increase in height of maxillary bones?
1. sutural growth
2. alveolar growth
3. apposition on the tuberosity
4. apposition on the anterior surface
2
43
In patients suffering from achondroplasia in which midfacial structures are most affected, one would expect to find which of the following malocclusions?
1. Class I
2. Class II
3. Class III
4. Group 5
3
44
At birth, the palate is relatively flat; in adults, it is vault-shaped. By which of the following does this change occur?
1. bone resorption in the palatal vault
2. growth of the maxillary sinuses
3. deposition of the alveolar crestal bone
4. bone deposition on the posterior wall of the maxillary tuberosity
3
45
How does mandibular growth in boys ordinarily compare with that in girls:
1. Is sustained over a longer period of time in girls.
2. Is sustained over a longer period of time in boys.
3. Occurs at the same chronologic age in both sexes.
4. Occurs two years earlier in boys than in girls.
2
46
One of the basic sex differences in facial growth during puberty is:
1. Greater vertical development of the female face.
2. Greater vertical development of the male face.
3. Greater overall growth in the posterior cranial base in the male.
2
47
The "V" principle of growth is best illustrated by the
1. Nasal septum.
2. Mandibular ramus.
3. Mandibular symphysis.
4. Spheno-occipital synchondrosis.
2
48
The downward and forward direction of facial growth results from:
1. Upward and backward growth of the maxillary sutures and the mandibular condyle.
2. Vertical eruption and mesial drift of the dentitions.
3. Interstitial growth in the maxilla and the mandible.
4. Epithelial induction at the growth centers.
1
49
There is more adolescent growth spurt of the maxilla than of the mandible because lymphoid tissue in the nasopharynx decreases at puberty.
1. Both statement and reason are correct and related.
2. Both statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
3. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT.
4. The statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement.
5. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct.
4
50
Basal bone differs from alveolar bone in its:
1. Function.
2. Osteocyte metabolism.
3. Total absence of osteocytes.
4. Histologic staining properties.
5. All of the above.
1
51
If a child's teeth do not form, this would primarily affect the growth of the:
1. Alveolar bone.
2. Whole face.
3. Mandible.
4. Maxilla.
1
52
Anodontia, diagnosed in a 5-year-old child, primarily affects the growth of the:
1. midface.
2. maxilla.
3. mandible.
4. alveolar bone.
5. midface and the mandible.
6. maxilla and the mandible.
7. cartilaginous nasal capsule.
4
53
A 5-year-old child, a victim of ectodermal dysplasia, has no permanent or primary teeth. When should dentures be constructed?
1. At age 7.
2. At age 12.
3. Immediately, but worn only for eating so growth is not constricted.
4. Immediately and worn regularly, because growth will not be constricted.
4
54
Patients with ectodermal dysplasia have had removable prostheses constructed during active growth to replace missing teeth. It has been observed that the dentures:
1. Restricted condylar development.
2. Restricted lateral bone growth.
3. Restricted jaw development.
4. Were not tolerated due to diminished salivary flow.
5. None of the above.
5
55
In a patient with anodontia, which of the following would be true of dental prosthetic treatment between the ages of 6 and 17 years?
1. Several dentures will be needed because growth in the intercanine region will cause the denture to become ill-fitting.
2. Several dentures will be needed because growth in the retromolar areas and the palatal vault will cause the denture to become ill-fitting.
3. Because, in the absence of teeth, there will be no growth of alveolar bone, the denture base will fit for 10 years or more.
4. Because the denture will restrict normal growth of the jaws, the dentures will probably need to be remade every year to permit growth.
2
56
Dental arch form is ultimately determined by the:
1. Facial type.
2. Angle classification.
3. Facial growth pattern.
4. Balance between facial and intraoral musculature.
2
57
Dental arch form is ultimately determined by:
1. Skeletal growth pattern.
2. Classification of malocclusion.
3. Facial type coupled with body type.
4. The functional relationship of posterior teeth.
5. Interaction of environmental influences on the genetic pattern.
5
58
The major etiologic factor responsible for Class II malocclusion is:
1. Sleeping habits.
2. Growth discrepancy.
3. Thumb and tongue habits.
4. Tooth-to-jaw size discrepancy.
2
59
The optimal time to employ an orthodontic appliance that takes advantage of growth is during
1. Late primary dentition.
2. Early mixed dentition.
3. Late mixed dentition.
4. Early permanent dentition.
3
60
In an individual whose mandible is growing forward less than it should, the mandibular incisors will probably be inclined:
1. Forward.
2. Backward.
3. Normally.
4. None of the above. There is little relationship between mandibular growth and incisor inclination.
1
61
Most Class II malocclusions can be prevented by:
1. Maintaining the integrity of the primary dentition.
2. Preventing deleterious habits (such as thumbsucking, lipbiting, etc.).
3. Breast feeding.
4. No known techniques.
5. 1, 2, and 3 above.
4
62
Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy are to be performed on a patient. This will affect his Class II malocclusion by:
a) removing inhibitors of mandibular growth, thus making the Class II worse.
b) removing inhibitors of mandibular growth, thus reducing the Class II.
c) eliminating mouth breathing, thus correcting the Class II.
d) changing the functional matrix of the tongue, thus stimulating mandibular growth.
1. a only
2. a and d
3. b and c only
4. b, c and d
5. None of the above
5
63
Dental development in a child, as measured by tooth and root formation, proceeds at a rate which is:
1. Independent on left and right sides of the mouth.
2. Independent of the degree of skeletal development.
3. Dependent on the degree of skeletal development.
4. Dependent on the duration of puberty.
2
64
In evaluating the state of dental development of a given child, it is important to consider that:
1. There is considerable disagreement among investigators on the chronology of tooth development.
2. Height and weight have a definite relation to the degree of tooth development.
3. The rate of tooth development in boys is considerably more advanced than in girls.
4. The rate of dental development remains unaffected by physical subnormality.
5. Discrepancies exist between chronologic and dental ages.
5
65
The chronologic age of a child is:
1. Closely related to his dental age.
2. Closely related to physiologic age.
3. Usually an accurate index of maturation.
4. Often independent of dental and skeletal ages.
4
66
The relationship between adequacy of dentition and speech proficiency is such that
1. if there are problems in dentition, there are likely to be problems in speech.
2. speech models may assume relative importance in certain cases, but normalcy of structure will dictate whether there will be normal speech skills.
