State Review Flashcards by Robert Kinyon

Binds to narcotic receptor sites in the brain to reverse narcotic - opiate OD

Narcan

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Narcan to an addict =

Withdrawal reaction

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Narcan Adult dose

0.4 - 2mg

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Narcan pedi dose

0.1 mg/kg

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Fastest administration route =

Sublingual

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Intradermal injections are done at what degree?

10-15 degrees

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What are the Central lines in the body?

Internal jugular, femoral, subclavian, GO FOR EXTERNAL JUGULAR

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IV therapy complications are?

Hematoma, infiltration, cellulitis, air embolism, thrombus formation/infection and phlebitis ( which is infection ) NOT SEPSIS.

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Destruction of RBC during venipuncture is?

Hemolysis

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Elevating an arm will not?

Distend vein for venipuncture

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Medications combined with fat and oils is what?

Emulsion

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Mini drip is used for what?

Med-line IV’s

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KVO = what drip rate?

10 gtts/min

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1 pint of blood = how many CC’s?

500

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1 oz = how many CC’s?

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60mg = how many grain?

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Med-I =?

463,000

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Time required for 1/2 of radio active substance to lose activity =

1/2 life

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1/2 life =

Radio active decay

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Routes of medication from slowest to fastest absorption

PO, SQ, IM, ET, IV

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Parenteral routes of drug administration are?

SQ, IM, IV, ET, IO

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SQ injections are contraindicated with a pt in what?

Hypovolemic shock

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Parenteral routes =

SQ, IM, IV not oral (Enteral)

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5% dextrose in H2O should not be given to a pt with what?

Pulmonary edema

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5% dextrose and H2O is used for what conditions?

Dehydration, Med infusion, and AMI

Never give D5w to a pt with what?

Head injury or normal glucose levels

IV set with 15 gtts/ml to administer 50ml an hr =

13 drops per min

Order 25G dextrose from 100cc amp of 50% dextrose, how many CC's will be given?

50 CC's

20 drop set in 30 min running at 50 gtts =

75 ml

60 drop set in 30 min running at 20 gtts=

10 ml

Colloids increase intravascular space the most but take longer to get in due to protein size and molecular weight is what?

Hespan/dextran

Homeostasis AKA?

Dynamic steady state

IV solution closest to plasma is?

Lactated Ringers

Reduces the portability of blood transfusion reaction

Fresh frozen plasma can be used and does not have to be cross matched

Hemorrhagic shock best fluid =

Blood ( definitive ) Lactated ringers in the field 3x blood loss

Universal blood donor

O neg

O Negative =

Negative AB antigens

Universal blood recipient is?

Schedule 1 drugs

Heroin, Mescaline, LSD - NOT Cocaine

Increased amount of a drug to reach a desired effect =

Tolerance

Tricyclic Overdose =

Sodium Bicarbonate

Drug of choice for hyperkalemia (increase potassium) is?

Calcium chloride

Benzo overdose (Valium) reversal is?

Romazicon/ flumazanil

Morphine is given by what routes?

IV and IM

Morphine OD causes what symptoms?

Hypotension and Resp depression ( same for all opiates, benzo/barbiturates)

Clinical signs of shock do not give?

SQ injection

Major problems with catheter thru the needle system is?

Catheter embolus

Bretylium dose

5mg/kg

Benadryl dose

25-50 mg (IVP)

First compensatory mechanism to maintain homeostasis is?

Bicarbonate buffer then Resp and renal

Hydrogen protons that make pH balance is located where?

Kidneys

Hydrogen Ions are eliminated by what?

Kidneys

Decreased O2 in blood

Hypoxemia

Decreased O2 in the lungs

Hypoxia

Hyperventilation syndrome in a pt is what state?

Resp Alkalosis

The use of energy to move particles across a membrane

Active transport

Major extra cellular cation

Sodium

Major intracellular cation is

Potassium

Magnesium , calcium help with

Electrical and nerve conduction

Sodium helps with

Fluid regulation

Excretory function of blood is to remove

Urea, creatine, lactic acid and waste ; primarily lactic acid from cells

Normal stimulus to breath is

Increased PACO2, Arterial

pH less than 7.35 and pCO2 greater than 40 is

Resp acidosis

pH less than 7.35, pCO2 greater than 40 and HC03 or PO2 less than 24

Metabolic acidosis

pH greater than 7.45 and pCO2 less than 40

Resp Alkalosis

Need blood gases for anion gap; should not see as an answer

Metabolic Acidosis

Primary treatment of a near drowning victim

Management of Hypoxia and Acidosis

Battle signs and raccoon eyes are a contraindication for what airway?

NPA

Pulmonary ventilation =

Remove excess CO2 (normal balance)

One of the major purposes of pulmonary ventilation is

The ability to retain or eliminate CO2

Intubation of a child under 8 =

Uncuffed

Macintosh blade is inserted

Between epiglottis (vallecula) and base of tongue

Miller blade lifts

Epiglottis

(Mean) =

15-17 Resp per min adult RR

Is not an airway sound?

Cough

Crichothyroid performance =

Laryngeal edema and facial trauma

The EGTA is used on a

Comatose adult

Complications of a BVM

Abd distention, pushes diaphragm down and leads to vomiting

Air in the stomach makes intubation difficult because of

Vomiting and also aspiration risk

O2 delivered via NC =

22-44%

Narrowest part of adult airway is

Glottic opening

Contraindication for EOA (combitube) is

Less than 16 y/o , esophageal varices, ingestion of caustic substances, positive gag reflex, less than 5' or over 6'8"

Civil wrong doing such as medical negligence

Tort law

If your dispatched to a scene, you have a ?

Duty to act

Comparing your actions under same/similar circumstances with that of other similar trained medics.

Standard of Care

All refusals must be what type of consent?

Informed consent

Physicians with the most authority on scene

On line physician

Negligence =

Breech of duty Duty to act Proximate cause, damages or harm * intent not needed

The greatest threat for false imprisonment is

Psychiatric pt's

Granting privileges by Dr's to medics to perform skills is called

Delegation of authority

Malpractice term where cause direct injury to a pt is called

Proximate cause

Labor and negligence law is

Tort law

Standards governing a group of people or profession is called

Ethics

Who are ethical standards developed for?

Pt's

Indirect medical control is called

Standing orders

If a medic is charged with negligence they are the

Defendant

Directly caused harm or injury in a negligence case is what?

Proximate cause

Assessment of calls begin when?

When the call is dispatched

Ambulance crashes, court will try to prove?

