ST:5 Flashcards
Which of the following personnel monitors would be appropriate for use when monitors are changed at 3 mo intervals?
(a)TLD or OSL
(b) TLD
(c) OSL
(d) film badge
(e) pocket dosimetry
(a) Either a TLD or an OSL can be used because the accuracy of the reading is not affected by time. The film in a film badge may begin to fog within this period of time. which may result in inaccurate exposure readings.
Patient preparation for infection imaging using tagged white blood cells includes:
(a)fasting for at least 4 hr with a blood glucose level below 120 mg/dL
(b) lab work and information concerning recent blood transfusions
(c) discontinuation of certain medications
(d) smoking cessation for at least 24 hr
(e) fasting for at least 4 hr with a blood glucose level below 200 mg/dL
(b) No special preparation is needed for a white blood cell infection imaging other than a possible interference if the patient has had a recent blood transfusion.
The percentage left ventricular ejection fraction calculated from the net counts per minute shown here: End diastole: 2875 End systole: 2162 is approximately: (a)25%
(b) 13%
(c) 33%
(d) 100%
(e) 75%
(a) The counts per minute are obtained from the regions of interest drawn around the end-diastolic and end-systolic images. The counts in each region are then corrected for background. The formula for calculating the left ventricular ejection fraction is:
LVEF = (net end-diastolic counts - net end-systolic counts) x 100 / net end-diastolic counts
= (2875 cpm - 2162 cpm) x 100 / 2875 cpm = 25%
On the basis of these data shown: Total counts - No. pixels Cardiac ROI - 28,503 - 417 Background ROI - 1,859 - 88 what are the net counts in the cardiac region of interest? (a)28,065
(b) 19,694
(c) 26,644
(d) 15,463
(e) 14,652
(b) Net counts are determined using a background (bkg) region of interest (ROI) drawn near the area of interest. The average counts per pixel in the bkg ROI are subtracted from the cardiac ROI, adjusted for the size of the region.
net cardiac ROI counts = cardiac ROI counts - ((bkg ROI counts / bkg ROI pixels) x cardiac ROI pixels)
28,503 cts - (1859 cts / 88 pixels) x 417 pixels
28,503 cts - (21 cts/pixel x 417 pixels)
28,503 cts - 8809 cts = 19,694 cts
According to the NRC, areas where therapeutic radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be surveyed:
(a)weekly
(b) monthly
(c) quarterly
(d) after each therapeutic dosage is prepared or administered
(e) at the end of each day a therapeutic dosage is prepared or administered
(e) NRC regulations require a survey of areas where radiopharmaceuticals that require a written directive are prepared for administered. This would include therapeutic radiopharmaceuticals and dosages of 131I greater than 30 uCi. the survey is to be performed at the end of the day. As of October 2002, the NRC no longer requires daily surveys and weekly wipe tests. Instead it allows facilities to establish a survey and wipe test schedule. the schedule must be reasonable, based on the need to determine radiation levels, concentrations or quantities of radioactive materials, and potential radiological hazards.
According to NRC regulations, which of the following signs should be posted in unrestricted areas?
(a)”Caution: Radioactive Materials”
(b) “Authorized Personnel Only”
(c) No posting is required.
(d) “Caution: Radiation Area”
(e) “Caution: High Radiation Area”
(c) According to the NRC, an unrestricted area is one in which access is not limited by or under control of a license. Unrestricted areas are not posted.
If 740 kBq of a radiopharmaceutical is to be administered for each kilogram of body weight, approximately how much activity (in megabecquerels) should be administered to a patient who weighs 172 pounds?
(a)9.5 MBq
(b) 652 MBq
(c) 78 MBq
(d) 280 MBq
(e) 58 MBq
(e) First convert the patient’s body weight into kilograms:
172 lbs x kg/2.2lbs = 78kg
Next, calculate the total activity to be administered to the patient based on body weight:
78 kg x 740 kBq/kg = 57,720 kBq
Then, convert kBq into MBq.
57,720 kBq x MBq/1000 kBq = 58 MBq
Which of the following is a primary source of radiation exposure to the technologist who performs PET imaging?