3. studies of normal youngsters indicate relatively great variance in the development of speech skills.
4. All of the above.
5. None of the above.
3
67
Referral of a 6-year-old child with a speech problem to a speech pathologist is
1. needed only if the patient is having great difficulty in being understood.
2. not particularly important until the child reaches the ages of 10.
3. not needed if a myofunctional therapist is a member of the dental team.
4. helpful because both patient and parents are likely to benefit from counseling.
4
68
The developmental cause of a cleft lip is failure of the:
1. Palatine processes to unite.
2. Maxillary processes to unite.
3. Maxillary process to unite with the frontonasal process.
4. Maxillary process to unite with the palatine process.
5. Palatine process to unite with the frontonasal process.
3
69
Speech problems associated with cleft palate are usually the result of
1. poor tongue control that produces lisping.
2. poor lip musculature or heavy scars in the lip that limit production of vowel sounds.
3. inability of the tongue to close air flow from the epiglottis.
4. inability of the soft palate to close air flow into the nasopharynx.
5. missing teeth that make formation of articulation sounds by the tongue difficult.
4
70
Cleft palate usually causes a speech problem due to
1. missing incisors.
2. crossbite and reduced tongue space.
3. inadequate velopharyngeal closure.
4. nasal obstruction.
3
71
Four year old untreated patients with a unilateral cleft lip and palate would most often present with
1. a posterior crossbite.
2. an anterior open bite.
3. the normal number of teeth.
4. maxillary protrusion.
1
72
Surgery on the hard palate of a 3-year-old cleft patient may inhibit growth centers, causing the facial profile to become
1. straight.
2. elongated.
3. shortened.
4. more convex.
5. more concave.
5
73
Radiographic examination of a child revealed several missing primary and permanent teeth. No teeth had been extracted. The history indicated practically no perspiration during hot, summer months. These facts would lead to a preliminary diagnosis of
1. achondroplasia.
2. ectodermal dysplasia.
3. osteogenesis imperfecta.
4. cleidocranial dysostosis.
2
74
In which of the following conditions is oligodontia a significant diagnostic characteristic?
1. Down's syndrome.
2. hypothyroidism.
3. ectodermal dysplasia.
4. cleidocranial dysostosis.
3
75
Cleidocranial dysostosis is characterized by
(a) defective clavicular development.
(b) affliction of individuals in preceding generations of the same family.
(c) delayed tooth eruption.
1. a and b
2. a and c
3. b and c
4. all of the above
5. none of the above
4
76
Cleidocranial dysostosis is of interest to the dentist because of:
1. premature loss of teeth.
2. concomitant micrognathia.
3. high incidence of clefts.
4. associated high caries index.
5. multiple supernumerary and unerupted teeth.
5
77
Which of the following is associated with the condition portrayed in Radiograph D?
1. odontodysplasia
2. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
3. amelogenesis imperfecta
4. cleidocranial dysplasia
4
78
One of the important signs for differential diagnosis of cleidocranial dysostosis and craniofacial dysostosis is the presence or absence of a pair of bones. The bones referred to are the:
1. nasals.
2. capitates.
3. clavicles.
4. trapezoids.
3
79
One of the radiographic characteristics of dentinogenesis imperfecta is
1. multiple supernumerary teeth.
2. multiple congenitally missing teeth.
3. accelerated development of permanent teeth.
4. reduction in size of the pulp chamber and root canal.
4
80
Which of the following characteristics most readily distinguishes amelogenesis imperfecta from dentinogenesis imperfecta?
1. radiographic appearance
2. hereditary background
3. presence of blue sclera
4. color of teeth
5. associated hair loss
1
81
A child four years of age has frequently broken bones and exhibits a blue sclera. Which of the following dental conditions is suggested?
1. oligodontia.
2. Turner's hypoplasia.
3. amelogenesis imperfecta.
4. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
5. enamel hypoplasia secondary to by rickets.
6. cleidocranial dysostosis
4
82
Radiographs of a patient's teeth reveal that the crowns are bulbous; the pulps, obliterated; and the roots, shortened. These findings are associated with which of the following?
1. porphyria
2. pierre Robin syndrome
3. amelogenesis imperfecta
4. osteogenesis imperfecta
5. erythroblastosis fetalis
4
83
The absence of pulp chambers is suggestive of
1. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
2. amelogenesis imperfecta.
3. cleidocranial dysostosis.
4. all of the above.
1
84
Dentinogenesis imperfecta differs from amelogenesis imperfecta in that the former is
1. a hereditary disturbance.
2. the result of excess fluoride ingestion.
3. characterized by a brown color of the enamel.
4. the result of faulty enamel matrix formation.
5. characterized by calcification of the pulp chambers and the root canals of the teeth.
5
85
Dentinogenesis imperfecta can usually be differentiated from amelogenesis imperfecta by
1. Obliteration of the pulp canals
2. Differences in color of the teeth
3. Normal color of the teeth
4. 1 and 2
4
86
A condition characterized by dull orange-brown teeth, absence of pulp canals and shortened roots would most likely be
1. hemosiderosis.
2. congenital porphyria.
3. osteogenesis imperfecta.
4. hereditary ectodermal dysplasia.
5. hereditary dentinogenesis imperfecta.
5
87
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is characterized by
(a) its hereditary nature.
(b) fluorosis.
(c) a brown discoloration of enamel.
(d) faulty enamel matrix formation.
(e) excessive calcification of pulp chambers and root canals.
1. a and b only
2. a, b and d
3. a, b and e
4. a and e only
5. a, c and e
6. c, d and e
4
88
A 4-year-old child has a normal complement of primary teeth, but they are gray and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates some extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. This condition is
1. neonatal hypoplasia.
2. amelogenesis imperfecta.
3. cleidocranial dysostosis.
4. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
4
89
At what stage of development of a tooth does dentinogenesis imperfecta occur?
1. Initiation
2. Proliferation
3. Histodifferentiation
4. Morphodifferentiation
5. Apposition
3
90
Some teeth appear to be clinically normal, but exhibit (1) globular dentin, (2) very early pulpal obliteration, (3) defective root formation, (4) periapical granulomas and cysts, and (5) premature exfoliation. The condition is known as which of the following?
1. shell teeth
2. dentin dysplasia
3. regional odontodysplasia
4. amelogenesis imperfecta
5. dentinogenesis imperfecta
2
91
The most common orofacial malformation producing malocclusion is
1. cleft palate.