Lack of due regard

Difficult or painful breathing

Dyspnea

Prevents over expansion of the lungs

Hearing-Breuer reflex

Decrease oxygen in the lungs

Hypoxia

Decrease partial pressure of O2 in the blood

Hypoxemia

Increased PACO2 ,Aterial

Normal stimulus to breath

Hypoxic drive or a pt with COPD's stimulus to breath is

Decreased O2 levels

Medications for COPD pt is

Aminophylline, albuterol, bronkosol

Vasoconstriction causes this condition

Skin pallor

Whistling sound during exhalation consider

Asthmatic bronchiolitis

Fluid/ mucous in LARGE airway will have what sound?

Rhonchi

Stridor at night with seal type bark is what condition

Croup

Poor airway compliance seen in

Sucking chest wounds / tension pneumothorax / flail chest NOT pleurisy or pleuritis

One of the major purposes of pulmonary VENTILATION

Ability to retain or eliminate CO2

One of the major advantages of RESPIRATION is

To increase absorption of O2 by the cells

Classic sign of Anaphylaxis is

Hypotension

Chronic bronchitis, an acute exacerbation =

Resp acidosis and tachycardia

Fever , rhonchi, hot and dry skin NO PEDAL EDEMA

Pneumonia

20 yr old asthmatic pt has not reacted to normal treatment, use what?

Aminophyline

Blue bloater, fat, increased mucous production, chronic cough, NOT A PINK PUFFER

Chronic bronchitis

Pink puffer, Barrel chest, thin, pursed lip breathing to create back pressure to open alveoli, SOB, cough generally in the morning with increased mucous

Emphysema

Coughing up blood

Hemoptysis

Cough up pink tinged sputum is

Hemoptysis and s/s of Left sided HF / pulmonary edema

Left sided ventricular damage is

CHF

IV for COPD pt is

KVO 55 dextrose in Sterile water

Use N/C or Venturi mask in a pt with?

Emphysema

Air trapped in the pleural space

Pneumothorax

Neurogenic/ anaphylactic and septic shock cause what due to VASODILATION?

Hypotension

Neurogenic, anaphylactic and septic shock are all what type of shock?

Distributive shock

Responsible for the transport and delivery of O2

Hemoglobin

Rumbling sound, fever, no edema is what condition?

Pneumonia

What is a side effect of hyperventilation

Carpal pedal spasms

Underlying cause of R sided heart failure

Cor pulmonade

Hypertension and JVD

Emphysema

Treatment for pulmonary edema / CHF =

LMNO Lasix (40mg) slow IVP Morphine sulfate (2mg) slow IVP Nitro (0.4mg) sublingual O2

Salt water drowning =

Respiratory alkalosis, CO2 retention and pulmonary edema

Fresh water drowning =

Hemodilution or hemolysis

Escape of fluid from vascular space into pleural space = pleural friction rub lung sounds

Pleural effusion

20 to 30 y/o thin smokers and males more prone to

Spontaneous pneumothorax

Pt 70 y/o with SOB and Orthopnea can't lie flat DRIED BLOOD on LIPS is

Pulmonary edema

Bright red frothy blood at mouth w/ each exhalation =

Lung damage

Long bone fx at risk of what?

Fat embolism

RR x tidal volume in one minute is

Minute volume

Inflammation of the bronchioles with expiratory wheezing.

Bronchiolitis

Sudden onset of wheezing in ONE LUNG / Lobe is

Foreign body aspiration ( especially if just finished eating)

Decrease in intrathoratic pressure relative to environment (Active) CONTRACTION OF MUSCLES.

Inhalation

As volume in the thoracic cavity increases = pressure decreases

Exhalation (passive)

Amount of air inhaled and exhaled during one respiratory cycle

Tidal volume

Irregular breathing pattern with periods of apnea gradually increasing and decreasing

Biots breathing

Aminophylline aka Theophylline dose

5-6 mg/kg

Average tidal volume in one respiration is

500cc

Smooth muscle relaxant used with bronchial asthma is what?

Aminophylline

Knife like pain describes what condition

Spontaneous pneumo

Treatment in order for pulmonary edema is

1. O2 2. Monitor 3. IV 4. Nitro .4 mg

Collapsed alveoli with decreased ventilation =

Atelectasis

Respiratory drive- hypoxic drive aka back up drive is what type of disease

COPD

Decreases ventilatory effectiveness

Collapse of alveoli

Exchange of gasses between internal and external environment

Respirations

Ventilation / perfusion mismatch is called what

ARDS

Transports O2 ( iron containing component of RBC)

Hemoglobin

Ventilation problem , thoracic injury which leads to Resp pattern

Ataxic respirations

Asthmatics pt's main treatment is to what?

Relieve bronchospasms

Signs and symptoms of respiratory distress is

Nasal flaring, tracheal tugging, sternomastoid muscle use, intercostal retractions

Tension pneumothorax treatment is?

O2, decompress, transport, IV en route

Pulmonary Emboli S/S is?

Dyspnea, SOB, pleuritic pn, tachycardia

No JVD with ?

Pulmonary embolism

Tx for anaphylactic shock is ?

Epi 1 mg 1:10,000 IV and Benadryl 25-50mg

Bee,hornet, wasp stings / PCN injection are the fastest and most frequent cause of?

Anaphylaxis

Left sided ventricular damage is called ?

CHF

Use a NC or Venturi mask in pt's with

Emphysema

Hyperventilation helps to correct

Respiratory acidosis

Air trapped in the pleural space is called?

Pneumothorax

Neurogenic/ Anaphylactic & septic shock cause hypotension due to?

Vasodilation

Underlying cause of Right sided HF

Cor pulmonade

Carpal pedal spasms are a side effect of?

Hyperventilation

Hypertension and JVD are S/S of ?

Emphysema

Primary concern for a near drowning is?

Hypoxia and acidosis

Difficulty breathing while lying down is

Orthopnea

70 y/o pt. with SOB and Orthopnea, can't lie flat with dried blood on his lips

Pulmonary edema

Bright red frothy blood at mouth with each exhalation =

Lung damage

Orthopnea S/S =

Pulmonary edema and suggests right sided HF or CHF

Long bone fx at risk of?

Fat embolism

RR x tidal volume in one minute =

Minute volume

Inflammation of bronchioles with expiratory wheezing is ?

Bronchiolitis

Sudden onset of wheezing in one lung / lobe is ?

Foreign body aspiration ( especially if just finished eating )

Salt water drowning S/S

Respiratory alkalosis, CO2 retention and pulmonary edema

Average tidal volume in one respiration is?

500cc

Irregular breathing pattern with periods of apnea gradually increasing and decreasing is what kind of breathing pattern?

Biots

Atelectasis means ?

Lack of surfactant

Transports O2 ( iron containing component of RBC )

Hemoglobin

Pulmonary edema can be caused by what?

