Station 1: Respiratory Flashcards

(131 cards)

1
Q

key presentation points in respiratory examination

A
  1. respiratory distress
  2. cyanosis
  3. clubbing
  4. trachea/ apex
  5. pulmonary hypertension/ cor pulmonale
  6. rheumatological findings
  7. LN
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2
Q
A
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3
Q

what are the surface markings of the right lung anteriorly?

A

4th rib and above = upper lobe on the right
4th to 6th rib = middle lobe on the right

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4
Q

what are the surface markings of the left lung anteriorly?

A

6th rib and below on the left = left lower lobe

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5
Q
A

Asymmetrical chest wall with absent ribs
+ Lateral throacotomy scar

–> Thoracoplasty: possibly for TB treatment in the past

can get complications of respiratory failure, and BIPAP may be useful

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6
Q

lateral thoractomy scar with normal underlying lung on examination?

A

lung transplant
pleurectomy (e.g. for recurrent pneumothorax in Ehlers Danlos)
Bullectomy

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7
Q

lateral thoractomy scar with abnormal underlying lung?

A
  • reduced breath sounds:
    lobectomy
    pneumonectomy (no breath sounds)
  • COPD with lung volume reduction surgery
  • Lung transplant with complications
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8
Q

differential diagnoses for a patient with clubbing and crepitations?

A

bronchiectasis
pulmonary fibrosis
mitotic lung lesion (cancer)
abscess

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9
Q

what is bronchiectasis?

A

irreversible bronchial dilatation and bronchial wall thickening, secondary to repeated infection and chronic inflammation

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10
Q

clinical course of bronchiectasis?

A

chronic, progressive with recurrent infective exacerbations

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11
Q

symptoms of bronchiectasis?

A

productive purulent cough
dyspnoea
haemoptysis

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12
Q

signs of bronchiectasis?

A

coarse late inspiratory (and expiratory) crepitations
+/- expiratory wheeze
clubbing may be present

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13
Q

what is bronchiectasis sicca?

A

“dry” bronchiectasis
presents with recurrent haemoptysis and dry cough

affects the upper lobes therefore good drainage

usually from past history of granulomatous infection eg TB

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14
Q

what are the causes of focal bronchiectasis?

A

luminal blockage: foreign body, broncholith (focal calcified endobronchial material which usually follows erosion by a granulomatous peribronchial lymph node (e.g. TB))

arising from the wall: malignancy

extrinsic: enlarged LNs especially middle lobe from TB/fungi, displacement of airways post lobar resection

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15
Q

causes of diffuse bronchiectasis?

A

post-infectious:
- bacteria: pseudomonas, haemophilus, pertussis
- TB
- aspergillus: allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
- virus: adenovirus, measles, influenza

congenital:
- cystic fibrosis
- alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
- kartagener’s syndrome of immotile cilia
- hypogammaglobulinaemia (primary immunodeficiency)

rheumatological:
- rheumatoid arthritis
- SLE
- sjogrens

others:
yellow nail syndrome
young’s syndrome
idiopathic (50%)
inflammatory bowel disease (UC, crohn’s)
congenital kyphoscoliosis

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16
Q

post infectious causes of diffuse bronchiectasis?

A
  • bacteria: pseudomonas, haemophilus, pertussis
  • TB
  • aspergillus: allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
  • virus: adenovirus, measles, influenza
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17
Q

congenital conditions that may lead to diffuse bronchiectasis?

A
  • cystic fibrosis
  • alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
  • kartagener’s syndrome of immotile cilia
  • hypogammaglobulinaemia (primary immunodeficiency)
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18
Q

rheumatological conditions causing diffuse bronchiectasis?

A
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • SLE
  • sjogrens
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19
Q

other causes of diffuse bronchiectasis? (not 2’ infection/congenital/ rheumatological)

A

yellow nail syndrome (yellow nails, bronchiectasis, pleural effusion and lymphoedema)
young’s syndrome (bronchiectasis, rhinosinusitis, infertility due to obstructive azoospermia)
idiopathic (50%)
inflammatory bowel disease (UC, crohn’s)
congenital kyphoscoliosis

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20
Q

what is kartagener’s syndrome?