2. ectodermal dysplasia.
3. Pierre Robin syndrome.
4. osteogenesis imperfecta.
5. cleidocranial dysostosis.
1
92
The incidence of cleft palate in the general population in the United States is approximately one in
1. 500 live births.
2. 800 live births.
3. 2,000 live births.
4. 4,000 live births.
2
93
The proposed mode of inheritance of cleft lip and palate is
1. multifactorial.
2. autosomal dominant.
3. autosomal recessive.
4. x-linked recessive.
1
94
A submucous cleft of the palate is best detected by
1. occlusal laminograph.
2. periapical laminograph.
3. cephalometric laminograph.
4. ultraviolet fiber optics.
5. palpation.
5
95
A cleft palate deformity occurs during which trimester of pregnancy?
1. first
2. second
3. third
1
96
A child in long term remission of acute leukemia has dental problems characterized by unusual susceptibility to
1. dental caries.
2. oral infection.
3. periodontal bone loss.
4. development of jaw deformities.
5. all of the above.
2
97
In a child patient with a suspected case of leukemia and with a badly infected primary tooth, the procedure of choice would be to
1. administer antibiotics and refer the patient to a physician.
2. obtain consultation before determining the course of action.
3. obtain a blood count, admit the child to a hospital for extraction.
4. provide palliative treatment only.
5. extract the tooth under local anesthetic and refer the patient to a physician.
2
98
An 8-year-old girl is admitted to the hospital for treatment of "swollen gums" of three week’s duration. Oral examination reveals markedly edematous and erythematous gingivae. Her parents state that the child has been well although, in the past month, some malaise, anorexia and occasional fever were noted. The most appropriate course of action is to
1. refer the child to a periodontist.
2. request a hematologic consultation.
3. scale and curette the affected areas and prescribe mild rinses.
4. prescribe a 10-day course of oral penicillin (1 million units per day)
5. enroll the child in an active prevention program that emphasizes adequate home care.
2
99
Treatment of severe intraoral infections in children differs from that in adults because
1. more children are allergic to penicillin than are adults.
2. the incidence of bleeding diathesis is greater in children than in adults.
3. leukocytopenia develops more frequently in children than in adults.
4. dehydration occurs more rapidly and severely in children than in adults.
4
100
Spread of odontogenic infection into the lymphatic chain of the neck is detected by
1. angiography.
2. laminography.
3. hematologic examination.
4. biopsy of the cervical region.
5. palpation of the cervical region.
6. radiographs of the cervical region.
5
101
A child with congenital heart disease requires special treatment planning for dental care because of potential problems with
(a) bleeding.
(b) local infection.
(c) systemic infection.
(d) enamel hypoplasia.
1. a only
2. a, b, and c
3. a and c only
4. c only
5. all of the above.
4
102
How is tooth development affected by severe congenital heart disease?
1. tooth development is delayed.
2. tooth development is advanced.
3. cyst formation is likely, but the effect is unpredictable.
4. development of posterior teeth is advanced; development of anterior teeth is delayed.
1
103
For a child sensitive to penicillin, with a history of rheumatic fever, premedication of choice prior to oral surgical procedures is
1. Gantrisin.
2. Erythromycin.
3. Terrastatin.
4. Sulfanilamide.
5. Buffered penicillin.
2
104
According to the American Heart Association, which of the following prophylactic antibiotic regimens is recommended for a 20-kg child who has congenital heart disease?
1. 1.0 gram amoxicillin one hour before the dental procedure and 500 mg orally 6 hours later
2. 1.0 gram penicillin V orally one hour before the dental procedure and 500 mg orally 6 hours later
3. 1.0 gram amoxicillin one hour before the dental procedure
4. 3.0 grams amoxicillin orally one hour before the dental procedure and 1.5 grams orally 6 hours later
3
105
An 11-year-old child is confined to a wheelchair. He has continuous involuntary movement of his head and extremities and difficulty in vocal communication. The most probable cause of his condition is
1. grand mal epilepsy.
2. muscular dystrophy.
3. ataxic cerebral palsy.
4. athetoid cerebral palsy.
4
106
An 11 year old child has continuous, involuntary movement of his head and extremities and difficulty in vocal communication. The condition described is most likely
1. autism.
2. muscular dystrophy
3. Parkinson's disease.
4. athetoid cerebral palsy.
4
107
A 12-year old child is 30 inches tall and has excellent body proportions. Laboratory studies are likely to reveal which of the following conditions?
1. hypothyroidism.
2. hypopituitarism.
3. malabsorption syndrome.
4. adrenogenital syndrome.
5. vitamin D dependent rickets
4
108
Delayed eruption of teeth is a characteristic sign of which of the following conditions?
1. hypothyroidism.
2. hyperthyroidism.
3. hypoparathyroidism.
4. hyperparathyroidism.
5. none of the above.
2
109
Prolonged retention of deciduous teeth is a characteristic sign of
1. hypothyroidism.
2. hyperthyroidism.
3. hypoparathyroidism.
4. hyperparathyroidism.
5. none of the above.
1
110
A disease of childhood that is characterized by mental retardation, delayed growth and delayed tooth eruption is associated with a deficiency of
1. thyroid hormone.
2. testicular hormone.
3. postpituitary hormone.
4. anterior pituitary growth hormone.
1
111
```
Examination of a mixed dentition malocclusion reveals an abnormal resorption pattern in primary teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, incompletely formed roots of permanent teeth and a large tongue. Which of the following etiologic factors is the probable cause of the condition?
1. hypothyroidism.
2. Addison disease.
3. Von Recklinghausen disease.
4. history of severe febrile disease
5 hyperthyroidism.
```
1
112
In a child, a combination of malnutrition, steatorrhea, chronic respiratory infections, thyroid deficiency, a great salt loss through the skin and functional disturbances in secretory mechanisms of various glands is indicative of
1. cystic fibrosis.
2. starch intolerance.
3. Pierre Robin syndrome.
4. immune deficiency syndrome.
5. hereditary fructose intolerance.
1
113
The etiology of Muscular dystrophy is
1. Genetic
2. Congenital
3. Acquired
4. Environmental
1
114
When treating a child patient with muscular dystrophy what could be a common complication seen in these patients
1. Cardiac arrhythmia
2. Kidney failure
3. Hypoxia
4. Anaphylaxis
1
115
Which of the following is a hereditary condition that can be effectively treated if an appropriate diet is instituted within the first 3 months of life?