Over Hydrating your pt

O2 saturation in peripheral tissue

Pulse Oximetry

Aminophylline aka Theophylline dose=

5-6 mg/kg

Smooth muscle relaxant used for bronchial asthma

Aminophylline

Spontaneous pneumothorax description =

Knife like pain

Collapsed alveoli with decreased ventilation =

Atelectasis

Complete or partial collapse of a lung or lobe is called ?

Atelectasis

Exchange of gases between internal and external environment is called?

Respiration

Thrombus formation in deep veins of legs that travel to pulmonary artery are called ?

Pulmonary embolus

Recent delivery of a child can cause a?

Pulmonary embolus

Best tool for exposing a cars locking mechanism

Air chisel

Repeater in a Telemetry system increases?

Transmitting and receiving range

Telemetry system in which voice and ekg can be transmitted at the same time is called?

Multiplex system

Radio transmissions can be reduced due to?

Holding the radio vertically , no repeater, weak battery

The ability to listen and speak at the same time is what type of telemetry system?

Duplex

Group of frequencies close together are called a

Band

VHF and UHF are bands used for?

Medical communications

EKG's transmitted and decoded is called ?

Oscilloscope

Malicious writing is called

Libel

Malicious words spoken is called

Slander

Established policies and procedures of EMS system is called?

Protocol

Most fatalities of rescuers happen in ?

Confined space rescues

First step of extrication is?

Gaining access to pt

Cannot transmit or receive data at the same time is what type of telemetry system?

Simplex

One of the first signs of hypovolemic shock is?

Tachycardia

Earliest sign of any type of shock is?

AMS ( Altered Mental Status )

Factor common to all forms of shock?

In adequate tissue perfusion

Most reliable indicator of severity of injury in Trauma is

MOI ( Mechanism of Injury )

Damage to tissue due to high speed bullet

Cavitation

Swollen/ protruding / bulging tongue would indicate what?

Traumatic asphyxia

Traumatic asphyxia is most commonly caused by what?

Crush injury to chest or abdomen

When surveying the scene initially of an MCI you do not have to report ?

Life threatening injuries

For trauma in the field give 3 times estimated blood loss of ?

Lactated ringers

Abdominal evisceration tx consist of what?

Treat for shock, O2, cover organs with a moist stable saline soaked dressing. DO NOT PUT ORGANS BACK

Tension pneumothorax S/S

Dyspnea, mediastinal shift away from affected area / JVD

Explosion tx consist of?

Asses airway, ventilate, oxygenate, stop arterial bleeding and treat closed femur fx

Blast injury primary phase is?

Rupture of large intestines / hollow organs

S/S of Neurogenic shock

Hypotension, bradycardia, warm/dry skin below level of injury following trauma

ICP, bradycardia, irregular Resp, elevated BP are S/S of what?

Cushings triad

S/S of ICP include?

Bradycardia, vomiting, irregular or unequal pupils ( NOT HYPOTENSION )

Trauma victim w pulse of 40, BP 200/120 and increased ICP S/S of what condition?

Cushings triad

High cervical fracture impairs what?

Respirations

Anaerobic metabolism means?

Without O2

Atropine pediatric dose?

0.02 mg/kg

Atropine adult dose

.5-1.0 mg

Pediatric sodium bicarbonate dose?

1 meq/kg

Adult sodium bicarbonate dose?

1 meq/kg

Bretylium pedi dose?

5 mg/kg

Bretylium adult dose?

5 mg/kg

Epi 1:1000 pedi dose?

.01 mg/kg

Epi pedi dose for a CODE?

0.1 mg/kg

Epi 1:10,000 adult dose?

.3-.5 mg

Epi pediatric dose 1:10,000 CODE only

.01 mg/kg

Haldol adult dose

2-5 mg

Lidocaine pedi dose?

1.0 mg/kg

Lidocaine adult dose?

1.0-1.5 mg/kg

Mag Sulfate adult dose?

1-2 g over 1-2 min

Morphine adult dose?

2-5 mg

Narcan pedi dose?

0.1 mg/kg

Narcan Adult dose?

0.4-2 mg

Oxytocin adult dose?

10-20 units

Valium adult dose?

2-10 mg

In an adult with a partial FBAO what would be your first intervention?

Encourage or to cough

Thin shaped valve covering the trachea?

Epiglottis

Landmark for a cricoid stick is?

Cricoid cartilage or depression inferior to Adam's apple

Contraindication for crichothyrotomy is?

Crush injury to the larynx

Sellicks maneuver/ cricoid pressure is used for what purpose?

Displaces esophagus posterior and increases vocal chord visualization.

Narrowest part of an adult airway?

Glottic opening

Good Samaritan act offers protection when?

While off duty

The FDA governs what?

The safety of drugs

Granting privileges by Dr's to paramedics to perform skills is called what?

Delegation of authority

Malpractice term where direct injury has been caused to a pt is called ?

Proximate cause

JVD beat evaluated in what position?

Semi fowlers @ 45 degrees

Device that transfers electrical energy into sound waves is called?

Transmitter

Proper radio procedure?

Speak clearly and keep message brief

First phase of EMS is?

Public access to 911

Best way to avoid anaphylactic reaction is to?

Ask allergy hx

One man carry that's not used often due to pt's weight on rescuer is called what?

Firemans carry

Technique used with a LSB in narrow spaces as an alternative to the four man roll is called what?

Four man straddle slide

What is the maximum amount of a crystalloid fluid given to an adult trauma victim?

2000-3000 mL

How long do abdominal bleeds take to occur?

2-3 hours

In a stab wound to the neck at the jugular vein, what should you expect and what would your treatment be?

Suspect an air embolism and apply pressure to the wound and position on left side.

Ecchymosis behind the ear or mastoid process is called what from what type of injury?

Battle signs form basilar skull fx

Electrical burns cause what type of of burns?

Superficial and deep burns

Route of passage for electrical burns is determined by ?

Entrance and exit wounds

In electrical burns entrance and exit wounds, the current follows?

Nerve pathways and may cause V-Fib and more internal than external damage

MAST/PASG inflation order?

L leg, R leg then abd

MAST/PASG deflation order?

Abd, R leg then L leg

AAA stands for what?

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm, femoral pulses in scenario " do not give nor Epi "

For needle decompression place needle where?

2nd or 3rd intercostal space mid clavicular or 4th or 5th intercostal space midaxillary

Sequence pleural decompression order is?

O2, decompress, transport and IV in route

MVA pt with HR 120, BP 40 palp what condition is pt in?

Hypovolemic shock

Left femur, spleen or chest injury and right sides head injury is what condition?

Wadell's triad

Pinching or cutting of nerves and blood vessels is cause by what type of fracture?

Severely angulated fx

Spinal injury with intercostal retractions suspect?

