State Board Flashcards by Charlotte Eisele

It is recommended that not more than what percent of the natural texture be removed when relaxing the hair?

а.25%
b.50%
C.75%
D.85%

D. 85 %

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Sodium hydroxide relaxers have an alkaline pH of:

A. 5-6.5
B. 6.5-8
C. 8.5-10
D. 11.5-14

D. 11.5-14

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Ammonium thioglycolate relaxers have a pH of:

A. 4.5-5.5
B. 6.5-7.5
C. 8.5-9.5
D. 10.5-11.5

C. 8.5-9.5

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Super strength ammonium thioglycolate relaxer is used for which of the following hair conditions?
A. fine, porous hair
B. color-treated hair
C. curly, medium-textured hair
D. tightly curled, coarse-textured hair

D. tightly curled, coarse-textured hair

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Virgin relaxers may be applied ¼” (.6 cm) to ½” (1.25 cm) away from the scalp because body heat from the scalp will:

A. cause it to melt
B. cause it to harden
C. diffuse it throughout the hair ends
D. allow it to spread toward the scalp

D. allow it to spread toward the scalp

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following tests should be performed during a chemical relaxer procedure to determine when the hair is relaxed enough or whether additional smoothing is required?
A. comb test
B. strand test
C. metallic salt test
D. preliminary strand test

A. Comb test

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A virgin ammonium thioglycolate relaxer service may be performed after which of the following?
A. light shampoo
B. vigorous shampoo
C. decolorizing service
D. sodium hydroxide relaxer service

A. Light shampoo

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following are terms that describe chemical services that can change tightly curled hair to curly or wavy hair EXCEPT:
A. soft curls
B. relaxer retouch
C. reformation curls
D. double-process perm

B. Relaxer retouch

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All of the following curl rearrangers are appropriately matched with the recommended hair type EXCEPT:
A. mild for fine hair
B. super for fine hair
C. super for resistant hair
D. regular for average hair

B. Super for fine hair

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During a curl reformation service, what causes the hair to soften and swell in order to reform it into a new curl or wave pattern?
a.oil
B. booster
C. rearranger
D. neutralizer

B. Booster

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During a curl reformation service, what causes the hair to soften and swell in order to reform it into a new curl or wave pattern?
a.oil
B. booster
C. rearranger
D. neutralizer

B. Booster

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following layers of skin does not contain any blood vessels?
A. cutis
B. dermis
C. corium
D. epidermis

D. Epidermis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Sudoriferous glands, sebaceous glands, sensory nerve endings, arrector pili muscles and a major portion of each hair follicle are tound in the:
A. reticular
B. epidermis
C.stratum corneum
d. stratum spinosum

A. Reticular

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The subcutaneous layer of the skin is made up of mostly:
a. keratin
b. muscle
C. adipose
D. melanin

C. Adipose

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A solid mass in the skin that may be elevated or deep, soft or hard, fixed or freely movable is called a:
a. crust
B. tumor
C. callus
D. wheal

B. Tumor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following skin lesions often occurs when cracks in the skin appear and skin loses its flexibility due to exposure to wind, cold, water, etc.?
A. stain
B. tumor
C. fissure
D. papule

C . Fissures

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What may happen to the skin if an area is subject to pressure or friction?
a. it may wear thin
B. it may become shiny
C. it may scale and flake
D. it may become callused

D. It may become callused

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the other name for liver spots?
a. rubra
b.crustacea
C. chloasma
D. leukoderma

C. chloasma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the decrease in activity of melanocytes called?
a. acne
b.chloasma
C. leukoderma
D. melanoderma

C. Leukoderma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Key product information, such as toxicology, first-aid, firefighting measures and ecological information, is provided by the:
A.SDS
b.DNR
C.ЕРА
d.USDA

A.SDS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why is it important to add disinfectant to water when diluting a concentrate?
a. prevents dilution
b.prevents foaming
C. prevents disinfection
d. prevents concentration