1. phenylketonuria.
2. porphyria.
3. vitamin D-resistant rickets.
4. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
5. Hurler's syndrome
1
116
A serious complication that can develop as a result of juvenile diabetes mellitus is
1. ataxia.
2. aphasia.
3. deafness.
4. blindness.
5. motor paralysis.
4
117
The most difficult dental problem in the uncontrolled diabetic child is
1. malocclusion.
2. periodontal disease.
3. rampant dental caries.
4. delayed eruption pattern.
5. hypertrophy of the gingival tissues.
2
118
```
Breath odors are sometimes important in diagnosis. Which of the following cause bad breath?
(a) cleft lip
(b) draining fistula
(c) rhinitis
(d) cretinism
(e) recurrent herpes labialis
(f) diabetes mellitus
7
1. a, c, and d
2. a, d, and f
3. a, e, and f
4. b, c, and e
5. b, c, and f
6. b, d, and f
```
5
119
In a l0-year-old girl, a large radiolucent area was detected radiographically in the apical region of the permanent mandibular incisors which tested vital. The lesion was asymptomatic. Surgical exploration revealed a large, non-lined, hollow space containing a few cobweb-like fibers and a small pool of dark reddish fluid. A presumptive diagnosis for this condition would be
1. a ranula.
2. a central fibroma.
3. a chronic periapical abscess.
4. a traumatic or a hemorrhagic cyst.
5. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease.
4
120
An occluded submandibular duct is best demonstrated by
1. echograms.
2. sialograms.
3. occlusal radiographs.
4. cephalograms.
5. percussion.
2
121
Examination of a 14-year-old patient reveals a unilateral radiolucency (seen in Radiograph O). The lesion is asymptomatic. All teeth are vital. The LEAST likely diagnosis is
1. mandibular salivary gland depression
2. odontogenic keratocyst
3. simple (traumatic) bone cyst
4. central giant cell granuloma
1
122
Transillumination of soft tissues is useful in detecting which of the following problems in a child?
1. Koplik's spots
2. Sialolithiasis
3. Aortic stenosis
4. Sickle cell disease
5. Abnormal frenum attachment
6. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
2
123
A light bluish, dome-shaped lesion on the inside lip of a 2-year-old child is most likely a
1. mucocele.
2. melanoma.
3. hematoma.
4. hemangioma.
5. sucking callous.
1
124
Which of the following is the best treatment for a recurrent ranula?
1. cryosurgery
2. electrosurgery
3. marsupialization
4. sublingual gland excision
4
125
Which of the following does not have cervical lymphadenopathy associated with it
1. Tuberculosis
2. Cat scratch disease
3. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
4. Apthous stomatitis
4
126
An aphthous ulcer should be treated by
1. palliation and patience.
2. 50 mg. tetracycline q.i.d.
3. 125 mg. penicillin V q.i.d.
4. topical ethyl chloride spray.
5. topical application of Mycostatin q.i.d.
1
127
Vesicular lesions precede the formation of ulcers in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
1. herpangina
2. herpes zoster
3. herpetic stomatitis
4. aphthous stomatitis
5. hand-foot-and-mouth disease
4
128
Small, irregular, bright red spots on a child's buccal mucosa, with bluish-white specks in the centers, may be seen at the onset of
1. mumps.
2. herpes.
3. leukemia.
4. rubeola.
5. rubella.
4
129
Koplik spots are seen with
1. Rubella
2. Rubeola
3. Varicella
4. Primary herpes
2
130
Mothers acquiring _______ during the 1st trimester of pregnancy deliver children with a high incidence of birth defects
1. Rubella
2. Rubeola
3. Mumps
4. Shingles
1
131
The syndrome of geographic tongue should be treated by
1. split graft shaving.
2. deep lingual frenectomy.
3. excision of discrete lesions.
4. topical application of Nystatin.
5. penicillin therapy to relieve infection.
6. none of the above. No treatment is indicated.
6
132
A Nystatin rinse is effective in combating which of the following oral infections?
1. cellulitis
2. candidiasis
3. recurrent aphthous ulcers
4. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
5. none of the above
2
133
The most common cause of generalized acute gingival inflammation in a preschool child is
1. a vitamin B deficiency.
2. a vitamin C deficiency.
3. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis.
4. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
5. acute Streptococcus mutans gingivostomatitis.
3
134
A 2½-year-old child has an acute oral infection characterized by small reddish-yellow vesicles in the buccal mucosa and on the hard palate. The temperature is l02°F, the mouth is sore and the child will not eat or drink. The condition described is
1. moniliasis (candidiasis).
2. infantile impetigo.
3. acute herpetic stomatitis.
4. acute streptococcal infection.
5. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
6. none of the above.
3
135
For a patient with general acute herpetic stomatitis, the dentist should
1. refer the patient to a physician for treatment with diluted chickenpox vaccines.
2. debride the mouth, sustain oral hygiene and treat the elevated temperature.
3. use bacterial cultures to rule out acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
4. prescribe 300,000 units of penicillin orally.
2
136
Primary acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is characterized by
(a) fever
(b) diarrhea.
(c) ulcerations.
(d) sore mouth.
(e) fetid breath.
(f) lymphadenopathy.
1. a, b and c only
2. a, b, c and e
3. a, d and f
4. b, c, d and f
5. c, d, e and f
6. d, e and f only
7. all of the above
7
137
A 4-year-old girl complains of a sore mouth. She has painful cervical lymphadenitis and an oral temperature of 38°C. Oral examination reveals numerous yellow-gray lesions with red margins on her palate, tongue and gingiva. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
1. measles.
2. erythema multiforme.
3. herpetic gingivostomatitis.
4. acute ulceromembranous stomatitis.
5. necrotizing the ulcerative gingivitis
3
138
Primary herpetic lesions involving the gingiva are most likely to occur during ages
1. l-5 years.
2. 6-l2 years.
3. l3-l6 years.
4. They are equally likely to occur at any age.
1
139
Herpangina in children is caused by
1. HSV
2. EBV
3. Cocksackie virus
4. L-shaped bacteria
3
140
A 3½-year-old child has an acute fever, diarrhea, oral vesicular lesions and gingival tenderness. The most likely diagnosis is
1. thrush.