A
  • a type of immotile ciliary syndrome -> retained secretions, recurrent infections and thus, bronchiectasis

comprises of:
- dextrocardia, situs inversus
- bronchiectasis, sinusitis, frontal sinus dysplasia, otitis media
- infertility

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21
Q

what is cystic fibrosis?

A

most commonly due to mutations to CFTR (CF transmembrane conductance regulator)

recurrent respiratory infections with pancreatic exocrine deficiency and short stature
- usually affects upper lobes

dx: sweat test: elevated sweat sodium and Cl concentrations, genetic testing

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22
Q

what kind of sputum in bronchiectasis?

A

3 layered sputum:
foamy upper layer,
mucous middle layer,
viscous purulent bottom layer

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23
Q

what are the differences between bronchiectasis vs COPD?

A

they may occur concomitantly

cause: cigarette smoke (COPD) vs infection/ genetics (bronchiectasis)

infection: usually secondary (COPD), primary (Bronchiectasis)

organisms: Strep pneumo, haemophilus (COPD) vs Haemophilus, pseudomonas (Bronchiectasis)

symptoms: dyspnoea, chronic cough (COPD) vs dyspnoea, productive cough, haemoptysis (bronchiectasis)

sputum: mucoid clear (COPD) vs 3 layered, purulent (bronchiectasis)

CXR: hyperlucency, hyperinflated (COPD), airway thickening, dilated airways (bronchiectasis)

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24
Q

what are the complications of bronchiectasis?