C. Prevent foaming

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following services normally requires the use of sterilization procedures?
a. perming
b.sculpting
C. electrolysis
D. shampooing

C. Electrolysis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If the skin is not broken following a heat or electrical burn, which of the following actions is recommended to treat the burn area?
a. apply ointment
b.apply warm compress
C. immerse in cool water
D. immerse in warm water

C. Immerse in cool water

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Acid perms are in the pH range of:

a.4.9-5.2
b. 5.9-6.2
C. 6.9-7.2
D. 7.9-8.2

C. 6.9-7.2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Heat and wrapping with firm, even tension when using an acid perm produces which of the following effects? a. increases processing time b. creates uneven wave pattern c. boosts penetration of glyceryl monothioglycolate d. decreases penetration of glyceryl monothioglycolate

C. boosts penetration of glyceryl monothioglycolate

Which base control is the most commonly used during a perm service? a.on base b.off base C.half-off base d.underdirected

C. Half- off base

The function of a curl activator is to provide moisture and: a prevent frizziness b. protect the hairline C.further straighten hair d. help retain shape of a new curl configuration

d. help retain shape of a new curl configuration

When performing a curl reformation service, the perm tool diameter chosen is generally at least how many times larger than the diameter of the natural curl pattern? a. one b. two C.four d. five

b. two

A virgin ammonium thioglycolate relaxer service may be performed after which of the following? a. light shampoo b. vigorous shampoo C.decolorizing service d. sodium hydroxide relaxer service

A. Light shampoo

Rearrangers are used during a curl reformation process to reduce or relax the natural curl pattern. What is the main ingredient found in rearrangers? a. hydrogen peroxide b. sodium hydroxide С.ammonium thioglycolate d. glycerol monothioglycolate

ammonium thioglycolate

Which of the following tests should be performed during a chemical relaxer procedure to determine when the hair is relaxed enough or whether additional smoothing is required? a. comb test b.strand test c. metallic salt test d. preliminary strand test

A. Comb test

When performing a relaxer service, an acid-balanced neutralizing shampoo or stabilizer is used after the hair is free of chemicals and excess moisture to: a. smooth the hair b. reharden the hair c. loosen the shape d. condition the hair

b. reharden the hair

Where does mitosis or cell division of the skin take place? a. stratum basale b. stratum lucidum c. stratum corneum d. stratum granulosum

A. Stratum basale

A secondary lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvery scales is called: a. acne b. eczema c. psoriasis d. herpes simplex

C. Psoriasis

The small openings onto the skin from the sudoriferous glands are called: a. ducts b. pores C.glands d. follicles

B. Pores

The subcutaneous layer of the skin is made up of mostly: a. keratin b. muscle c.adipose d. melanin

C. Adipose

One method to make wide-set eyes appear closer together is: a. uplift the ends of the eyebrow b. make the eyebrow line a high curve C.widen the distance between the eyebrows d. apply shadows and eyeliners near inner corner of eyes

D. Apply shadows and eyeliner near inner corner of eyes

When applying artificial strip eyelashes, begin with the shorter, or inside lashes, and position them midway between the inside corner of the eye and: a. the outer corner of the eye B. the curve where the iris begins c. 1" (2.5 cm) below the client's own lashes d. 1" (2.5 cm) above the client's own lashes

B. The curve of where the iris begins

The active tissue that generates cells, which harden as they move outward to form the nail plate is called the nail: a. cuticle b. matrix c. mantle d. eponychium

B. Matrix

Which nail structure consists of many nerves and blood vessels that supply nourishment? a. nail bed b.nail plate С.nail lunula d. nail mantle

A. Nail bed

The lunula is the half-moon shape at the base of the nail and is the visible part of the: a. nail root b.nail matrix c. hyponychium d. perionychium

