Statutes Flashcards

(123 cards)

1
Q

Theft is governed by …

A

S1(1) Theft Act 1968

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2
Q

Factual cause and legal cause

A

Pagget and smith

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3
Q

Medical treatment

A

Jorden

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4
Q

Victims own acts were reasonable

A

Roberts

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5
Q

Victims acts were unreasonable

A

Williams and Davis

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6
Q

Life support

A

Malcherek

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7
Q

Thin skull rule

A

Blaue

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8
Q

Drugs (2)

A

Kennedy no2 Cato

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9
Q

Direct intent causation

A

Mohan

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10
Q

Foresight of consequences

A

Woolin

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11
Q

Recklessness

A

Cunningham

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12
Q

Transferred malice person to person

A

Latimer

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13
Q

Transferred malice object to person

A

Pembilton

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14
Q

Words gestures and silence

A

Ireland

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15
Q

Fear Assault

A

Lamb

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16
Q

Words can cancel out assault

A

Savage

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17
Q

Assault doesn’t have to be able to reach victim

A

Smith

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18
Q

No time limit on assaults

A

Constanza

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19
Q

Battery and assault is governed by …

A

S39 criminal justice act 1988

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20
Q

More than the slightest touch battery

A

Wilcock

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21
Q

has to be more than the slightest touch

A

Wilcock

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22
Q

Can be a continuing act

A

Fagan

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23
Q

Battery can be caused indirectly

A

K

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24
Q

Battery can be an omission

A

Santana-Bermudez

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25
ABH is governed by
S47 offences against the person act 1861
26
has to be transient/trifling
Miller
27
can be psychiatric harm
Chanfook
28
Hair being cut of can be battery
Smith
29
Consciousness only has to be lost momentarily
T
30
ABH can be indirect
K
31
ABH men rea it doesn't matter if the defendant intended to cause the harm
Savage
32
GBH is governed by ...
S18 or S20 offences against the person act 1861
33
Harm must be really serious harm
Smith
34
Harm only has to be serious harm
Saunders
35
Really serious harm and serious harm mean the same thing
Brurstow
36
The victims age and health are taken in to account when considering there injuries
Bollum
37
If there was a know risk of some harm and the defendant didn't inform the victim
Dica
38
Indirect harm GBH
Martin
39
Direct intent to cause GBH
Mohan
40
Direct intent to cause some harm
Mowatt
41
Direct intent to resist arrest
Morrison
42
Wounding is governed by ...
S18 and S20 offences against the person act 1861
43
S18 requires the D to cause the harm and S20 requires them to inflict the harm but ( ) shows cause and inflict mean the same thing
Bristow
44
Both layers of skin must be broken
Eisenhower
45
Wounding direct intent to cause GBH
Taylor
46
Direct intent to wound
Taylor
47
What is murder governed by...
Lord Justice coke
48
Taken one breath independent from mother
Poulter
49
Umbilical cord cut
Reeves
50
No brain activity
Malcherek
51
There is no time limit on death after the unlawful act
Law reform year and a day rule 1996
52
Killing out side kings peace
Black man
53
A person who did not intend to kill another, but intended to cause them grievous bodily harm would have the required intent for murder
Vickers
54
What statute created three partial defences to murder
Homicide Act 1957 and Coroners and Justice Act 2009
55
Diminished responsibility governed by …
S2(1) Homicide Act 1957 as amended by S52 Coroners and Justice Act 2009.
56
so different to that of ordinary human beings, the reasonable person will deem at the time they killed their state of mind must have been abnormal.
Lord parker CJ
57
The abnormality doesn’t have to be permanent or have existed from birth
Gomez
58
Depression
Gittens
59
Irresistible impulses
Bryne
60
Battered wife syndrome
Ahluawalia
61
Alcohol dependency syndrome
Stewart
62
Need medical evidence for diminished responsibility
Bunch
63
Paranoia
Simcox
64
Substantial impairment does not have to be full impairment
Lloyd
65
There must be a causal link between the defendant’s abnormality of mental functioning and the conduct or omission that led to the killing
(S2(1) Homicide Act 1957).
66
The burden of proof is on the prosecution to prove beyond(Loss of control)
Martin
67
Loss of control is governed by...
S54 Coroners and Justice Act 2009
68
Un able to think straight is not sufficient for loss of control
Jewell
69
The defendant does not have to lose control suddenly (immediately) in response to a qualifying trigger