Cervical spine

15ft fall, pt with flat neck veins /chest Dull to percussion is ?

Hemothorax

Muffled /distant heart sounds , narrowing pulse pressure decreased BP (NOT FLAT NECK VEINS) is what condition?

Becks triad

Becks triad indicates what?

Cardiac tamponade

Flat neck veins are seen with what conditions?

Dehydration, hypovolemia, hemothorax ( NOT CARDIC TAMPONADE )

Alkali burns (strong base) strongest and most severe caused from?

Drano or oven cleaner

A pt with major burns has hypovolemic shock due to?

Plasma loss , interstitial fluid shift

Paradoxical respirations is cause by what?

Flail chest ( 3+ ribs in 2+ places )

In an MVA with a collapsed steering wheel look for?

Flail chest

Most serious complication of a joint injury is?

Nerve damage

Fracture straight across shaft of bone is what type of fracture?

Transverse

Most common fracture in the body?

Clavicle

Childs most common fx?

Green stick

Spiral fx in a child suspect?

Abuse

Fx at the elbow, immobilize in what position?

Position found

Sprain=

Torn

Strain =

Stretched

Affective nerve pathways send what type of messages to the brain?

Sensory ( affective = ascending )

Effector nerve pathways send what type of messages from the brain to the body?

Motor ( descending sends down )

Most commonly injured abdominal organ from blunt trauma is?

Liver ( RUQ )

Motor cycle crash with 3" scalp lac, pt A&Ox3, tachy and low BP treatment is what?

Normal saline KVO ( not LR wide open )

Trauma with fascia separation is what?

Avulsion

Most common type of MVA in rural areas are?

Frontal or head-on collision

The kidneys rely on what for perfusion?

Stroke volume

Exsanguinate means?

Loss of blood to the point that life cannot be sustained / bleeding out

Closed head injury tx?

Lactated Ringers only ( do not use NS or D5W )

Cold windy night, alcoholic unarousable , V-fib, no respiration. Treatment would consist of ?

Airway, defib x 3 , CPR and transport

Single vehicle MVC, one person dead and another ejected with a badly lacerated scalp and unconscious. Treatment would consist of ?

Open airway and stabilize C-spine

Pupil response if from what cranial nerve?

Cranial nerve #3

Upper area of uterus is called?

Fundus

When does the placenta deliver?

End of the third stage of labor

During a pregnancy the females blood volume increases by how much?

40% with relative anemia ( most blood increase is plasma )

Oxytocin is released by what?

Pituitary gland

Acetylcholine is also released by what?

Pituitary gland

Small pea shaped glands are called?

Parathyroid gland

Normal pregnancy length is what?

280 days, 9 mos , 10 lunar months and 40 normal weeks

Word used to describe a woman's first pregnancy?

Prima gravida

Woman who has delivered her first child is called what?

Prima para

What do you do with a clamped and cut cord that continues to bleed?

Clamp again

Fertilization of ovum outside the uterus , may stay in the tube is what type of pregnancy?

Ectopic

Most common Fallopian tube?

Ectopic pregnancy

The usual place of fertilization in a female pregnancy?

Fallopian tubes

The umbilical cord has how many veins and arteries?

2 arteries and one vein. ( LARGER OPENING ) umbilical cannulation via vein

Heimlich in pregnancy is performed by what means?

Chest compressions

In an MVA save the mom or child?

Mom

Mom gave birth 24 hrs ago, now sudden onset of SOB/ dyspnea and chest pain suspect what?

Pulmonary embolism

26 y/o multi gravida with prior c-sections, C/C full term with contractions 3-4 min apart, tearing pn, no signs of bleeding, suspect what?

Abruptio placenta

Premature separation of placenta from wall of uterus is what?

Abruptio placenta

Minimal dark red bleeding, rigid uterus and shock, can also be described as a tearing pn is what?

Abruptio placenta

Placenta covers the cervical opening is ?

Placenta previa

Bright red blood and painless is the classic differentiation of ?

Placenta previa

APGAR stands for?

Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiratory rate ( score under 6 intervention required )

APGAR is check at what specific times?

1 min and 5 minutes

40 y/o female with loss of appetite and RUQ tenderness, urine is TEA color is what?

Hepatitis

22 y/o female with severe pn LRQ, no appetite with constipation, suspect what?

Appendicitis

Do not allow to clean perineum with this type of pt?

Rape victim : tx all major trauma/ emotionally support and allow a family member to be present : female medic is best if available

Hypertension, edema, proteinuria are s/s of what?

Pre eclampsia ( not seizures )

Treatment for eclampsia use what?

Mag sulfate (first choice) or 5-10 mg Valium

Usually in the 9th month of pregnancy but can occur at anytime during the 3rd trimester.

Toxemia of pregnancy

Seizures from Toxemia ( Eclampsia ) occur when?

In the 9th month but can occur anytime during 3rd trimester.

What is the main characteristic of Eclampsia?

Seizures

What is the primary cause of the transmission of AIDS?

Unprotected sex

Purple and blue lesions in the mouth and other areas of the body are called what and are a complication of what disease?

Karposi's Sarcoma, HIV

32 y/o with excruciating head ache while working out and lost consciousness, unresponsive with bilateral dilated pupils is what condition?

Cerebral Aneurysm

Common cause of uterine bleed in the first trimester?

Threatened abortion, incomplete abortion, ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

Amenorrhea of less than 12 weeks/sharp sudden unilateral lower abdominal pain with severe shock NOT 3rd trimester bleeding is what?

Ectopic pregnancy

22 y/o RLQ pain radiating to RT shoulder, no menses w/ spotting today is what?

Ectopic pregnancy

Blood and other matter discharged from the uterus during menstruation is called what?

Menses

BP decreases during what month of pregnancy?

Third

Time from conception to delivery is called?

Prenatal period

Before birth AKA prenatal period?

Antepartum

A baby born within the first few hours is considered?

Newborn

Birth through one month of age is considered?

Neonate

Neonates lose body heat mostly via?

Evaporation

Contractions to dilation is what stage of labor?

First stage

Dilation to crowning full dilation is what stage of labor?

Second stage

Delivery of fetus to placenta delivery is what stage of labor?

Third stage

If you suspect abruptio placenta your treatment would be?

High flow O2, Lactated ringers and monitor VS every 5 min

Serous membrane covering abdominal organs?

Visceral

If you suspect abruptio placenta your treatment would be?

High flow O2, Lactated ringers and monitor VS every 5 min

Medication that stops uterine contractions?

Brethine

Medication that encourages uterine contractions to decrease bleeding?

Pitocin

Most common UTI is?

Cystitis

Hyperglycemia in pregnancy is called?

Gestational diabetes

PPE for delivery of a baby?