2. drug allergy.
3. aphthous ulcerations.
4. acute herpetic stomatitis.
5. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
4
141
With proper treatment, a child severely ill with acute herpetic gingivostomatitis may have as sequelae some months later
a) enamel hypoplasia
b) gingival clefts.
c) recurrent herpes labialis.
d) circulating anti-herpes antibodies.
1. a and b
2. a and c
3. a and d
4. b and c
5. b and d
6. c and d
6
142
Severe inflammation of the gingiva, fever and ragged ulcers of lips, tongue, facial mucosa and palate in a 4 year old child are characteristic of
1. impetigo.
2. Reiter's syndrome.
3. erythema multiforme.
4. herpetic gingivostomatitis.
4
143
Which of the following medications shortens the recovery period of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
1. aspirin.
2. penicillin.
3. Kenalog in Orabase.
4. none of the above
4
144
The virus that causes acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is closely related to the virus that causes:
1. mumps
2. measles
3. chickenpox
4. cat-scratch disease
3
145
A young boy, seen in Photograph Y, has a very sore mouth, general malaise, and an oral temperature of 102 degrees F. The MOST probable diagnosis is which of the following?
1. candidiasis
2. iron deficiency
3. median rhomboid glossitis
4. herpetic stomatitis
5. vitamin B deficiency
4
146
The first sign of dehydration in a child would usually be
1. Electrolyte imbalance
2. Shock
3. Arrhythmia
4. a thirsty and/or restless child
4
147
"Strawberry tongue" is an oral manifestation of
1. measles.
2. herpangina.
3. diphtheria.
4. scarlet fever.
4
148
1. administer oxygen.
2. inject a barbiturate.
3. wait until the episode passes.
4. inject epinephrine subcutaneously.
5. call the local emergency code for assistance.
3
149
Which of the following are directly attributable to teething?
(a) diarrhea.
(b) convulsions
(c) otitis media.
(d) increased susceptibility to infection
1. a, c, and d
2. b only
3. b and c
4. c only
5. none of the above
5
150
Which of the following are true of Down syndrome?
(a) low caries rate
(b) deficient midface
(c) also known as trisomy 21
(d) retarded eruption and delayed exfoliation of primary teeth
(e) periodontal disease higher than normal for any age group
1. a, b, and c only
2. a, b, d, and e
3. a, c, d, and e
4. b, c, and d only
5. b, c, d, and e
6. all of the above
6
151
Which of the following is the MOST common type of leukemia in children?
1. monocytic
2. granulocytic
3. Eosinophilic
4. lymphoblastic
4
152
A 13-year-old boy states that over the past two years, the right anterior portion of his mandible has grown slowly and progressively. The enlargement can be seen in Radiograph N. Which of the following diagnoses is the MOST likely?
1. osteosarcoma
2. proliferative periosteitis
3. fibrous dysplasia
4. florid osseous dysplasia
3
153
Dental development in a child, as measured by tooth and root formation, proceeds at a rate that is
(a) dependent on the duration of puberty.
(b) dependent on the degree of skeletal development.
(c) independent of the degree of skeletal development.
(d) independent on right and left sides of the mouth.
1. a and b
2. a and c
3. a and d
4. b and d
5. c and d
5
154
Dental age refers to the
1. state of dental maturation.
2. age at which a given tooth erupts.
3. time periods of an eruption potential.
4. number of years elapsed since a given tooth erupted.
1
155
Ectodermal cells are responsible for
1. alveolar bone.
2. periodontal tissue.
3. cementum formation.
4. determining shape of crown and root.
4
156
Variations in the number of teeth originate from an aberration during the developmental stage of
1. initiation.
2. apposition.
3. histodifferentiation.
4. morphodifferentiation.
1
157
Congenital absence of teeth results from an interruption in which phase of tooth growth?
1. initiation.
2. apposition.
3. histodifferentiation.
4. morphodifferentiation
1
158
Which of the following factors is most frequently responsible for congenital absence of teeth?
1. heredity.
2. an endocrine disturbance.
3. lack of space in the arches.
4. a calcium-phosphorus imbalance
1
159
The most common congenitally missing permanent teeth listed below are
1. Maxillary central and lateral incisors
2. Maxillary lateral incisors and mandibular second bicuspids
3. Mandibular lateral incisors and maxillary second bicuspids
4. Mandibular central incisors and maxillary second molars
2
160
```
Which of the following anomalies can occur with a disturbance during the initiation and proliferation stages in
tooth development?
1. size
2. shape
3. number
4. calcification
```
3
161
The factor most frequently responsible for the appearance of supernumerary teeth is
1. heredity.
2. atavistic tendencies.
3. endocrine disturbances.
4. calcium-phosphorus imbalance.
1
162
Routine radiographic examination of a 6-year-old patient discloses a supernumerary tooth between maxillary
central incisors. The dentist should
1. delay removal of the supernumerary tooth until its complete eruption.
2. wait until the child is 12 years of age to remove the supernumerary tooth.
3. remove the supernumerary tooth only if it develops a cyst.
4. remove the supernumerary tooth as soon as possible without injury to the central incisors.
4
163
A periapical radiograph reveals a mesiodens in a 7-year-old boy. His maxillary right central incisor has erupted
only partially. The maxillary left central incisor has not yet appeared. The proper procedure is to
1. remove the mesiodens and observe progress carefully.
2. allow the mesiodens to erupt before attempting extraction.
3. remove the mesiodens, band the unerupted central incisor and institute orthodontic therapy.
4. allow the mesiodens and the right central incisor to erupt into the oral cavity to determine their relative
positions.
1
164
For an eight-year-old patient with good posterior occlusion, no arch length deficiency, one central incisor
severely rotated and a large midline diastema present, the procedure of choice is to
1. have the labial frenum excised.
2. rotate the tooth with an appliance.
3. examine for a supernumerary tooth.
4. inject thyroid hormone to stimulate eruption of the lateral incisors.
5. None of the above.
3
165
Which of the following is characteristic of an inverted mesiodens
1. is associated with an impacted canine.
2. is more common unilaterally than bilaterally.
3. is rarely discovered until it erupts into the nasal cavity.
4. may cause delayed eruption of maxillary central incisors.
4
166
The union of two teeth by the cementum of the roots is
1. fusion.
2. ankylosis.
3. gemination.
4. concrescence.
4
167
Fused or geminated teeth occur during which of the following stages of tooth development?