(a)Bremsstrahlung radiation from the patient
(b) positrons escaping from the patient
(c) y rays from the long-lived source used for transmission scanning
(d) electromagnetic radiation from the PET camera
(e) Compton scatter from the patient
(e) The primary sources of radiation exposure to the technologist who performs PET imaging are from the radiopharmaceutical dosages before and during administration and from the Compton scatter escaping the patient’s body. Because they are particles, positrons will be absorbed by body tissue and will not be emitted from the body.
Pentagastrin is commonly used in which of the following scans:
(a)gastric emptying
(b) deep vein thrombosis
(c) Meckel’s diverticulum
(d) LeVeen shunt patency
(e) myocardial perfusion imaging
(c) Pentagastrin stimulates ectopic gastric mucosal uptake of pertechnetate by 30%-60& while decreasing emptying time into small bowel and decreasing background.
Which of the following statements about the modified in vivo method for labeling red blood cells with [99mTc]pertechnetate is TRUE?
(a)Only a sample of the patient’s blood is incubated with the reconstituted stannous pyrophosphate.
(b) Red cell labeling takes place only within the patient’s circulatory system.
(c) A sample of the patient’s “pretinned” blood is incubated with [99mTc]pertechnetate outside of the patient.
(d) Excess [99mTc]pertechnetate is removed from the blood sample before the sample is re-injected into the patient.
(e) A larger amount of stannous pyrophosphate is used.
(c) The modified in vivo method for labeling red blood cells involves first administering “cold” stannous pyrophosphate to the patient. Then, a small sample (1-5 mL) of the patient’s blood is incubated with [99mTc]pertechnetate outside the patient. The in vitro method involves collecting a small blood sample that is first incubated with stannous ion, then [99mTc]pertechnetate outside the patient. The plasma containing unbound [99mTc]pertechnetate is removed and the red cells washed before reinjecting them. In the in vivo method, all labeling steps occur within the patient.
If a unit dosage of [99mTc]pertechnetate is calibrated to contain 25 mCi in 0.8 mL at 1400, what volume should be removed from the syringe to retain 15 mCi in the syringe at 1200?
(a)0.20 mL
(b) 0.32 mL
(c) 0.52 mL
(d) 0.48 mL
(e) 0.42 mL
(e) First, determine the total activity in the syringe at 1200 by backdecay-correcting the activity using the 2-hr decay factor (1200-1400 = 2 hr) for 99mTc:
25 mCi / 0.794 = 31.5 mCi
Then, determine the concentration at 1200:
concentration = total activity / total volume = 31.5 mCi / 0.8 mL = 39.4 mCi/mL
Determine the volume that will contain 15 mCi at 1200:
volume = activity required / concentration = 15 mCi / 39.4 mCi/mL = 0.38 mL
Determine the volume that will have to be removed from the syringe:
total - volume required = volume to be removed
0.8 mL - 0.38 mL = 0.42 mL
If a patient receives 20 mCi of [131I]sodium iodide instead of the prescribed dosage of 15 mCi for therapy of hyperthyroidism, which of the following individuals/agencies must be notified?
(a)NRC
(b) NRC and referring physician
(c) referring physician
(d) NRC and FDA
(e) FDA
(b) When a medical event (misadministration) occurs, the NRC requires the license to notify the NRC, the referring physician, and the involved individual, unless the referring physician determines, on the basis of medical judgment, that such notification would be harmful to the patient.
One advantage of the in vivo method of 99mTc red cell tagging is that:
(a)No manipulation of blood samples outside the body is required.
(b) No incubation times are required at any step in the process.
(c) All circulating red cells are labeled with tracer.
(d) Smaller amounts of stannous chloride are required.
(e) White blood cells do not interfere in the process.
(a) The major advantage of in vivo red cell labeling is that tagging takes place in the circulatory system. The patient first receives reconstituted “cold” pyrophosphate containing stannous ion that permits [99mTc]pertechnetate to permeate red cell membranes. After a short incubation period to allow the stannous ion to come into contact with the red cells, the patient is injected with [99mTc]pertechnetate. After another short incubation period when the tracer becomes incorporated in the red cells, imaging begins.
In a hospital setting, CPR CANNOT legally be administered to a patient in cardiac arrest when the:
(a)patient has an infectious disease
(b) patient’s spouse or significant other indicates their wishes
(c) patient is hallucinating
(d) patient’s chart indicates a terminal illness
(e) patient’s chart indicates DNR
(e) CPR should always be administered to a patient in cardiac arrest unless the patient, patient’s family, or patient’s physician has specifically requested that it not be done. In these cases, DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) or “allow natural death” should be clearly indicated on the patient’s chart.