Gloves/mask/gown/protective eyewear

Most common cause of PID?

Gonorrhea

All s/s kidney stones except?

Frequent urination

Frequent urination is a s/s of what?

UTI

Definite delivery imminent encourage pt to?

Push, crowning, contractions 1-2 min apart

Retroperitoneal =

Kidneys

Arm and leg presentation what would you do?

Transport immediately PERIOD

Normal "fight or flight response" would be?

* Alpha and Beta stimulation * Sympathetic Nervous System : clammy skin, tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction , dilated pupils, slowed digestion/ constriction of sphincter muscles * sympathomimetic

Bilateral dilated pupils usually indicates?

Cerebral hypoxia

Lower extremity check for paralysis consist of asking pt to do ?

Wiggle toes

Damage in the brain stem causes what?

Decerebrate posturing

Damage can be above brainstem, can cause what?

Decorticate posturing

Body extremities upper comes to the core meaning?

Corticate

Posturing indicates what?

Cerebral injury

23 y/o working out in the gym with an explosive headache, what could be the cause of these symptoms?

Subarachnoid Aneurysm

Eyes don't move in unison?

Dysconjugate gaze

Failure of the eyes to rotate simultaneously in the same direction or the eyes gazing in different directions?

Conjugate / dysconjugate gaze

Extended extremities would indicate what?

Decerebrate posturing

Epidural hematoma description

Fast arterial bleed

Subdural hematoma description

Slow venous bleed ( problems can occur hours/ days later )

Brief period of unconsciousness followed by a return to complete function?

Concussion

Part of the brain that controls posture?

Cerebellum

Severed C4 vertebrae would cause what damage to the body?

Total paralysis, motor and respiratory paralysis, can't breathe on their own= quadriplegic

Increased ICP should be hyperventilated for?

20-24 and mannitol given for ICP

Series of increased and decreased respirations followed by apnea is what?

Cheyne-stokes

Rapid, irregular in rate and volume with periods of apnea is ?

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

Pt fell from the 3rd floor, R lung sounds absent, fractured leg what's your tx?

Open airway, BVM w/O2, decompress R side, PASG device then transport w/ 2 large bore IV's

Injury to the opposite side of the head or opposite side of injury is called?

Countercoup

Balance, coordination and motor control all controlled by what part of the brain?

Cerebellum

Drug used for ICP?

Mannitol

Halo test checks for what?

CSF

21 y/o male with C/C of severe headache

Aneurysm

Unequal pupils suggest?

CNS injury or a neurological crisis

T4 injury would cause paralysis where?

Below the nipple line

T10 injury would cause paralysis where?

Below the umbilicus

Thought, intelligence and higher brain function is controlled by what part of the brain?

Cerebrum

Slow venous bleed?

Subdural

Fast Arterial bleed?

Epidural

Treatment of a pt with a syncopal episode?

EKG, IV KVO and accucheck, DO NOT PLACE IN FOWLERS POSITION

DO NOT give 5% D5W wide open to a pt who has suffered?

CVA or seizure

Treatment for a pt who has had a CVA or seizure?

O2, airway, EKG

Seizures w/o regaining consciousness between 2 or more seizures is called?

Status epilepticus

Classic S/S of a stroke?

Aphasia, loss of memory, hemiplegia

Aphasia means?

Language disorder, unable to speak properly

Hemiplegia means?

Paralysis of one side of the body

Increased carbon dioxide in the blood is called what?

Hypercarbia

One pupil slow and non reactive, other slow to respond is what?

Neurological crisis

Transport stroke pt in what position?

Left lateral recumbent

Blood under dura?

Subdural

Outside skull to brain in order?

Dura, arachnoid, pia

Inside brain to skull?

Pia, arachnoid, dura

Part of the brain that effects vision?

Occipital / injury causes the vision to be affected.

If old, Pt's medical hx: diabetic, stroke, aphasic, syncopal episodes, dementia, recent surgery, immobilized in warm comfortable environment, cool, pale, diaphoretic w/ no apparent or obvious chest pn. Accucheck wnl, consider?

Silent MI, monitor for ekg changes

Medication and dosage used for seizures?

Valium/ diazepam 5-10 mg

Status epilepticus treatment?

NPA, O2, IV with NS, keep safe DO NOT INTUBATE: medical emergency and priority pt

Seizure pt's deemed a priority if?

No response between seizures or in status state.

Seizures common in children?

Febrile

Seizures mistaken for daydreaming?

Absence

Seizures found in children of short duration w/no LOC can occur 100 times per day are?

Focal motor

Clonic movements of one hand, one arm, one leg, or one side of the face are what?

Focal motor

Major contraindication of thrombolytic tx?

Bleeding out

Major complication of thrombolytic therapy is?

Recent surgery

Scenario: with a syncopal pt, do all EXCEPT?

Lift pt in sitting position

EKG-No P waves, SA node is not the pacemaker, assume what rhythm?

A-Fib

Increased HR ( + chronotrope ) and blood vessel constriction ( Increased PVR peripheral vascular resistance ) fills the tank =

BETA receptor stimulation or stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

JVD, narrowing pulse pressure, clear lungs, muffled distant heart sounds is what condition?

Cardiac Tamponade

A late sign of a tension pneumothorax and cardiac tamponade is what?

Tracheal deviation

Most unstable or lethal ectopic beats originate where?

Ventricles

Most deaths after an MI occur within what time frame?

2 hours

Tricyclic OD shows all irregularities on an EKG except?

Inverted T waves

Part of the heart most commonly damaged?

Left ventricle

A pain in the chest that has a searing/ tearing sensation that radiates to the neck with no pedal pulses is what?

Aortic Aneurysm

Stable angina responds to what?

Rest and Nitro

Stable angina occurs when?

During exercise and stress

Unstable angina may not subside with rest, if not consider?

AMI

(DVT) Thrombi in deep part of the legs migrates where?

Right Ventricle ( venous side )

Pink frothy sputum, cyanosis, rales, tachycardia consider?

Pulmonary edema

Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs, which portion of the heart has the lowest amount of oxygen?

Right atrium

Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood to the heart, which portion of the heart has the highest amount of oxygen?

Left atrium

Arteries carry blood?

Away from the heart

Veins carry blood?

To the heart

PEA=

Not pneumonia

Pressure of blood against the Arterial wall during heart beats is the definition of what?

Systolic BP

Pressure of blood against Arterial walls BETWEEN heart beats?

Diastolic BP

Adrenal glands secrete?

Epinephrine

The amount of blood EJECTED from the heart during each contraction (systole)

Stroke volume

If stroke volume does not change but HR decreases?

Cardiac output decreases

What do coronary arteries do?

Perfuse the heart

Coronary arteries empty via?