A
  • pneumonia, collapse, pleural effusion, lung abscess, pneumothorax, haemoptysis
  • brain asbcess
  • sinusitis
  • amyloidosis
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25
ix of bronchiectasis?
to diagnose: HRCT CXR: helpful for diagnosis, extent and to assess for complications Lung function tests: obstructive pattern assess for complications: FBC CRP Sputum studies
26
CXR findings of bronchiectasis?
diagnosis: - dilatated and thickened airways - signet ring sign - tram lines extent and distribution complications: pneumonia, abscess, pleural effusion
27
lung function tests in bronchiectasis?
- obstructive pattern with FEV1/FVC < 70% - severity of obstruction based on FEV1 - some reversibility with beta agonist: 40% of patients have >15% improvement
28
HRCT findings in bronchiectasis?
**diagnostic:** - dilation of airway lumen > 1.5x compared to nearby vessel - signet ring sign (dilated bronchus with its pulmonary artery) - lack of tapering of any airway toward the periphery with presence of bronchi within 1cm from the pleura - Reid's classification: cylindrical or tubular, varicose, saccular or cystic - useful also in elucidating cause of focal bronchiectasis **assess distribution:** usually lower lobes if upper lobes: suspect post TB, Cystic Fibrosis, ABPA ir proximal bronchiectasis: ABPA if middle lobe/lingula: M avium complications
29
how may distribution of bronchiectasis on HRCT be suggestive of the underlying cause?
usually lower lobes if upper lobes: suspect post TB, Cystic Fibrosis, ABPA ir proximal bronchiectasis: ABPA if middle lobe/lingula: M avium
30
characteristic auscultatory findings in pulmonary fibrosis?
late, fine inspiratory crepitations velcro-like quietens when the patient leans forwards
31
what are the causes of upper lobe pulmonary fibrosis?
BREAST CLAPS Beryllium Radiation Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis Silicosis TB Cystic fibrosis Langerhans cell histiocytosis Ankylosing spondylitis Pneumoconiosis (Coal worker) Sarcoidosis
32
what are the causes of lower lobe pulmonary fibrosis?
CARDI Connective tissue disease: Systemic sclerosis Asbestosis Rheumatoid arthritis Drugs: cytotoxics (e.g. MTX, azathioprine, bleomycin), phenyotin, amiodarone, hydralazine, nitrofurantoin, isoniazid, sulfasalaizine Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (usual interstitial pneumonia)
33
what causes both upper and lower lobe interstitial lung disease?
- neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis - pulmonary haemorrhage syndromes - extrinsic allergic alveolitis - alveolar proteinosis (primary, secondary: silica, chronic infection, malignancy) - lymphangiomyomatosis
34
how would you classify interstital lung disease?
ATS/ERS 2001: **diffuse parenchymal lung disease of known cause:** - collagen vascular disease: RA, SLE, dermatomyositis, systemic sclerosis - occupational/environmental: asbestosis, silicosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis - drug related: cytotoxic, CNS, CVS, antbiotics, rheumatic **idiopathic:** IPF other idiopathic interstitial pneumonias **granulomatous:** sarcoidosis **others:** LAM, histiocytosis
35
what are some other idiopathic interstitial pneumonias?
Desquamative interstitial pneumonitis Acute interstitial pneumonia Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia Cryptogenic organising pneumonia Respiratory bronchiolitis
36
how would you diagnose idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
clinical, radiological, pathological clinical: - exclusion of other causes of ILD - insidious onset of dyspnoea, >3 months, non productive cough - typical physical findings radiological: HRCT pathological
37
investigations of pulmonary fibrosis?
HRCT to diagnose CXR Lung function tests: restrictive pattern Bronchoalveolar lavage Lung biopsy Bloods: ABG, to rule out other causes
38
CXR in pulmonary fibrosis?
diagnostic: bilateral basal reticulonodular shadows, peripheries, which advances upwards honeycombing in advanced cases loss of lung volume extent and distribution complications
39
lung function tests in pulmonary fibrosis?
restrictive pattern: reduced TLC or VC with increased FEV1/FVC ratio severity of restriction based on total lung capacity reduced transfer factor (impaired gas exchange)
40
HRCT scan findings for pulmonary fibrosis?
diagnosis: - patchy reticular abnormalities - focal ground glass - architectural distortion - volume loss - subpleural cyst - honeycombing extent and severity: basal, peripheral, subpleural complications
41
indication for bronchoscopy with lavage in diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis?