In what way does the modified in vivo method of labeling red blood cells with [99mTc]pertechnetate differ from the in vivo method?
(a)The modified method requires a smaller amount of stannous pyrophosphate.
(b) The modified method “pretins” only a small volume of the patient’s blood.
(c) The modified method uses a smaller activity of [99mTc]pertechnetate.
(d) The modified method mixes [99mTc]pertechnetate with only a small volume of the patient’s blood.
(e) The modified method requires a larger amount of stannous pyrophosphate.
(d) In both the in vivo and modified in vivo methods of labeling red blood cells with [99mTc]pertechnetate, reconstituted stannous pyrophosphate is injected intravenously into the patient. Hence, the same amount of stannous pyrophosphate is administered, and the entire volume of the patient’s blood is “pretinned” in either method. Both methods use 20 to 30 millicuries of [99mTc]pertechnetate. The main difference in the modified in vivo method is that only a small volume (~3 mL) of the patient’s pretinned blood is mixed with [99mTc]pertechnetate in a syringe. In the in vivo method, [99mTc]pertechnetate is injected intravenously 15-30 min after stannous pyrophosphate.
For a patient undergoing bone imaging, which of the following information from the medical history is relevant to the interpretation of the bone image?
(a)splenectomy 5 years ago
(b) abdominal surgery 10 days ago
(c) radiation therapy to the breast 6 months ago
(d) gallbladder surgery a year ago
(e) results of previous bone imaging procedures
(e) Results of previous bone imaging procedures performed with nuclear medicine or another imaging modality may provide additional information not demonstrated on the current image or indications that the condition has improved or worsened. Healing soft tissue, such as that resulting from recent abdominal surgery, will concentrate bone tracer in an unexpected area. External beam radiation therapy can cause photopenic areas-areas of decreased tracer activity- on the bone image in the area where the therapy was delivered. All of this information will help the physician explain the findings on a bone image.
[111In]Pentetreotide normally localizes in all of the following sites EXCEPT:
(a)pituitary gland
(b) salivary glands
(c) spleen
(d) thyroid gland
(e) liver
(b) [111In]pentetreotide normally localizes in the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, liver, spleen, bladder, and bowel.
SPECT brain imaging may begin how soon after the administration of [99mTc]exametazime?
(a)immediately
(b) 1-2 hr
(c) 15-20 min
(d) 24 hr
(e) 48 hr
(b) For the best image quality, brain imaging with [99mTc]exametazime should begin no sooner than 90 min after the administration of the tracer.
An eluate of [99mTc]pertechnetate is assayed for 99Mo contamination with the following results:
99Mo: 45 uCi
99mTc: 275 mCi
On the basis of this assay, the technologist should:
(a)Wait for the 99Mo to decay to an acceptable level.
(b) Use the eluate only for studies requiring other 99mTc-labeled agents.
(c) Discard the eluate.
(d) Use the eluate for only the next 12 hr.
(e) Wait for the 99mTc to decay to an acceptable level.
(c) The 99Mo concentration in this eluate is equal to:
45 uCi / 275 mCi = 0.16 uCi 99Mo/mCi 99mTc
This 99Mo concentration exceeds the maximum allowable limit of 0.15 uCi 99Mo/mCi 99mTc set by the NRC. Therefore, the technologist must not administer the eluate to patients either as [99mTc]pertechnetate or as some other 99mTc-labeled compound. Also, remember that radionuclide purity changes with time. Because 99Mo (T1/2 = 66 hr) decays more slowly than 99mTc (T1/2 = 6 hr), the ratio of 99Mo to 99mTc will increase with time, exceeding the maximum allowable limit to a greater extent.
In performing a thyroid uptake, a technologist collects the thyroid counts 5 cm from the surface of the patient’s neck and the standard counts 20 cm from the surface of the neck phantom. What is the effect on the thyroid uptake value calculated from this data?
(a)The uptake value will be falsely increased.
(b) The uptake value will be falsely decreased.
(c) The uptake value will be accurate.
(d) The results are unpredictable.
(e) There is no effect.