Coronary sinus

Coronary occlusion =

Thrombosis

Peripheral vasoconstriction =

Pallor

Wide bizarre look on the monitor is?

V-Tach

EKG paper large blocks =

.20 seconds

EKG paper small blocks =

.04 seconds

P-R interval greater than .20 sec is a diagnostic for?

Heart block

P-R interval is measured from the beginning of?

P wave

P waves get wider until QRS drops =

Wenkebach mobitz I

Re-entry may cause premature beats meaning?

Tachydysrythmias (ex. PAC )

Wide QRS rhythm w/ no p waves is what type of rhythm?

Idioventricular

V- Fib will occur if cardioverted on?

T wave

Calcium channel blockers decrease?

Medulla, Pons and aortic arch are all?

Chemoreceptors

Regulates BP/RR/Pulse?

Medulla Oblongota

The parasympathetic Neurotransmitter is?

Acetylcholine

Stimulation of the vagus nerve produces?

Acetylcholine

Neurotransmitter of the vagus nerve produces?

Acetylcholine

Side effect of Bretylium is?

Postural / Orthostatic hypotension

Two sided heart failure =

Pulmonary edema

85 y/o w/ severe headache, nausea/ vomiting, dizziness BP 210/120 =

Hypertensive crisis

Epinephrine causes all of the following :

Increased automaticity, HR, BP ****NOT DECREASED SYSTEMIC RESISTANCE *****

Ability of heart to generate its own electrical impulses is what?

Automaticity

Hypotensive pt treatment?

Dopamine, fluid bolus, Epi drip, trendelenburg *** NOT FOWLERS***

60 y/o pt, 110 lbs, heart palpitations, pulse 145, BP 110/60, RR 24, EKG = wide complex tachycardia. Treatment would be?

Lidocaine 1-1.5 mg/kg or 50 mg IVP

Epi stimulates the heart in?

Asystole

Causes vasoconstriction ( alpha 1 property )

Nor Epi

Decreased workload and decreased preload is caused by what?

CHF

JVD=

Increased venous pressure

Right heart failure ( man sitting at 45 degrees ) causes what?

JVD

Adult female who's tachycardic, VS are WNL, she does not meet cardioversion criteria, what would you do?

Try to calm her, O2 and vagal

Central venous pressure is aka?

Right Arterial pressure

Procainamide is a?

Antiarythmic

Used for PVC's, V-Tach, maintenance of NSR after conversion from A-Fib and A-Flutter

Procainamide

Adrenal glands release?

Epi and Nor Epi ( sympathetic nervous system "fight or flight" )

Norepinephrine is what stimulant?

Alpha and Beta

Atropine given to slow causes?

Paradoxical bradycardia

Atropine works by blocking what?

Parasympathetic nervous system

Atropine side effects:

Tachycardia, blurred vision, dry mouth ** NOT SWEATING ***

Blocks the effects of the vagus nerve?

Atropine

Used to treat asystole, bradycardia, 2nd degree heart block? *** NOT PSVT***

Atropine

Alpha 1 stimulation causes what?

Increased HR, skeletal muscle contraction and Arterial constriction *** NOT BRONCHODILATION******

If pt is in V-Tach, unconscious, No VS, defib at?

200j / 300j / 360j

Pt's with PVC's and Bradycardia do not give ?

Lidocaine

Early s/s of lidocaine toxicity is?

Muscle twitching or tremors/ parasthesia ( numbness and tingling )

Lidocaine overdose S/S?

Hypotension and seizures

If the question says toxicity or OD they are looking for

Seizures, hypotension, tremors, paresthesia ( numbness and tingling )

Side effects of lidocaine are?

Hypotension and bradycardia

A build of lactic acid during cardiac arrest causes the body to be in what state?

Metabolic acidosis

Lidocaine dose for pulseless v-tach is?

1 mg/kg then 1.5 mg/kg

Lidocaine can be administered via what routes?

ET,IV,IO

Lidocaine dose for a code is

1.5 mg/kg followed by 1.5 mg/kg

Next drug after lidocaine for multifocal PVC's is?

Procainamide

A lidocaine drip using 60 gtts/min at 20 gtts/min will deliver what amount in 30 min trip to the hospital?

10 ml

Lidocaine drip of 2 G in 250 ml bag of D5W is ?

15 drops

Lidocaine drip 2 G in 500 ml bag of D5W is?

30 drops

Lidocaine drip 2 G in 1000ml bag of D5W is ?

60 drops

Lidocaine dose for a pt that weighs 110lbs would be?

50 mg then 2-4 mg/min

Lidocaine dose for an 80 kg pt with PVC's is?

100 mg

Intubate a cardiac arrest pt when?

Right away

R on T phenomenon can cause?

V-tach / V-fib

Synchronized cardioversion occurs on what point of an EKG?

R wave

On fast patches, the Gel on the patches decreases what?

Defibrillation/ paddle resistance to increase conduction

Gallop heart sound classified as S3 is a S/S of what?

CHF

If you shock a pt with a pacemaker, where would you not place the fast patch and at what joules would you set the monitor?

200 j and not over the pacemaker

Rhythm strip on the monitor shows some kind of indiscernible block what would your treatment be?

O2/ monitor and transport

Morphine is a ?

Vasodilator

A major side effect of certain diuretic treatments is what?

Hypokelemia

Ascites means?

Fluid in the abdomen

Fluid in the lungs ( ascites ) is usually a result of what medical conditions?

CHF or liver dysfunction

Verapamil side effects are?

Hypotension, coronary artery dilation, bradycardia. ****NOT TACHYCARDIA****

Other names for verapamil are?

Isotopin/ Calan ( calcium channel blockers )

Treatment of a pt with pulmonary edema?

LMNO : Lasix, morphine, nitro, O2 *** NOT SOLUMEDROL**

All are vasopressors except? 1. Levephed 2. Nor Epi 3. Intropin 4. Atropine

Atropine

Beta blockers are used to treat what?

Cardiac dysthymia, hypertension

When beta blockers are stimulated the heart rate is increased causing the body to do what?

Vasodilation, increased myocardial o2 demand *** NO BRONCHOCONSTRICTION***

A beta agonist natural normal response is what?

Increased HR, chronotrope,

Verapamil is contraindicated in pt's with what?

Wolf Parkinson's white

Side effects of verapamil?

Tachycardia (WPW problems)

Rapid A-Fib, A-flutter and SVT are all rhythms that can be treated with what drug?

Verapamil

Wolfe Parkinson's white with no S/S treat with O2, if hemodynamically unstable in PSVT treat with?

Adenosine 6mg if no change 12mg/12mg fast IV push

Pathophysiology of adenosine?

Slows conduction through the AV node, slows all cations

Pulseless V-tach defibrillate at?