1. apposition.
2. calcification.
3. eruption and exfoliation.
4. initiation and proliferation.
5. morphodifferentiation and histodifferentiation.
4
168
Disturbances in the morphodifferentiation stage of the development of the tooth germ results in
1. an abnormal number of teeth.
2. ameloblastomas.
3. abnormal forms and sizes of teeth.
4. all of the above.
3
169
The lateral incisor (seen in Radiograph F) exemplifies which of the following?
1. fusion
2. gemination
3. dens invaginatus
4. odontodysplasia
5. pulpal dysplasia
3
170
A disturbance during the calcification stage of growth is the cause of
1. peg teeth.
2. microdontia.
3. oligodontia.
4. interglobular dentin.
4
171
During which stage of tooth development is the cariostatic effect of fluoride manifested?
1. apposition
2. calcification
3. proliferation
4. histodifferentiation
2
172
Dens in dente is frequently associated with
(a) supernumerary teeth.
(b) errors in apposition.
(c) maxillary lateral incisors.
(d) pulp exposures.
1. a and b
2. a and c
3. a and d
4. b and d
5. c and d
5
173
The permanent anterior tooth that is most often atypical in size is the
1. mandibular canine.
2. mandibular central incisor.
3. maxillary canine.
4. maxillary central incisor.
5. maxillary lateral incisor.
5
174
Calcification of teeth begins during which stage of pregnancy?
1. First trimester
2. Second trimester
3. Third trimester
2
175
The first evidence of calcification of the primary dentition is usually around the period of
1. four months in utero.
2. eight months in utero.
3. birth.
4. four months after birth.
1
176
When is tooth enamel mineralization complete?
1. at the time of eruption.
2. at some time following eruption.
3. by the time enamel apposition is complete.
4. prior to eruption but after root formation has begun.
2
177
In the average child, teeth generally in the process of calcification at birth are
1. all primary teeth only.
2. all primary teeth and first permanent molars.
3. the primary anteriors, canines and first primary molars only.
4. all primary teeth and all permanent teeth.
2
178
Radiographs of the jaws of a newborn child ordinarily indicate calcification of
1. 12 teeth.
2. 16 teeth.
3. 20 teeth.
4. 24 teeth.
5. 28 teeth.
4
179
If a child lived for only the first month of his life in a fluoridated community, one would expect to find the fluoride
in a fully developed permanent first molar deposited in the
1. cervical enamel.
2. enamel near the dentinoenamel junction only.
3. cusp tip enamel and dentinal layers near the dentinoenamel junction.
4. enamel occlusal surface and the dentinal layers adjacent to the pulp chamber.
5. deep occlusal surface enamel and the dentinal layers adjacent to the dentinoenamel junction.
3
180
Tooth buds generally initiated after birth are
1. the entire permanent dentition only.
2. all permanent teeth and some primary teeth.
3. first and second premolars and second and third molars only.
3
181
Enamel dysplasia (hypoplasia or hypocalcification) is most likely to have been caused to the incisal edge of
the permanent maxillary central incisors at what age
1. in utero
2. 0-12 months
3. 12-24 months
4. 24-36 months
2
182
Enamel dysplasia (hypoplasia or hypocalcification) is most likely to have been caused to the incisal edge of
the permanent maxillary lateral incisors at what age
1. in utero
2. 0-12 months
3. 12-24 months
4. 24-36 months
3
183
The average age at which calcification of crowns of permanent central incisors is completed is
1. birth.
2. 2-3 years of age.
3. 4-5 years of age.
4. 6-7 years of age.
3
184
On examining radiographs, hypoplastic defects in relation to normal enamel appear
1. sclerotic.
2. radiopaque.
3. radiolucent.
4. indistinguishable.
3
185
Primary second molars usually erupt during ages
1. 8-14 months.
2. 14-20 months.
3. 20-30 months.
4. 30-36 months.
5. 36-48 months.
3
186
How does the thickness of dentin in deciduous teeth compare with that in corresponding permanent teeth?
1. deciduous about one-fourth.
2. deciduous about one-third.
3. deciduous about one-half.
4. permanent about one-fourth.
5. permanent about one-third.
6. permanent about one-half.
3
187
The color of primary teeth compared with that of permanent teeth is
1. whiter.
2. redder.
3. browner.
4. yellower.
1
188
In examining the primary dentition, if it is observed that a lateral incisor is congenitally missing, it is likely that the
1. permanent canine will be missing.
2. permanent lateral incisor will also be missing.
3. permanent lateral incisor will be slow in erupting.
4. normal eruption of the permanent lateral incisor is reasonable certain.
2
189
A radiograph of a child four years old reveals that the mandibular second premolars are not present. This
means that
1. maxillary lateral incisors will also be missing.
2. the child will not develop second premolars.
3. this child's chronologic age and physiologic age may not be too closely related and these teeth may
develop later.
4. extraction of deciduous second molars should be performed to allow the permanent first molars to drift
forward with less tilting.
5. the child will develop second premolars, but later than normal.
3
190
A radiograph of a 4-year-old child reveals no evidence of calcification of mandibular second premolars. This
means that
1. these teeth may develop later.
2. the child will probably never develop second premolars.
3. it is too early in life to make final predictions concerning development of any permanent teeth.
4. primary second molars should be extracted to allow permanent first molars to drift forward.
1
191
If mandibular second premolars are NOT radiographically visible by the time a child is 4 years old, the dentist is
best advised to
1. reserve judgment on the presence of the teeth for at least two years.
2. refer the child to a pediatrician to explore the possibility of a systemic condition.
3. assume the teeth are congenitally missing and extract primary second molars.
4. assume the teeth are congenitally missing and inform the parents that orthodontic treatment may be
necessary when the child is older.
1
192
In Radiograph L, the arrow points to which of the following?
1. an osteoma
2. an odontoma
3. a permanent tooth
4. a supernumerary tooth
3
193
A 5-year-old child receives broad-spectrum tetracycline antibiotic therapy. Side effects of tetracycline
administration will later be seen in which of the following permanent teeth?
1. premolars.
2. canines and second molars.
3. incisors and first molars.
4. both l and 2 above.
5. both l and 3 above.
4
194
A child of 7½ years receives an extended course of tetracycline. Clinical crowns of which of the following teeth
are likely to show discoloration?
1. all permanent teeth will be discolored.