(a) Recall that, as a point source is moved closer to the face of a flat-field collimator, more counts are collected. If the standard represents the total amount of activity administered to the patient, the counts collected from the patient’s neck represent a portion of the total amount of activity that concentrated in the thyroid gland. It is important, therefore, based on the response of the detector at a given distance, to count both the standard and the patient at the same distance. For example, suppose the standard and the patient were both counted at 20 cm, and 20,000 net cpm and 5,000 net cpm were obtained, respectively. The patient’s uptake is:
neck counts x 100 / standard counts = 5000 cpm x 100 / 20,000 cpm = 25%
If the patient were counted at 5 cm instead of 20 cm, more counts would be collected (i.e., 10,000 cpm). Then, the patient’s uptake is falsely increased:
neck counts x 100 / standard counts = 10000 cpm x 100 / 20,000 cpm = 50%
Which of the following techniques is used to help eliminate the “star” effect created during tomographic reconstruction?
(a)filtered backprojection
(b) center of rotation offset correction
(c) oversampling
(d) uniformity correction
(e) iterative reconstruction
(a) Tomographic images may be reconstructed from the planar projections using a technique called backprojection. This creates a star pattern as the ray sums are projected back along a line in the reconstruction matrix. the use of a ramp filter during the process helps eliminate much of the “star” artifact.
Boiling a [99mTc]sulfur colloid preparation for too long will result in colloidal particles that are:
(a)too small
(b) clumpy
(c) optimal size
(d) chemically unstable
(e) too large
(e) The diameter of the colloid particle is increased as a function of heating time. Thus, the longer the 99mTc preparation is heated, the larger the sulfur colloid particles become. Extended heating times, beyond what is recommended in the package insert, result in particles large enough to become trapped in the lung vasculature.
If a 67Ga static image is acquired into a 128 x 128 byte mode matrix using the photopeaks at 93, 185, and 300 keV, how much computer memory is required to store the image?
(a)256 kB
(b) 64 kB
(c) 32 kB
(d) 128 kB
(e) 16 kB
(e) Counts from the three photopeaks are collected in one acquisition matrix to form a single 67Ga image. Therefore, one set of storage locations in computer memory is needed. One 128 x 128 byte-mode matrix contains 16,384 bytes. A kilobyte (kB) contains 1,024 bytes. To convert bytes to kilobytes:
16,384 bytes x 1 kB/1024 bytes = 16 kB
Early (6 hr after injection) 67Ga imaging should be performed if which of the following conditions is suspected?
(a)sarcoma
(b) osteomyelitis
(c) lymphoma
(d) bronchogenic carcinoma
(e) chrondrosarcoma
(b) 67Ga imaging can be performed form 6 hr to 3 days or longer after tracer administration. When the examination is being performed for evaluation of an inflammatory process, early imaging (6 hr after injection) is indicated.
If the ambient exposure rate in a hot lab is determined to be 1.2 mR/hr, what will be the radiation dose to a technologist as a result of 3 hr of work in the lab?
(a)3.6 mRem
(b) 0.4 mRem
(c) 0.06 mRem
(d) 50 mRem
(e) 40 mRem
(a) To determine the total dose, multiply the exposure rate by the time of exposure. In this case:
1.2 mR/hr x 3h = 3.6 mR
However, the exposure to people is recorded in mRem, With gamma energies used in diagnostic nuclear medicine, R = Rem, so mR can be directly converted to mRem.
After stress myocardial imaging with [201Tl]thallous chloride, 1-1.5 mCi of [201Tl]thallous chloride may be administered before rest myocardial imaging to:
(a)improve patient throughput
(b) demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily
(c) demonstrate infarct size more precisely
(d) minimize visualization of attenuation artifacts
(e) maximize visualization of attenuation artifacts
(b) Defects visualized on stress images are interpreted as myocardial ischemia if the defects fill in on the resting images. However, the rate of redistribution varies, and ischemic areas may not appear to have re-perfused by 4 hr. Administering a second, smaller dose of 201Tl before rest imaging provides additional tracer in the circulation that can be extracted into there areas, improving the image quality and identifying reversible ischemia.
According to NRC regulations, which of the following concerning restricted areas is TRUE?
(a)Patient rooms become restricted areas after the patient has received a radiopharmaceutical.
(b) Only areas where radiopharmaceuticals are stored must be designated as restricted areas.