200j/300j/360j

Symptoms due to tachycardia are related to ?

Decreased ventricular filling, time and stroke volume

Drug with positive inotrope will cause?

Contractility, increased force of the contraction

Epi given IV during cardiac arrest does all of the following :

Increased myocardial blood flow, increases peripheral resistance

Side effects of Epi SQ or IV can be?

Palpations and hypertensions

The Dr. Needs present complaints and history on a pt with ?

Elevated T waves is what?

Hyperkalemia

Works in loop of henle, is a loop diuretic, decreases pre load, prevents reabsorption of sodium, causes vasodilation within 5 minutes

Lasix

You draw up 800 mg of dopamine which comes 25mg/CC. How many CC's will you put in the IV bag?

32 CC's

Medication first given for SVT?

Adenosine

Adenosine side effects?

SOB/ chest pn/ dizziness ***TACHYCARDIA IS NOT A SIDE EFFECT***

Isoproterenol dose?

2-20 mcg/min

Causes blurred vision , dizziness , decreased HR, positive chronotropic is what?

Digitalis

Any diuretic treatment can cause?

Hypokalemia

Digitalis is contraindicated in?

Heart blocks

Do not shock a pt that is taking what medication?

Digitalis

Amount of blood ejected in one contraction?

Stroke volume (500 ml)

Heart rate x stroke volume =

Cardiac output

Do not shock a pt that is taking what medication?

Digitalis

Cardiac output x peripheral vascular resistance =

Blood pressure

If a pt is taking digitalis and is weak, dizzy, vs wnl treatment would be?

Monitor, IV and transport

If a pt has chest pain, your questions should include questions about what?

GI problems and muscular skeletal issues

If pt has a bundle branch block you should?

Transport, can't rule out cardiac event

Normal cardiac output per heartbeat is what?

500 ml

Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure or difference between systolic and diastolic is what?

Pulse pressure

Intrinsic ventricular firing rate is?

20-40

Treatment for a pt suffering a heat stroke would be?

Aggressive cooling methods, 2 IV's wide open

Failure of heat regulating mechanisms causes what condition?

Heat stroke

TB S/S include?

Weakness and weight loss, night sweats , fever, hemoptysis, and SOB

No substernal cheat pn with?

Contamination via dirty linens is considered?

Indirect contamination

Fast ascents from diving causes joint pain, tingling in legs and abd pn. All components of what?

Decompression sickness

Hot dry skin, summer, pt's temp 106 and unconscious. Pt is suffering from what condition?

Heat stroke

Profuse sweating indicates what condition?

Heat exhaustion

Salt and water loss via sweating and evaporation is what?

Heat exhaustion

Legs cramp from lactic acid accumulation is what condition?

Heat cramps

Most neurotoxic venom is from what type of snake?

Corral snake

Compression of hollow organs particularly small intestines/ bowel and ear drum problems is from what?

Blast injuries

Lungs are the least likely to collapse in what?

Blast injury

DT's occur how long after decreasing or no longer consuming alcohol in a chronic alcohol abuse case?

48-72 hrs

Green tongue is an indication of what?

Chronic alcohol abuse

If pt is tachy and talking very fast consider?

Amphetamine use, look for pin point pupils

CAGE questionnaire is used for what?

ETOH evaluation

Transport scuba diver in what position?

LLR

If flying with a scuba driver pt you must?

Fly as low as possible

Most common route of poisoning is what?

Ingestion

Caisson disease or the bends is a diving illness from what?

Ascending to fast

Absorption of toxins occur within where?

Small intestines

Most common route for toxins/ hazmat is?

Respiratory and absorption through the skin

Tricyclic overdose antidote?

Sodium bicarbonate , crucial EKG monitoring, Torsades commonly seen

Tricyclic and lithium and salicylate overdose antidote?

Sodium bicarbonate, alkalinize urine and hasten elimination process

Cyanide poisoning antidote?

Amyl nitrate + sodium nitrate solution + sodium thiosulfate solution

Benzodiazepine overdose antidote?

Flumazenil

Opiates overdoses antidote?

Narcan

Acetaminophen overdose antidote?

Mucomyst

Nitrates overdose antidote?

Methylene blue

Atropine overdose antidote?

Physostigmine

Pt with IDDM requires what?

Insulin on a daily basis

Weak and rapid pulse, weakness and incoordination, seizures, cool and clammy skin are S/S of what condition?

Hypoglycemia

Obvious diabetic ketoacidosis S/S is what?

Warm and dry skin

Deep and gasping respirations seem in DKA/Hyperglycemia

Kussmauls respirations

Stupor, slurred speech, bizarre behavior, cool/clammy skin are all S/S of what?

Hypoglycemia

Pediatric dose for D50W =

12.5 G also termed D25W

Body cannot use glucose over what range?

180 mg/dl

Normal glucose range

80-120 mg/dl

All are S/S of DKA except , no kussmaul respirations and no fruity breath is what?

HHNK

Osmotic diuresis with no ketones being used/ burned for energy is what?

HHNK

Scenario: diabetic pt with headache what's the most important question to ask pt?

How long have you had this headache

DKA can be caused by a pt who does not ?

Take their insulin

Administering glucose stimulates the release of?

Glucagon

Releases glycogen from liver?

Glucagon

Psychiatric condition with wide mood swings is called what?

Manic depression

Mood swings from euphoria to depression is what condition?

Manic depression

Drug taken for bipolar disorder aka manic depression?

Lithium

If pt is disoriented, try to get pt to focus on?

Person, place, time and situation

Medications used for psychiatric pt's particularly schizophrenia are what?

Thorazine, Mellaril, Haldol

Reversal of tricyclic OD is what?

Sodium bicarbonate

Psychotic pt vs. neurotic pt main difference is what?

Psychotic pt not in touch with reality

Extrapyramidal reaction to antipsychotic Med's treatment would be?

Benadryl 25-50 mg

Elderly, dementia, deterioration of mental status with neuro disease are all S/S of what?

Alzheimer's

Most common cause of injury in elderly pt's is ?

Falls

Increase fall injuries in elderly pt's?

Dementia

If pt is delusional, having hallucinations or a lack of reality it is important that EMS personnel do not?

Feed into delusions etc.

Most common form of abuse in the elderly is?

Neglect

Most common form of child abuse is?

Physical

If an infant has rib fractures, suspect?

Abuse

If a baby is lethargic with no other S/S, do not rule out?

Shaken baby syndrome

Most likely person to abuse children is?

Caregiver

Most likely to abuse elderly parents?

Son

If the story does not match the injury to a person of any age suspect?

Abuse

If a pt is healing in various stages suspect?

Abuse

Scalding circumferentially with no splash marks consider?