B. Nail matrix

The live tissue at the base of the nail is called the: a. mantle b. eponychium c. perionychium d. hyponychium

B. Eponychium

The location of the cuticle is described as: a. tissue under the nail bed b.tissue inside the nail matrix c. tissue attached to the nail root d. overlapping tissue around the nail

D. Overlapping tissue around the nail

The folds of skin on either side of the nail groove are called the: a. nail bed b. sidewalls c. nail plate d. perionychium

b. sidewalls

What is the living tissue that overlies the nail plate on the sides of the nail? a. lunula b. cuticle c. nail wall d. perionychium

d. perionychium

The primary purpose of the free edge of the nail is to: a. beautify the fingertip b. hold moisture in the nail c. protect the sebaceous glands d. protect the tip of the finger and/or toe

d. protect the tip of the finger and/or toe

The living tissue under the free edge of the nail is the: a. lunula b. nail root c. hyponychium d. eponychium

c. hyponychium

Under normal circumstances, the growth of a new fingernail takes approximately: a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 1-3 weeks d.4-6 months

d. 4-6 months

If a nail is lost through disease or infection, what may happen often to the regrown nail? a. grows back faster b. grows back slower c. grows back distorted d.grows back healthier

c. grows back distorted

Any disease, disorder or condition of the nail is called: a. etiology b. onychosis c. onychology d. onychomycosis

b. onychosis

The nail disease referred to as ringworm of the nail is: a. tinea pedis b. paronychia c. tinea manus d. onychomycosis

d. onychomycosis

Tinea pedis appears as itching and peeling of the skin on the feet and must be: a. referred to a physician b. treated with a weekly pedicure c. treated immediately by rinsing in hot water d. soaked in antiseptic, then dried thoroughly

a. referred to a physician

Onychia is an inflammation of the: A. cuticle b. nail wall C.nail matrix d. hyponychium

C. nail matrix

Onychia is an inflammation of the: A. cuticle b. nail wall C.nail matrix d. hyponychium

C. nail matrix

Uneven growth of a nail may cause: a. blue nails b. koilonychia c. leukonychia d. wavy ridges

d. wavy ridges

The disorder in which the nail grows into the edge of the nail grooves, causing ingrown nails, is called: a. onychauxis b. leukonychia c. onychogryposis d. onychocryptosis

d. onychocryptosis

A thickening of the nail plate or an abnormal outgrowth of the nail is called: a. onychia b. pterygium C.onychauxis d. tinea manus

C. onychauxis

White spots on the nail caused by an injury in which a small separation occurs between the nail and the nail bed is called: a. agnails b. blue nails c. leukonychia d. bruised nails

c. leukonychia

Which of the following conditions refers to an excess of living skin that can remain attached to the nail plate and disrupt normal nail growth. a. pterygium b. leukonychia C.bruised nails d. onychophagy

a. pterygium

Onychorrhexis is a term indicating the nail condition called: a. bitten nails b. bruised nails c. split or brittle nails d. pigmentation problems

c. split or brittle nails

What is the nail condition that can be indicated by a green discoloration on the nail plate? a. bruising b. onychorrhexis c. bacterial infection d. a pigmentation problem

c. bacterial infection

Guidelines for disinfecting a pedicure basin each day include all of the following actions EXCEPT: a. drain water from pedicure basin b. leave the disinfectant in the basin overnight c. scrub the areas behind the removable components d. use recommended amount of an approvedEPA-registered disinfectant

B. leave the disinfectant in the basin overnight

A dehydrant is used to help remove moisture and oil and to prevent the growth of: a. viruses b. bacteria c. matrix cells d. wavy ridges

b. bacteria

After applying the primer during a sculptured nail service: a. avoid touching the nail b. moisten the area to allow better adherence c. touch the nail area lightly to ensure it is dry d. saturate the area with acrylic powder to maintain dryness

a. avoid touching the nail

State Board Flashcards

(64 cards)