(c) Radiation area monitors are required in restricted areas.
(d) Restricted areas must be locked when authorized personnel are not present.
(e) Everyone entering or leaving a restricted area must be surveyed.
(d) The NRC requires that access to restricted areas must be limited to prevent individuals from being exposed to radiation or radioactive materials that may cause undue risk. To control access, restricted areas must be locked when authorized staff are not present.
If an anticoagulant is added to a blood sample, the fluid portion of the blood sample is know as:
(a)serum
(b) plasma
(c) antiserum
(d) blood complement
(e) clotting factor
(b) Preventing clot formation with the addition of an anticoagulant will result in the fluid portion remaining as plasma. The fluid portion of a blood sample that has been allowed to clot is serum.
Which of the following 99mTc-labeled agents is the preferred tracer for demonstrating intermittent gastrointestinal bleeding?
(a)human serum albumin
(b) lidofenin
(c) red blood cells
(d) sulfur colloid
(e) macro aggregated albumin
(c) Because [99mTc]sulfur colloid is cleared from the blood within 10-15 min after administration, it is preferred when the patient exhibits active gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. In cases where the GI bleeding is intermittent and unpredictable, 99mTc-labeled red blood cells are preferred, because this tracer remains in the blood pool for an extended period that permits imaging up to 24 hr.
How often should linearity and spatial resolution tests be performed on a scintillation camera?
(a)daily
(b) weekly
(c) monthly
(d) quarterly
(e) yearly
(b) The standard of practice calls for performance of linearity and spatial resolution testing on a weekly basis.
The following center of rotation values were obtained on a SPECT camera:
Date - COR value
10/1 - 32.51
10/8 - 32.59
10/15 - 32.48
10/22 - 32.38
10/29 - 32.58
On October 29, the most appropriate action for the technologist is to:
(a)Transfer any SPECT studies to a different computer terminal for processing.
(b) Arrange for camera service.
(c) Acquire SPECT studies using the October 22 value.
(d) Acquire SPECT studies using the October 29 value.
(e) Acquire SPECT studies using the October 01 value.
(d) COR values should vary by no more than 1/2 pixel. Deviations greater than 1/2 pixel may degrade resolution in reconstructed images. The values presented are within the 1/2-pixel limit. Therefore, the technologist can use the camera for SPECT studies using the most recent value.
Which of the following radiation monitoring devices is best suited to survey a patient who has received 150 mCi of 131I for therapy?
(a)pocket ionization chamber
(b) portable ionization chamber
(c) Geiger-Mueller counter
(d) dose calibrator
(e) liquid scintillation counter
(b) A portable ionization chamber, sometimes referred to as a cutie pie, is used to measure areas of high photon intensity. This instrument gives a direct measurement of the total number of ion pairs produced per unit time and, therefore, is more accurate than a Geiger-Mueller counter when surveying a large amount of radioactivity.
Of the following syringes, which size would be best for withdrawing 1 mL of radiopharmaceutical from a multi-dose vial?
(a)3 mL
(b) 1 mL
(c) 5 mL
(d) 20 mL
(e) 10 mL
(a) The syringe size is the next size larger than the volume to be withdrawn. If the syringe is filled to its maximum volume, the plunger may easily be pulled out while a volume is being withdrawn or while a patient is being injected with the volume in the syringe.
If an MAA kit containing 4.5 million particles is prepared by adding 30 mCi in 2.5 mL, how many particles are contained in 3 mCi?
(a)150,000
(b) 180,000
(c) 450,000
(d) 215,000
(e) 555,000
(c) Based on the volume added to the kit, determine the number of particles in 1 mL:
4.5 million particles / 2.5 mL = 1.8 million particles/mL
Determine the kit concentration:
concentration = total activity / total volume = 30 mCi / 2.5 mL = 12 mCi/mL
Determine the volume that will contain the required activity:
volume = activity required / concentration = 3 mCi / 12 mCi/mL = 0.25 mL
Determine the number of particles contained in the patient dosage:
dosage volume x particles/mL = particles in patient dosage
0.25 mL x 1.8 million particles/mL = 450,000 particles
Note that the number of particles in the patient dosage is within the recommended range for adults.