2. no teeth will be discolored to an esthetically objectionable degree.
3. the premolars are likely to exhibit enamel hypoplastic defects.
4. the permanent incisors will be discolored on the incisal edges.
2
195
```
An 8 1/2-year-old child receives tetracycline for 30 days. Clinical crowns of which of the following teeth are
likely to show discoloration?
1. premolars only.
2. permanent incisors only.
3. all permanent teeth.
4. none of the above.
```
4
196
Illnesses in the first year of life are most likely to be expressed in the dentition as
(a) undersized lateral incisors.
(b) missing mandibular second premolars.
(c) hypoplastic areas in permanent molars.
(d) hypoplastic areas in permanent incisors.
1. a and b
2. a, c, and d
3. b and c only
4. b, c, and d
5. c and d only
5
197
Which of the following dental sequelae is likely in a child with a history of generalized growth failure ("failure to
thrive") in the first six months of life?
1. Retrusive maxilla
2. Enamel hypoplasia
3. Retrusive mandible
4. Small permanent teeth
5. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
2
198
A 9½-year-old child has a white spot on the facial surface of a permanent maxillary central incisor. This
condition is most probably due to
1. hypocalcification secondary to trauma to the primary dentition in the area.
2. a hypoplastic defect secondary to a systemic infection at 6-12 months of age.
3. a disturbance during the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth development.
4. hypercalcified enamel secondary to increased calcium uptake in the tooth at 6-10 months of age.
1
199
The green stains frequently seen on children's teeth are caused by
1. material alba.
2. intrinsic factors.
3. chromogenic bacteria.
4. chlorophyll dentifrice.
3
200
Unusual intrinsic pigmentation of the primary teeth may be related to
1. erythroblastosis fetalis.
2. idiopathic fibromatosis.
3. tetracycline therapy.
4. ingestion of iron supplement in vitamin tablets.
5. both l and 3 above.
6. both 2 and 4 above.
7. both 3 and 4 above.
5
201
The drug that causes intrinsic staining of teeth due to calcium chelation is
1. alizarin.
2. ampicillin.
3. tetracycline.
4. erythromycin.
3
202
A 4-year-old child has normally shaped, grayish colored teeth that exhibit extensive wear. Radiographic
examination shows a normal complement of teeth, but extensive deposits of secondary dentin have almost
obliterated pulp chambers and canal chambers. The most probable diagnosis is
1. tetralogy of Fallot.
2. tetracycline staining.
3. amelogenesis imperfecta.
4. cleidocranial dysostosis.
5. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
5
203
In the resorption of roots of a primary tooth, the dental pulp
1. becomes a nonvital fibrotic mass.
2. functions as a passive participant.
3. initiates resorption from inner surfaces.
4. develops secondary dentin that slows resorption.
2
204
When a permanent tooth clinically emerges, how much of the root structure is most likely to have developed?
1. l/3.
2. 2/3.
3. root formation is not related to eruption.
2
205
After eruption of a permanent tooth, the time required for complete formation of its root is approximately
1. l/2-l year.
2. 2-3 years.
3. 4-5 years.
4. none of the above. The time required is unpredictable.
2
206
After eruption of a permanent tooth, the time required for apical closure of its root is approximately
1. 1/2 to 1 1/2.
2. 2 1/2 to 3 1/2.
3. 4 1/2 to 5 1/2.
4. none of the above.
2
207
How many roots does a primary maxillary first molar have?
1. one
2. two
3. three
4. four
3
208
Before eruption, the position of permanent mandibular incisor buds relative to primary incisors is
1. superior and facial.
2. superior and lingual.
3. inferior and facial.
4. inferior and lingual.
4
209
Radiographic examination of a 9-year-old patient reveals the pre-eruptive position of a mandibular second
premolar tipped 20° from vertical. The most appropriate action is to
1. consider a surgical procedure to upright the tooth bud.
2. remove the primary second molar and place a space maintainer.
3. warn the parent that ectopic eruption will probably occur.
4. expect the tooth bud to correct itself as the tooth erupts.
4
210
In examining a child patient, normal gingiva is diagnosed on the basis of all of the following EXCEPT
1. contour.
2. stippling.
3. sulcus depth.
4. depth of vestibule.
5. tight-fitting gingival collar.
4
211
Which of the following is NOT true of normal gingiva in the child?
1. stippling absent.
2. may be reddish or pink.
3. shinier than adult gingiva.
4. less hornification than the adult gingiva.
5. thinner epithelial layer than the adult gingiva.
1
212
Which of the following is the primary etiology of gingivitis during puberty and pregnancy?
1. plaque
2. estradiol
3. calculus
4. estrogen
5. progesterone
1
213
Gingival inflammation in a child is frequently related to each of the following except
1. endocrine disturbances.
2. viral infections.
3. mouth breathing.
4. spirochetes.
5. streptococci.
6. chemicals.
4
214
Which of the following represents the most common form of gingival periodontal disease in school-aged children?
1. juvenile periodontitis
2. localized acute gingivitis
3. primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
4. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
2
215
Plaque accumulation has a direct effect on which of the following?
1. the level of material alba
2. the severity of gingivitis
3. the accumulation of calculus
4. the severity of periodontitis
2
216
Which of the following is not indicated in a treatment plan to control chronic gingivitis in a ten-year-old child?
1. diet analysis.
2. flossing.
3. thorough prophylaxis.
4. home use of disclosing tablets.
5. antibiotic treatment to control infection
5
217
PMA is a symbol for a
1. pulp capping material.
2. caries index.
3. periodontal index.
4. materia alba index.
3
218
The PMA index relates to
1. the gingivae.
2. malocclusions.
3. caries susceptibility.
4. degree of enamel maturation.
1
219
What is the best treatment for a ten month old with ankyloglossia
1. No treatment at this age
2. Refer to oral surgeon to do frenectomy
3. Do ’clipping’ in your office
4. Only treat if attachment extends to tip of the tongue
1
220
A 7-year-old child has localized gingival recession between two teeth only. The dentist should suspect
1. an oral habit.
2. a chronic disease.
3. a hereditary factor.
4. poor eating habits.
5. periodontosis simplex.
1
221
The most probable diagnosis for the condition illustrated in the photograph is
1. scurvy.
2. leukemic gingivitis.
3. herpetic gingivitis.
4. gingival dehiscence.
5. juvenile periodontitis.