- if predominantly lymphyocytes, usually responds to steroids and better prognosis (not UIP) - predominantly neutrophils and eosinophils means poor prognosis = UIP - if >20% eosinophils, to consider eosinophilic lung disease
42
management of intersitial lung disease/ pulmonary fibrosis?
education and counselling: stop smoking regular follow up and vaccinations treat underlying cause if any medications: - trial of steroids: if responding, continue; if not: azathioprine or cyclophosphamide - antifibrotics: pirfenidone surgical: lung transplant manage complications: - cor pulmonale (diuretics for heart failure) - polycythaemia (venesection if hct >55%) - respiratory failure: oxygen therapy - monitor for lung cancer
43
good prognostic factors for pulmonary fibrosis?
young age female short duration ground glass appearance on CXR minimal fibrosis on lung biopsy
44
what is the clinical course of patients with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
gradual onset progressive median survival from time of diagnosis about 3 years
45
causes of death in pulmonary fibrosis?
cor pulmonale (right heart failure) respiratory failure pneumonia lung carcinoma
46
what is hamman rich syndrome?
aka acute interstitial pneumonia a rare idiopathic pulmonary disease that leads to fulminant respiratory failure (rapidly progressive, fatal variant of interstitial lung disease)
47
differential diagnoses for dullness on percussion of unilateral lower zone
1. pleural thickening: old TB, prev empyema, mesothelioma, asbestosis, prev haemothorax 2. basal consolidation 3. lower lobe collapse 4. raised hemidiaphragm: (a) phrenic nerve palsy from cancer or phrenic nerve crush for old TB treatment with supraclavicular fossa scar (B) hepatomegaly (right side) 5. malignancy
48
causes of a pleural effusion
group into transudative and exudative causes
49
causes of a transudative pleural effusion
- cardiac: congestive cardiac failure, constrictive pericarditis - renal: nephrotic syndrome, hypoalbuminaemia, peritoneal dialysis - chronic liver disease: hepatic hydrothorax - myxoedema (hypothyroidism) - atelectasis
50
causes of an exudative pleural effusion
malignancy: primary: bronchial or pleural, secondary: breast/pancreas/kidney/ovaries/lymphomas infective: parapneumonic, TB connective tissue: rheumatoid arthritis, SLE PE pancreatitis (left-sided) drug induced: nitrofurantoin, bromocriptine meig's syndrome (ovarian fibroma, ascites and pleural effusion) yellow nail syndrome
51
what is yellow nail syndrome?
triad of yellow nails/ onycholysis, pleural effusion/ bronchiectasis and lymphoedema
52
features of meig's syndrome?
ovarian fibroma, ascites, pleural effusion
53
causes of haemothorax?
trauma rupture of pleural adhesion containing blood vessel, carcinoma
54
causes of a chylothorax?
trauma or surgery to the thoracic duct carcinoma or lymphoma affecting the thoracic duct
55
what is a chylothorax?
accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the pleural space
56
what is an empyema?
collection of pus in the pleural space
57
what is a parapneumonic effusion?
a pleural effusion that forms in the pleural space adjacent to a pneumonia -> can become complicated parapneumonic effusion or empyema
58
causes of empyema?
pneumonia abscess bronchiectasis TB
59
how to diagnose a pleural effusion?
Ultrasound
60
61
how to differentiate between an exudative and transudative effusion
Light's criteria: sensitive but not specific for exudates - pleural fluid protein: serum protein > 0.5 - pleural fluid LDH: serum LDH > 0.6 - pleural fluid LDH >2/3 of ULN of serum LDH if still suspecting transudate, can do SAAG (serum to pleural albumin gradient) -> if >1.2g/dL, transudate
62
ix of pleural effusion
evaluate for underlying cause of the effusion sputum studies: gram stain, culture, AFB smear/culture/ TB PCR, cytology imaging: CXR US CT Diagnostic pleural tap +/- pleural biopsy Blood investigations
63
indications for a diagnostic thoracocentesis?
>10mm thick on a lateral decubitus film or USS
64
turbid appearance of pleural effusion
parapneumonic effusion, chylothorax
65
bloody looking pleural effusion: what values are significant
<1% insignificant 1-20%: malignancy, PE, trauma >50% compared to peripheral Hct: haemothorax
66
neutrophil predominant pleural effusion
parapneumonic effusion
67
lymphocytes predominant pleural effusion
malignancy, TB, lymphoma, connective tissue disorders
68
eosinophilic pleural effusion
blood or air in the pleural space drugs - nitrofurantoin, bromocriptine, dantrolene churg-strauss (eGPA) paragonimiasis Asbestosis
69
what pleural fluid studies to send off from diagnostic thoracocentesis for pleural effusion?