Contamination on the surface of the skin is best removed by:
(a)flushing the area with hot water
(b) cleansing the area with lukewarm water and detergent
(c) scrubbing the area with a stiff brush
(d) rubbing the area with an abrasive cleanser
(e) cleansing the area with hydrogen peroxide
(b) Decontamination of the skin should be attempted with a mild detergent and lukewarm water to avoid irritating the skin. Abrasive materials, scrubbing, and hot water all can increase absorption of the radioactivity through the skin.
A post-surgery patient is in the nuclear medicine department for a study. The technologist notices that the patient’s surgical dressing shows signs of drainage. The most appropriate action for the technologist is to:
(a)Reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel.
(b) Remove the old dressing and replace it with a fresh one.
(c) Terminate the study and transport the patient back to his/her room.
(d) Complete the nuclear medicine procedure and ignore the dressing.
(e) Remove the dressing and drain the wound.
(a) The technologist should report the drainage and reinforce the original dressing with additional dressing until appropriate medical personnel are available to address the patient’s needs.
A technologist performs a linearity test on a dose calibrator. The expected activity at a given time is 28.2 uCi, and the actual reading is 27.0 uCi. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a)The instrument should be repaired or replaced.
(b) The instrument can be used to measure activities in the microcurie range.
(c) A correction factor of 0.96 should be applied when measuring activities in the microcurie range.
(d) A correction factor of 1.04 should be applied when measuring activities in the microcurie range.
(e) A correction factor of 1.14 should be applied when measuring activities in the microcurie range.
(b) if the percentage error in the measurement is less than 10%, then the instrument can be used as is. The measured activity falls within +-10% of the expected value, Therefore, no correction factor is needed.
For cardiac first-pass studies, the prescribed adult dosage of [99mTc]pentetate if 925 MBq +-10%. On the basis of the vial label information shown here for [99mTc]pentetate, what is the maximum volume that should be administered to the patient at 0800 on January 5? Total activity: 3.7 GBq Total volume: 2.0 mL Concentration: 1.85 GBq/mL Calibration: 0600, January 5 (a)0.57 mL
(b) 0.63 mL
(c) 1.0 mL
(d) 0.69 mL
(e) 1.3 mL
(d) The elapsed time between calibration and dosage administration is 2 hr (0600-0800). Decay-correct the initial concentration for 2 hr using the appropriate decay factor for 99mTc:
1.85 GBq/mL x 0.794 = 1.47 GBq/mL
Then, determine the maximum volume that can be administered to the patient. The maximum prescribed activity, 925 MBq + 92.5 MBq or approximately 1,017 MBq, will make up the maximum volume. Remember that the concentration and the required activity must be expressed in the same units. Changing the required activity to GBq:
1017 MBq x GBq/1000 Bq = 1.02 GBq
volume = activity required C(t)
= 1.02 GBq / 1.47 GBq/mL
= 0.69 mL
If the following reagents are available: Disofenin kit Maximum 99mTc activity to be added: 100 mCi Reconstituting volume: 0.5-3.0 mL [99mTc]pertechnetate Concentration: 25.0 mCi/mL Total volume: 8.0 mL What volume of [99mTc]pertechnetate must be added to the kit to prepare the maximum amount of [99mTc]disofenin from one kit? (a)3.0 mL
(b) 4.0 mL
(c) 8.0 mL
(d) 2.5 mL
(e) 1.5 mL
(a) Based on the activity and volume limits for the kit, up to 100 mCi may be prepared using a volume of 0.5-3.0 mL [99mTc]pertechnetate. Using the maximum reconstituting volume, 75 mci of [99mTc]disofenin can be prepared, an amount within both the volume and activity limits of the kit:
3. 0 mL x 25.0 mCi/mL = 75.0 mCi
When a technologist cares for a patient who is not known to have a communicable disease, all of the following infection control measures should be implemented EXCEPT:
(a)wearing gloves when collecting a blood sample
(b) decontaminating imaging equipment with an antiseptic
(c) handwashing before and after the nuclear medicine examination
(d) using a needle recapping device
(e) maintaining aseptic technique when administering the radiopharmaceutical
(b) Standard precautions should be used routinely with all patients. These precautions include activities such as hand washing, wearing gloves, and recapping needles using a safety device. Decontaminating imaging equipment would be performed only if it came in contact with biological fluids from a patient or with a patient known to be infected with a communicable disease.