Abuse

Look directly at pt, do not yell and speak slow are all things that should be considered when working with what type of pt?

Deaf

Lower tones are better heard by pt's that are what?

Hard of hearing ( best to use a male medic )

Discrimination against AIDS/Communicable disease pt's is a violation of?

Americans with disabilities act.

Unreasonable confinement in elderly pt's is considered?

Elderly abuse

If you use the fireman's drag, sit pt up. Do not?

Tie hands together

Crying spells, anorexia, unkempt, lethargic with physical exam showing no abnormalities is considered what condition?

Depression

28 y/o with depression history, unconscious, sweating, pinpoint pupils, skin and fine motor fasciculations and tearing excessively are all S/S of what?

Lithium OD

Management of suicide crisis?

Every attempt needs to be evaluated by physician

Valium routes of administration:

Rectal, IV, IM

If a psychiatric pt is violent you should?

Wait for assistance / call LE

Experience a sense of deed or fear, distress over real or imagined threat to one's own mental or physical well being is considered what?

Anxiety

Old lady thinking neighbors are out to get her, you should?

Remove her from the situation and keep her talking

Person witnesses a murder, he appears paralyzed while PE reveals no injury/ abnormality consider what?

Conversion hysteria

Woman threatening to kill herself with barbiturates, she is willing to talk but not with the door open, you should?

Conduct the interview outside door and call police

Someone that is frightened by heights, can't ride an elevator. This is a?

Phobia

How to deal with the effects of a pt's behavior during a physical exam?

Modify the exam if necessary

You have A pt that is exhibiting hostile aggressive behavior, you would?

Contact police and remove bystandards from scene

Dealing with a hostile pt, you and your partner should?

Stand apart from each other at an equal distance

Distraught elderly person urinates while on the stretcher and does not inform you until he/she is finished. This type of behavior is considered?

Regression

How to restrain a pt:

Lay pt in the prone position, 1 arm at their side and the other arm above their head with ankles together

Part of the lymphatic system, found in the LUQ?

Spleen

Committing if green/ yellow bike... fatty meals will also cause this?

Choleosystitis

Enzyme produced in the liver and stored in the gall bladder is what?

Bile

Pouch like herniations through the muscular layer of the colon, usually found in the LLQ?

Diverticulitis

Colored portion of the eyeball that surrounds the pupil?

Iris

Sclera white of the eye yellows due to?

Jaundice

Transmits sight to back of the eye for brain interpretation?

Optic nerve

Neurological findings during or after dialysis as a result of imbalance of intracellular and extracellular fluids in the brain is?

Disequilibrium syndrome

Hyperthyroidism which increases thyroid hormone circulating in the bloodstream is AKA?

Grave's disease

Master gland, secretes oxytocin and ACTH

Pituitary gland

Duct glands excrete directly through ducts to epithelial cells ( sweat/ salivary)

Exocrine glands

Removal of toxins from blood through a semi-permeable membrane is called what?

Dialysis

Toxins in the blood are called?

Hemotoxins

Hormone released by beta cells in the pancreas ( isles of lagerhans )

Insulin

You will not see a decreased HR in what type of pt?

Dehydrated

Activated charcoal dose?

1g per kg

Hands placed on abdomen for what maneuver?

Heimlich

Not a sign of dehydration?

Polyuria

Fever, chills, nausea, vomiting ( common in blood transfusion )

Pryrogenic reaction

Prophylactic HIV treatment to begin in ?

48 hours

Female, fat and in her 40's having RUQ pain after eating fatty foods, what would cause this condition?

Cholecystitis

Measles, mumps and chicken pox are all spread by what means?

Droplets

Hepatitis A is spread by what route?

Fecal to oral

Very virtulant and can stay on surfaces for days?

Hepatitis B

Fungus, bacteria and viruses are examples of what?

Microorganisms

Stiff neck, high fever, headache and backache are all S/S of?

Meningitis

Newborns are obligatory breathers through what?

Nose

At what age do kids have magical thinking?

3-5

This condition is caused by sudden temperature changes, usually self limiting and require minimum treatment. Treatment should include gentle cooling measures such as remove clothing / blankets and tepid water used. Should be transported to the hospital, what condition would this be?

Febrile seizures

Merconium staining is caused by what?

Fetal distress

Treatment for a newborn that has merconium staining?

First intubate and suction prior to first breath.

Seizures, convulsions are most common in children from what age to what age?

6 mos to 6 yrs due to febrile illness

Single indicator of neonatal distress is?

Bradycardia

Pediatric lidocaine dose?

1 mg/kg

Pedi dose of lidocaine for a 20 lb child is?

9 mg

Vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, diaphoresis, clammy can lead to metabolic acidosis all S/S of what type of OD?

ASA

Pediatric pt that weighs 67 lbs needs SQ Epi, what is the dose?

.3 mg

Pediatric dose of SQ Epi for allergic reaction is?

.01 mg/kg

Pediatric pt with bradycardia, first line drug would be?

Unilateral chest wheeze in a 6 y/o child consider?

FBO

In general DO NOT lie any child flat if

Dyspneic or drooling (epiglottis) or w S/S of Croup

Positive pressure ventilations are given to infants with a HR less than?

100 bpm

Rapid onset of fever higher than 101 degrees usually indicates what?

Epiglotitis

Slow onset of fever usually between 100-104 degrees is a sign of what?

Croup

Ominous sign of respiratory failure in a 6 y/o

Hypothermic breathing 6x/ minute

Makes intubation easier and can be used with infants?

Stylet

A single important indication in neonatal distress is?

Bradycardia

Best way of delivering O2 to an asthmatic child in acute distress?

Humidified O2

Placement of IO in pediatrics?

Proximal Tibia

Infant not breathing for 1-2 minutes then suddenly begins spontaneous respirations. What would you do for this pt?

Assist ventilations

Bones not yet fused, slightly sunken and may pulsate, Normal.

Anterior fontanelle

What does a sunken fontanelle usually indicate?

Possible Dehydration

ICP, over hydration, traumatic injury, coup -counter coup, shaken baby syndrome are indicated by what?

Bulging fontanelle

If a pediatric ingests lye what would you give?

Milk

Vomiting, diarrhea,Fever, burns are all signs of what in a child?

Dehydration

Location for IO in a ped?

2 fingers Below tibial tuberosity on medial surface of tibia

What to expect in a child that inhales freon?

PVC's, VTach, VFib

The escape of fluid into a cavity

Effusion

Connects bone to muscle?

Tendon

Connects bone to bone?

Ligaments

Connects descending aorta to spine

Ligamentum Arteriosum

Subluxation mean what?

Partial dislocation of a joint that remains in place but is deformed

The liver produces?

Bile

The gallbladder stores?

Bile

State Review Flashcards

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