(S54(2) CJA)
70
What identifies the two qualifying triggers
S55 CJA
71
defendant’s fear of serious violence from the victim against defendant or another identified person
S55(3) CJA
72
Things said or done which constitute grave circumstances or makes the defendant justifiably feel wronged
S55(4) CJA
73
fear of serious violence has to be to an identified person
Goodwin
74
circumstances of an extremely grave character and the defendant must have a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged. (Loss of control)
Zebeede
75
A breakdown of a relationship will not normally be circumstances of an extremely grave character or give a justifiable sense of being wronged
Hatter
76
Revenge is not a qualifying trigger
S54(4) Coroners and Justice Act 2009.
77
If the defendant incited the thing said or done so they can react
S55(6)(a)
78
S55(6) CJA restrictions Anything said or done in connection with sexual infidelity is to be disregarded
S55(6)(c)
79
Sexual infidelity can be considered if with other triggers
Clinton
80
Stander end of self control test is based on a normal person which is an objective test what defines this
S54(1)(c) CJA Whether a person of the ds own sex and age with a normal degree of tolerance and self restraint and in the ds circumstances might have reacted in the same or similar way
81
Self control and tolerance
Mohammed
82
In the same circumstance as the D loss of control
Gregson
83
Same circumstance as D, Depression, epilepsy and unemployment
Gregson
84
Intoxication is not accepted in loss of control
Asmalash
85
React in a same and similar way if the same circumstance
Van dongen
86
The act must be a crime unlawful act manslaughter
Franklin
87
Must fear unlawful force unlawful act manslaughter
Lamb
88
The act must be positive
Lowe
89
sober and reasonable person would recognise the risk of some harm from the D’s conduct.
Lord justice Davies
90
It does not matter that the D did not realise their conduct was dangerous, as long as the reasonable and sober person would realise it UAM
Birstow
91
the victim’s frailty were obvious, a reasonable and sober person would be aware of it, and if they foresee some harm from the D’s act, it is objectively dangerous.
Watson
92
The objectively dangerous test does not take into account the age and mental capacity of the defendant UAM
JF and NE
93
The harm does not have to be specific harm
Jm and Sm
94
objectively dangerous act does not have to be aimed at the V.
Larkin
95
objectively dangerous act can be aimed at property
Good fellow
96
The D’s conduct must be the cause of the death. The usual rules of causation apply to UAM
Attorney General Reference (No 3)
97
Transferred malice applied to UAM
Mitchell
98
irrelevant if the D did not foresee or intend the harm caused from their unlawful act. All that matters is that they satisfy the mens rea of it
New berry and Jones
99
Self defence is governed by …
S3(1) Criminal law act 1967 (CLA)
100
Was the use of force necessary
Hussain and another
101
The D wrongly imagined a threat existed self defence
Williams
102
Alec defence not available if voluntarily intoxicated
S76(5) Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008
103
The D does not have to retreat self defence
Bird
104
The D can prepare for the attack
Attorney general reference no2
105
reasonable is to be judged in the light of the circumstances as the D believed them to be (whether reasonably or not).
Palmer
106
the degree of force used by a person is not to be regarded as having been reasonable in the circumstances, as they believed them to be, if it was disproportionate in those circumstances. The only exception regarding disproportionate force relates to the householder exception.
S76(6) Criminal Justice & Immigration Act 2008
107
Force was no longer Necessary as the threat has passed
Martin
108
Consent the V must know the nature of that act and also the quality
Tabassum
109
Consent is invalid if gotten through fear
Olugboja
110
his fraudulent conduct did not void the V’s consent, as she knew the nature and quality of the act.
Linekar
111
The victim must be informed of a known risk before engaging in sexual activity, otherwise their consent is invalid and the defendant will be liable.
Dica
112
Implied consent
Pringle
113
any harm that is greater than assault or battery will no longer be able to have the defence of consent.
Attorney general reference no6
114
What are the 4 public policy exceptions for consent
Horseplay sports body adornment dangerous exhibitions
115
In sports the actions must be sufficiently grave to be considered criminal.
Barnes
116
Children under 16 with sufficient intelligence to understand fully the implications of a proposed treatment can give effective consent
Gillick
117
In horseplay defendant can demonstrate an honest belief the victim consented to this type of play,
Jones
118
genuinely held the belief the victim was consenting to such horseplay, even if that belief was mistakenly held.
Aiken
119
Where the defendant makes a genuine mistake regarding horseplay when intoxicated, the defence of consent can still be available in relation to horseplay, where they can demonstrate they would not have realised the risk if sober
Richardson and Irwin
120
Husband and wife have extra consent conditions
Wilson
121
Body adornment
BM
122
Cannot consent to homicide
Pretty
123
Consent drugs
Cato