ST - AUBF Flashcards
(50 cards)
1
Q
- Designated tube intended for chemistry and serology in CSF? (A. 1st, B. 2nd, C. 3rd, D. 4th)
A
A. 1st
2
Q
- Is a term used to describe CSF supernatant that is pink, orange, or yellow? (A. Hemolyzed, B. Pellicle, C. Xanthochromia, D. AOTA)
A
C. Xanthochromia
3
Q
- The following description: uneven blood distribution on 3 tubes, clear supernatant, presence of clot, but negative for erythrophage are characteristics of? (A. Intracranial hemorrhage, B. Traumatic tap, C. Meningitis, D. Hepatic coma)
A
B. Traumatic tap
4
Q
- Abnormal condition where there is an increased number of normal cells in CSF? (A. Monocytosis, B. Lymphocytosis, C. Polycythemia, D. Pleocytosis)
A
D. Pleocytosis
5
Q
- Centrifuge should be disinfected? (A. Monthly, B. Weekly, C. Every other shift, D. Daily)
A
B. Weekly
6
Q
- Which of the following results may be expected with the breakdown of urea by bacteria in a urine specimen? (A. Negative glucose, B. Negative nitrite, C. Elevated pH, D. Low pH)
A
C. Elevated pH
7
Q
- The following lead/s to polyhydramnios: (A. Spina bifida, B. Anencephaly, C. Umbilical cord compression, D. A and B)
A
D. A and B
8
Q
- Most of the solutes in urine are: (A. Urea and protein, B. Urea and bilirubin, C. Sodium and protein, D. Urea and sodium chloride)
A
D. Urea and sodium chloride
9
Q
- Normally, night urine volume on an adult would be how much? (A. 1000 mL, B. 400 mL, C. 600 mL, D. 1500 mL)
A
B. 400 mL
10
Q
- Most of the glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus is reabsorbed in what part of the nephron? (A. Proximal tubule, B. Loof Henle, C. Collecting duct, D. Distal tubule)
A
A. Proximal tubule
11
Q
- Step by step documentation of handling and testing of legal specimens (A. Chain of infection, B. Mode of transmission, C. Route of Infection, D. Chain of Custody)
A
D. Chain of Custody
12
Q
- The medtech staff received a urine specimen at 8am and refrigerated it and tested it at 12pm, what tests will most likely be affected? (A. Protein, B. Glucose, C. Ketones, D. Specific gravity)
A
D. Specific gravity
13
Q
- Used to monitor the course of MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS? (A. Rheumatoid factor, B. Myelin basic protein, C. Anti dsDNA, D. Anti CCP)
A
B. Myelin basic protein
14
Q
- Dark brown urine was seen in a urine with low pH after standing, with (+) pseudoperoxidase chem test? (A. RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin, B. Homogentisic acid, C. Methyldopa, D. Metronidazole)
A
A. RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin
15
Q
- 3rd specimen is 10x WBC/hpf count and a bacterial count 10x that of the 1st specimen? (A. Pancreatitis, B. Prostatitis, C. UTI, D. Cystitis)
A
B. Prostatitis
16
Q
- A mousy urine odor is associated with which of the following disorders? (A. Tyrosinemia, B. Trimethylaminuria, C. Methionine malabsorption, D. Phenylketonuria)
A
D. Phenylketonuria
17
Q
- HCG bioassay using Ascheim-zondek injects female鈥檚 urine to the subcutaneous tissue of the: (A. Male frog, B. Female frog, C. Male mice, D. Female mice)
A
D. Female mice
18
Q
- Product of ammonia that indicates a possible hepatic coma? (A. CSF glutamine, B. CSF lactate, C. CSF glucose, D. F2 isoprostanes)
A
A. CSF glutamine
19
Q
- Calibration temperature of the urinometer is 20 degrees. A refrigerated urine specimen with a temperature of 17 degrees gives a specific gravity reading of 1.015. What is the correct reading? (A. 1.015, B. 1.014, C. 1.013, D. 1.016)
A
B. 1.014
20
Q
- What is the principle of the automated reagent strip readers? (A. Reflectance Photometry, B. Nephelometry, C. Turbidimetry, D. Dry slide technology)
A
A. Reflectance Photometry
21
Q
- Which of the following is abnormal? (A. Sputum expectoration, B. Sputum production, C. Translucent sputum, D. Presence of Macrophage)
A
A. Sputum expectoration
22
Q
- Urine clarity grading: 鈥淔ew particulates, print easily through urine鈥? (A. Clear, B. Hazy, C. Cloudy, D. Turbid)
A
B. Hazy
23
Q
- Compute the creatinine clearance (Urine volume: 2,000 mL in 24 hr, Urine creatinine: 150 mg/dl, Plasma creatinine: 3 mg/dl, Patient body surface: 1.8)
A
A. 66.7
24
Q
- A milky urine compounds dissolved after the addition of ether, the urine must have the following except? (A. T. vaginalis, B. Lymph fluids, C. Lipids, D. Chyle)
A
A. T. vaginalis
25