4
222
Gingival stripping in the incisor region of a child is best treated by
1. gingivectomy.
2. alveolectomy.
3. deep lingual frenectomy.
4. decreasing the amount of attached gingiva.
5. increasing the amount of attached gingiva.
5
223
Localized gingival recession in the region of erupting mandibular incisor teeth is associated with
1. keratotic melanoplasia.
2. idiopathic cementosis.
3. abnormal frenum attachment.
4. increased spacing of teeth.
5. Dilantin therapy.
3
224
The highest incidence of fibrous gingival enlargement (hyperplasia) is related to
1. puberty
2. diabetes
3. leukemia
4. pregnancy
5. medication
5
225
Which of the following clinical signs would be indicative of ascorbutic gingivitis in a child?
(a) severe pain.
(b) "Stillman cleft"
(c) spontaneous hemorrhage.
(d) fibrous enlargement of the papillae.
(e) red gingival margins.
1. a, c, and e
2. a and e only
3. b, c, and d
4. e only
5. all of the above
1
226
Which of the following has been associated with localized juvenile periodontitis?
1. cyclic eosinophilia
2. lysis of neutrophils
3. increased phagocytosis
4. neutrophil chemotactic defects
4
227
Which of the following are true concerning calculus formation on the dentition?
(a) does not occur in children under 10 years of age.
(b) has dental plaque as its precursor.
(c) may occur at any age, but not as frequently in young children.
1. a and b
2. a and c
3. b and c
4. all of the above
5. none of the above
3
228
What determines the maximum dose of local anesthesia for a child?
1. age
2. weight
3. the procedure to be accomplished
4. the desired degree of pulpal anesthesia
2
229
Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of which of the following?
1. herpangina
2. angina pectoris
3. recurrent aphthous stomatitis
4. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
4
230
Which of the following produces satisfactory anesthesia when injecting a local anesthetic solution for an
extraction?
1. mental injection for a primary mandibular second molar.
2. subperiosteal infiltration for a primary mandibular first molar.
3. subperiosteal infiltration over each facial apex of a primary maxillary molar.
4. inferior alveolar block injection for a permanent maxillary central incisor.
5. subperiosteal infiltration over the apex of a permanent maxillary central incisor.
6. none of the above.
4
231
A 3-year-old patient is scheduled for extraction of a primary maxillary second molar. Adequate local anesthesia
may be secured by administering
1. a tuberosity block alone.
2. buccal infiltration alone.
3. buccal and palatal infiltration.
4. a tuberosity block plus an anterior palatine block.
5. a tuberosity block plus subperiosteal infiltrations for lingual and mesiofacial roots.
3
232
A primary second molar of a seven-year-old patient is extracted for orthodontic purposes. The apical one-fourth
of the mesiobuccal root fractures and remains in situ. The dentist should
1. allow the root tip to remain in place and observe periodically.
2. use a root tip elevator to remove the roots.
3. make a flap at the buccal aspect and remove the tip surgically.
4. insert the thin beaks of the forceps into the socket and remove the root.
5. prescribe penicillin.
1
233
The most frequent cause of fracture of root tips in extracting a primary molar is
1. ankylosis of the tooth.
2. improper use of cowhorn forceps.
3. presence of a supernumerary premolar.
4. root resorption between the apex and the bifurcation.
5. asymmetrical root resorption in which only one root is completely resorbed.
4
234
Placing the beaks of the forceps into the bifurcation of a primary mandibular second molar is contraindicated
when extracting the tooth of a 6-year-old patient because of the
1. thinness and divergence of roots.
2. proximity of the succedaneous tooth bud.
3. possibility of crushing the facial plates of bone.
4. marked convergence of the crown toward the occlusal surface.
5. relatively large pulp chamber and the possibility of fracturing the crown.
6. large cervical bulge on the facial aspect preventing proper placement of forceps.
2
235
To remove a mandibular deciduous molar when its unresorbed roots are locked around the premolar crown,
authorities suggest
1. rolling the tooth out buccally.
2. rolling the tooth out through the thin lingual plate.
3. removing the crown and allowing the roots to resorb.
4. cutting the molar crown in two with a disk, then removing each half separately.
5. performing a flap operation and liberally removing buccal bone before applying force.
4
236
A radiograph shows an abscessed primary mandibular second molar with a severe furcation involvement. The
developing bud of the second premolar is partially enclosed within its roots. To resolve this problem without
disturbing the permanent tooth bud, the proper treatment is which of the following?
1. section the tooth and remove portions individually.
2. lift a flap and remove sufficient alveolar bone to allow extraction.
3. remove the tooth with a short-beak dental forceps by luxating slowly.
4. perform pulp therapy and postpone extraction until sufficient root resorption has occurred.
1
237
If during extraction of a primary molar the permanent tooth bud is accidentally totally withdrawn from the mouth,
the treatment of choice is to
1. discard the tooth bud.
2. curette this area thoroughly.
3. perform pulpotomy and replant the tooth bud.
4. perform a pulpectomy and replant the tooth bud.
5. replace the tooth bud deep in the alveolus from which it came.
5
238
A patient requires tooth extraction from an area that has been subjected to radiation therapy. Which of the
following represents the greatest danger to this patient?
1. alveolar osteitis
2. osteoradionecrosis
3. prolonged healing
4. fracture of the mandible
2
239
To localize a supernumerary or an impacted tooth and its relationship to other teeth, which of the following
radiographs would be most effective?
1. a periapical and an occlusal view.
2. an occlusal view using a high angle.
3. a periapical view using a long-cone technique.
4. a panoramic radiograph with a supplement periapical film.
5. two or more periapical views at different angles and an occlusal view.
5
240
A periapical radiograph reveals a mesiodens in a 7-year-old boy. His maxillary right central incisor has erupted
only partially. The maxillary left central incisor has not yet appeared. The proper procedure is to
1. remove the mesiodens and observe progress carefully.
2. allow the mesiodens to erupt before attempting extraction.
3. remove the mesiodens, band the unerupted central incisor and institute orthodontic therapy.
4. allow the mesiodens and the right central incisor to erupt into the oral cavity to determine their relative
positions.
1
241
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What would be the immediate concern of a dentist after removing the primary mandibular left second molar of a
3-year-old child?
1. preventing lip biting
2. preventing a dry socket
3. controlling postoperative pain
4. providing space maintenance
5. preventing postoperative swelling
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