FEME pH LDH protein (Lights criteria) glucose (<0.5 compared to serum: malignancy, TB, RA) amylase (pancreatitis) cultures: bacterial, TB, fungal ADA cytology
70
when must you order cxr post diagnostic tap?
when you suspect complications of pneumothorax: - air aspirated - patient develops chest pain/ SOB - loss of tactile fremitus over superior part of the aspirated hemithorax
71
management of pleural effusion?
treat the underlying cause treat symptoms: fever/ pain SOB: therapeutic thoracocentesis chest drain insertion: for complicated parapneumonic effusion, haemothorax pleurodesis for malignant effusions intrapleural fibrinolytics for loculated effusions
72
features of complicated parapneumonic effusion
turbid appearance (if gross pus -> empyema) criteria: pH < 7.20 Glucose < 3.3 mmol/l (60 mg/dl) LDH > 1000 cultures could be positive
73
treatment of empyema
antibiotics complete pleural fluid drainage surgical decortication
74
causes of lung collapse?
intraluminal: foreign body, mucous plugging from asthma/ ABPA luminal: endobronchial tumour, TB extrinsic compression: enlarged LNs 2' malignancy (primary/secondary), lymphomas, TB
75
what is brock's syndrome?
right middle lobe (RML) atelectasis/ collapse by enlarged hilar lymphadenopathy compressing the right main bronchi
76
ix of lung collapse?
diagnosis of lung collapse: cxr ABG, FBC, biochemical profile find underlying cause: sputum studies: AFB smear/culture, Cytology Bronchoscopy + biopsy Staging for cancer: CT TAP, Bone scan/ PET CT Physiological staging: lung function tests
77
management of lung collapse
treat underlying cause
78
management of lung malignancy causing lung collapse
acute scenario: ABC approach respiratory support if required MDT approach: discussion at tumour board (radiology, med onco, resp, thoracic surgeons) education and counselling, stop smoking symptomatic treatment treatment of actual cancer: surgery/ chemo/ radiotx
79
management of non small cell lung cancer?
refer to med onco / thoracic surgery assessment for surgical resectability - depends on staging: usually up to IIIA - physiological staging: FEV1>1.5, transfer factor > 50% chemotherapy: neoadjuvant/ adjuvant radiotherapy: adjuvant/ palliative palliative: radiotherapy, chemotherapy
80
management of small cell lung carcinoma
usually aggressive chemotherapy initiated early prophylactic cranial irradiation against brain mets stereotactic radiotherapy/ surgery for limited vol disease sometimes offered
81
what FEV1 is required for pneumonectomy/ lobectomy
FEV1 >2-2.5L predicts better survival for pneumonectomy lobectomy: usually FEV1>1.5L
82
how does patient with bronchogenic carcinoma present?
primary tumour: cough, sob, haemoptysis, pneumonia mediastinal: SVCO, Horner's, pleural effusion, phrenic nerve palsy, hoarseness of voice, T1 wasting, pericardial effusion metastases: liver, bone, brain, skin, adrenals paraneoplastic symptoms systemic effects: LOW, LOA, fatigue
83
endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes assoc with lung cancer?
PTH related peptide (hypercalcaemia): SCC SIADH: small cell ACTH: Cushing's (usually hypok met alkalosis) Gynaecomastia
84
neurological paraneoplastic syndromes assoc with lung cancer?
subacute cerebellar degeneration peripheral neuropathies (anti-Hu antibody) Lambert-Eaton syndrome: anti-VGCC
85
paraneoplastic syndromes assoc with lung cancer affecting the skin?
migratory venous thrombophlebitis (trosseau's sign) acanthosis nigricans dermatomyositis
86
paraneoplastic syndromes assoc with lung cancer affecting MSK/joints?
clubbing HPOA: Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
87
features of SVCO?
plethoric facies facial and UL oedema conjunctival suffusion fixed engorgement of neck veins stridor upper chest telangiectasia signs of treatment: radiotherapy marks underlying cause: lung carcinoma (esp small cell), lymphoma, mediastinal goitre
88
what are the causes of a consolidation?
infection: pneumonia abscess TB aspergilloma, cryptococcoma, hydatid cys neoplastic/mass: carcinoma, lymphoma pulmonary infarction
89
ix of consolidation?
CXR ABG, bloods e.g. FBC CRP RP, blood c/s sputum studies evaluate specifically for: infection cancer- bronchoscopy + biopsy, CT staging, bone scan, lung function tests infarction
90
causes of an unresolved pneumonia?
foreign body tumour abscess inappropriate antibiotics, resistant organism bronchopulmonary sequestration: rare, congenital. non-functioning lung tissue with anomalous arterial supply with no connection to the bronchopulmonary tree
91
what are the extrapulmonary manifestations of mycoplasma?
CNS- meningitis, encephalitis CVS- pericarditis, myocarditis hepatitis, GN DIC, AIHA Erythema multiforme, Steven-Johnson syndrome Arthralgia, arthritis