25. Urine Specific Gravity is 1.040, the urine must have? (A. Radiographic dye, B. Plasma expander, C. Amorphous urates, D. A and B)
D. A and B
26
26. A viscous semen that creates a thread longer than 2cm is reported as? (A. Positive, B. Reactive, C. 0, D. 4)
D. 4
27
27. Urine reagent strips should be stored in a/an: (A. Incubator, B. Cool dry place, C. Refrigerator, D. Freezer)
B. Cool dry place
28
28. If lymphocyte count from bronchoalveolar lavage sample reaches >50%, this might indicate: (A. Granulomatous disease, B. Viral infection, C. Hypersensitivity, D. DiGeorge)
C. Hypersensitivity
29
29. The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to: (A. Albumin, B. Bence Jones Protein, C. Mucoprotein, D. Globulin)
A. Albumin
30
30. The following will cause transudates: (I. Nephrotic syndrome, II. Congestive heart failure, III. Endocarditis, IV. Peptic ulcer)
C. I, II
31
31. Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine reagent strip? A. Blood B. Bilirubin C. Leukocyte D. All of the above
D. All of the above
32
32. pKa change of polyelectrolyte is the principle used in what reagent strip test analysis? A. pH B. Protein C. Specific Gravity D. Ketones
C. Specific Gravity
33
33. In cadet proteinuria, the 1st morning specimen will produce what result? A. False negative B. False Positive C. Positive D. Negative
D. Negative
34
34. A milky pleural fluid was tested and shows: - Increase breakdown of cellular lipids - Weakly staining sudan - Pus Cells I. Pseudochylous II. Chylous III. Chronic Inflammation IV. Thoracic Duct Leakage
A. I, III
35
35. Seminal round cells are indicative of: A. Presence of spermatid B. Presence of WBC C. Either A or B D. NOTA
C. Either A or B
36
36. What are the largest cells found in the urinary sediments? A. Renal Tubular Cells B. Transitional Epithelial Cells C. Blood Cells D. Squamous Epithelial Cells
D. Squamous Epithelial Cells
37
37. Which of these urinary calculi are brown, smooth, and hard and have concentric laminations? A. Uric acid B. Oxalate C. Phosphate D. Ammonium urate
A. Uric acid
38
38. Provides objective determination of both SPERM velocity and trajectory? A. PACIA B. Coulter counter C. CASA D. NOTA
C. CASA
39
39. Sperm acrosomal cap is _____ the head and _____ of the nucleus A. 2/3, half B. 1/2, 2/3 C. 1/2, 1/4 D. Half, 1/2
B. 1/2, 2/3
40
40. Which of the following are called 鈥渟tairstep crystals鈥?usually one or more of the corner are Notched? A. Tyrosine B. Crystine - incorrect word C. Bilirubin D. Cholesterol
D. Cholesterol
41
41. A dead sperm will produce what color in a modified bloom鈥檚 test? A. Red B. Bluish white C. Orange D. Brown
A. Red
42
42. It is a variation of the squamous epithelial cell which is indicative of vaginal infection by bacterium Gardnerella vaginalis A. RTE cell B. Clue cell/ Shaggy cell C. Bubble cell D. Koilocyte
B. Clue cell/ Shaggy cell
43
43. Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) cell or ragocytes have WBC with dark cytoplasmic granules containing: A. Round body B. Ingested neutrophil C. Immune complex D. NOTA
C. Immune complex
44
44. Stain that Identifies yellow-brown granules of hemosiderin in cells and casts? A. Hansel B. Prussian blue C. SternheimerMalbin D. Oil red o
B. Prussian blue
45
45. Which of the following is a valuable aid in the identification of urine crystals? A. pH B. Specific gravity C. Volume D. Color
A. pH
46
46. Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to glomerular and alveolar basement membranes A. Berger鈥檚 disease B. Wegener鈥檚 granulomatosis C. Goodpasture syndrome D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
C. Goodpasture syndrome
47
47. Cloudy Red urine shows a positive blood reagent strip, with dysmorphic RBC, (+) WBC, (-) Nitrite, (+) Protein, RBC broadcast (+), this indicates? A. Acute Glomerulonephritis B. Hematuria C. Chronic Glomerulonephritis
C. Chronic Glomerulonephritis
48
48. Deposition of IgA on the glomerular membrane resulting from increased levels of IgA? A. Iga Nephropathy B. Berger鈥檚 Disease C. Nephrotic Syndrome D. A and B.
B. Berger’s Disease
49
49. A 5 hour urine sample was tested for the cause of Steatorrhea, it shows Normal D-xylose, what is the cause of steatorrhea? A. Gall stone B. Gastroenteritis C. Cronn鈥檚 D. Irritable bowel Syndrome
A. Gall stone
50
50. What is the urine and blood albumin in nephrotic syndrome? A. increase, decrease B. Decrease, increase C. Decrease, decrease D. Increase, Increase
A. increase, decrease