92
complications of a pneumonia?
local: abscess empyema respiratory failure sepsis: septic shock ARDS Multi organ failure DIC
93
what are the pulmonary eosinophilic disorders?
defined as radiographic infiltrates with hypereosinophilia (>1.5 x 10^9 L) - Churg Strauss (eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis): asthma with vasculitis and hypereosinophilia - tropical pulmonary eosinophilia: high anti-filarial antibody - chronic pulmonary eosinophilia: cough, progressive sob, weight loss with diffuse peripheral pulmonary infiltrates (see CXR)
94
management of pneumonia
depending on type: community, hospital acquired risk stratify: CURB-65 score ABC approach - may require non invasive or invasive ventilatory support in event of respiratory failure - antibiotics
95
CURB 65 score?
helps to risk stratify patients with pneumonia - confusion - urea >7mmol/L - RR >30 - BP< 90/60 - Age 65 and above 0 to 1: low risk of death, can treat in community 2: increased risk of death. short hospitalization or supervised home treatment 3 and above; high risk of death, urgent hospitalization
96
antibiotics for community acquired pneumonia?
generally penicillins or macrolides; fluoroquinolones if intolerant e.g. levofloxacin
97
how to assess clinical probablity of PE
evaluate patients for: - SOB, tachypnoea, chest pain, haemoptysis - absence of an alternative explanation (A) - presence of a major risk factor (B) if A+B= high probability only A or B= intermediate probability none present= low probability
98
when to use d dimer in the workup of PE?
to use only if low or intermediate probability high specificity= if negative, no need to do imaging not to order if high probability-> should image immediately
99
imaging options for PE
CTPA VQ scan: need to have facilities available - cxr normal - no cardiopulmonary disorder US DVT: to confirm if VTE present
100
management of massive PE? ie BP compromised or cardiopulmonary collapse
thrombolysis with alteplase thrombus fragmentation and IVC filters if expertise present and available
101
management of non massive PE?
no thrombolysis use of heparin before imaging in high or intermediate clinical probability - LMWH 1st choice - unfractionated heparin if massive PE, first dose bolus, acute reversal desired if PE confirmed: anticoagulation usually for 3 - 6 months
102
management of PE in pregnancy
LMWH during pregnancy unfractionated heparin when approaching delivery, to stop 4-6h prior delivery oral anticoagulation commences after delivery and continued for 6 weeks or 3 months after PE whichever is longer
103
management of PE in cancer patients
duration unknown, may be indefinite while cancer persists - higher risk of thombosis and bleeding if recurrent thrombosis: can aim INR 3-3.5, LMWH + anticoagulation or IVC filter
104
how to diagnose COPD?
- clinical: > 35 years, smoking, wheeze, SOB, cough with sputum, winter bronchitis - airflow obstruction: FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 < 80% - exclude differential diagnoses: asthma, cancer, bronchiectasis, ILD
105
severity of airflow obstruction?
Mild FEV1 50-80% Moderate 30-50% Severe < 30%
106
features suggesting asthma on lung function test
>400ml improvement with bronchodilator therapy or PO pred 30mg OM for 2/52 or variation in PEFR >20%
107
how do you grade the severity of dyspnea?
MRC scale 1- SOB on strenuous exercise 2- on hurrying or up hill 3- walks slower than contemporaries and stops for breaths 4- stops for breath after walking 100m 5- SOB on ADLs
108
ix of acute COPD exacerbation?
fbc (anaemia, polycythaemia), inflammatory markers ABG blood c/s CXR ECG
109
management of COPD?
non-pharm: - education: stop smoking - regular follow up - vaccinations: pneumococcal, influenza - PTOT pulmonary rehab, home adaptations - MSW, specialist nurse for assessment of inhaler technique pharmacological: - Bronchodilators: LABA + LAMA +/- ICS - theophylline - +/- steroids - mucolytics: acetylcysteine manage complications of hypoxaemia, cor pulmonale, polycythaemia surgery may be indicated
110
management of acute exacerbation of COPD?
ABC approach may require non invasive or invasive ventilation if respiratory failure -> BIPAP if hypercapnoeic and pH 7.25-7.35 - bronchodilators: salbutamol nebs - steroids: PO pred/ IV hydrocortisone - antibiotics if infective exacerbation - oxygen therapy
111
indications for long term oxygen therapy for COPD
PaO2 < 55 mmHg or PaO2 < 60 mmHg + presence of: - pulmonary hypertension - polycythaemia - cor pulmonale - nocturnal hypoxaemia For at least 15h/day if not 20 hours
112
management of polycythaemia 2' copd
if Hct > 55%, may consider venesection
113
management of cor pulmonale 2' COPD
diuretics
114
indications for surgical management in COPD?
bullectomy: - for single large bulla, FEV1 < 50% lung volume reduction surgery: upper lobe bullous involvement - FEV1 > 20% - TLCO > 20% - pO2 < 45 transplant
115
when would you order alpha 1 antitrypsin levels in COPD patient
COPD + - young - family history - no smoking history not recommended for AAT replacement if positive for AAT deficiency, treat the COPD
116
COPD + air travel?
higher risk of hypoxaemia -> may require supplemental O2 pressurised at 8000 ft - higher risk pneumothorax assess with: spirometry, if SpO2< 95% on room air, hypoxic challenge test, 50m walk test bring inhalers in hand luggage inform the airline
117
what are the indications for a lobectomy or pneumonectomy?
- malignancy: mitotic lesion - lung abscess - localised bronchiectasis or its complications - mycetoma, ABPA - TB treatment (treatment modality for pTB in the past) - Lung volume reduction surgery for COPD - Trauma
118
indications for lobectomy and splenectomy?
TB sarcoidosis
119
contraindications to a lobectomy/ pneumonectomy in a lung cancer patient?
resectability: - T4 (mediastinal structures), N3 (contralateral mediastinal or hilar or ipsilateral supraclavicular LNs or scalene) or M1 - tumour within 2cm of carina (potentially curable by radiotherapy) - bilateral endobronchial tumour (potentially curable by radiotherapy) physiologic staging: - severe pulmonary hypertension - CO2 retention - FEV1 < 1L - Transfer factor < 40% - concomitant disease that would shorten life expectancy - recent MI in the past 3 months - borderline function with cardiopulmonary exercise testing with a maximal oxygen consumption < 15ml/kg/min
120
indications for lung volume reduction surgery in COPD patients?
- emphysema - predominantly upper lobes - no or mild pulmonary hypertension (PASP<45 mmhg) - no concomitant disabling disease - FEV1 > 20% (but advanced COPD so should be < 45%), DLCO> 20% others - severe dyspnoea despite optimal medical therapy and maximal pulmonary rehabilitation - age < 75 years - smoking cessation > 6 months
121
likely underlying cause of a bilateral lung transplant in a young patient?
cystic fibrosis alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency primary pulmonary hypertension eisenmenger (Heart-lung transplant)
122
likely underlying cause of a bilateral lung transplant in an older patient?
COPD idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis bronchiectasis (always bilateral)
123
what are the indications for a lung transplant?
cardiopulmonary: - primary pulmonary hypertension - eisenmenger's (heart-lung transplant) chronic lung conditions: - restrictive lung conditions: ILD - obstructive: COPD, Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency - suppurative: bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis - sarcoidosis
124
what are the contraindications for lung transplant?
disease specific guidelines include - age - comorbidities: absence of concomitant disease that shortens life expectancy - contraindications to surgery/ GA (recent MI) - smoking, alcoholic, poor social support
125
what are the complications of a lung transplant?
- graft dysfunction (reperfusion oedema in the first week) - airway complications: dehiscence, stensosis or bronchomalacia - rejection: acute/ chronic - Infection: CMV, aspergillus, bacterial (pseudomonas)
126
what to mention in examination of patient with a lung transplant?
- diagnosis - likely underlying cause for the lung transplant - complications of pulmonary hypertension, cor pulmonale, polycythaemia - features of treatment side effects: e.g. steroid/ cyclosporin toxicity
127
acute vs chronic rejection in lung transplant patients?
acute: lymphocytic inflammation -> adjust steroid and immune suppression chronic: alloimmune inflammatory and non-alloimmune fibroproliferative, leads to bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome
128
management of lung tranplant
MDT approach, requires regular follow up, transplant coordinator 3 drug maintenance: - calcineurin inhibitor (tacrolimus, ciclosporin) - purine synthesis antagonist (MMF, azathioprine) - steroid CMV and PCP prophylaxis
129
what to mention in examination of patient with lobectomy/pneumonectomy
mention signs that may suggest underlying cause of lobectomy
130
what complications to examine for in respiratory examination?
pulmonary hypertension cor pulmonale polycythaemia any respiratory distress/ failure (cyanosis)
131
what examination signs to look for in a patient with lung collapse tro malignancy
- any cachexia - cervical lymph nodes - signs of SVCO - clubbing +/- HPOA - horner's syndrome