Step 2 Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

treatment for acute dystonia

A

Anticholinergics i.e. Benztropine (antimuscarinic, antihistamine + inhibits dopamine transporters) or Diphenhydramine (antihistamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

treatment for tardive dyskinesia

A

1st line: reduce dose of antipsychotic or change to alternative

2nd line: VMAT2 i.e. valbenazine, deutetrabenazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

treatment for akathisia

A

1st line: reduce dose or alternative antipsychotic

2nd line: anticholinergic i.e. benztropine or benzodiazepines i.e. lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

discontinue medication
supportive care
dantrolene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment for dyskinesia (parkinsonsim induced by antipsychotics)

A

1st line: reduce dose or alternative

2nd line: anticholinergic (benztropine) or dopamine agonist (amantadine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

serotonin syndrome vs neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

21-year-old man has 3 months of social withdrawal, worsening
grades, flattened affect, and concrete thinking

A

schizophreniform disorder
schizophrenia requires 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

atamoxetine mode of action

A

norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

stimulants side effects

A

decreased appetite (weight loss)
irritability
insomnia
anxiety
headache
tic exacerbation
decreased growth velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

mode of action of clonidine and guanfacine

A

alpha agonist
used 3rd line in ADHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

inheritence of Rett syndrome

A

X linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

differential diagnoses to autism

A

intellectual disability, global developmental delay
selective mutism
hearing impairment
Rett syndrome (usually female, characteristic hand wriggling)
Fragile X (X linked prominant, long face, high arched palate, macro-orchidism etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

treatment for autism

A
  • education
  • behaviour management (applied behavioural analysis therapy)
  • medications to treat symptoms i.e. neuroleptics for aggression and mood instability, stimulants or alpha agonists for ADHD, SSRI for behaviour, anxiety and mood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is disrupted mood dysregulated disorder

A

A pattern of severe, recurrent verbal or behavioral outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation and a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.
■ Symptoms must occur for ≥1 year; they may progress to depression in
adulthood.
■ DMDD should not be diagnosed before 6 years of age or after 18 years
of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most common chromosomal cause of intellectual disability

A

trisomy 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

most common inherited cause of intellectual disability

A

fragile X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

most common preventable cause of intellectual disability

A

foetal alcohol syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how is the severity of intellectual disability categorised

A

based on level of support needed with ADL’s
IQ score not used in new DSM-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

diagnostic criteria for tourettes

A

multiple motor tics
one or more vocal tic
present for > 1 year
persistent (occur almost every day/multiple times per day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

best initial treatment for tourettes

A

behavioural therapy - habit reversal therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

vocal tic only lasting > 1 year - diagnosis?

A

persistent tic disorder

22
Q

medication management for tourettes syndrome

A

1st line: dopamine depleting - VMAT2 i.e. tetrabenzaine
2nd line: dopamine blocking - antipsychotics i.e. fluphenazine, risperidone
3rd line: typical antipsychotics i.e. haloperadol, pimozide

Alpha agonists (clonidine, guanfacine) better side effect profile but not as effective

23
Q

what is caprolalia

A

seen in tourettes syndrome
repetition of obscene words

24
Q

diagnosis of schizophrenia

A

2 or more of the following symptoms for > 6 months. At least one symptom must be hallucination, delusion or disorganised speech

hallucination
delusions
disorganised speech
dysfunctional or catatonic behaviour
negative symptoms (anhedonia, avolition, flattened affect, social withdrawal)

25
what is an illusion
illusion = an abnormal perception of an external stimulus hallucination = perception in the absence of an external stimulus
26
schizotypal vs schizoid
schizotypal = weird beliefs schizoid = loner
27
mechanisms of typical antipsychotics
dopamine (D2) antagonists high potency = haloperidol, fluphenazine low potency = thioridazine, chlorpormazine
28
what atypical antipsychotic is worse for hyperprolactinaemia
risperidone
29
what atypical antipsychotic is worse for QTc prolongation
ziprasidone
30
difference in side effect profile of arpiprazole compared to other typical antipsychotics
doesnt cause hyperprolactinaemia due to partial agonist activity
31
what somatic symptoms are required for the diagnosis of GAD
worry/anxiety for >6 months with 3 or more of the following somatic symptoms (only require 1 in children) Worry Warts wound up (irritability) worn out (fatigue) absent minded (poor concentration) restlessness tense muscles sleep disturbance
32
mode of action of buspirone, side effects and why it may be chosen over 1st line SSRI and SNRI for anxiety
buspirone = 5HT partial agonist no sexual side effects unlike the SSRI and SNRI's side effects: headache, dizziness, nausea
33
main side effects of SNRI's
e.g. venlafaxine, duloxetine hypertension stimulant effects
34
main side effects of SSRI's
sexual dysfunction GI upset nausea somnolence agitation
35
indication for propraolol in anxiety disorder
only indicated for performance-only social anxiety disorder
36
1st line treatment for the following panic disorders; - social anxiety - performance-only social anxiety - specific phobia - agoraphobia
social anxiety: SSRI/SNRI +/or CBT performance-only: propranolol specific phobia: CBT agoraphobia: CBT, SSRI
37
alternative to benzodiazepines for a patient with anxiety + history of substance abuse
phenelzine (MAO inhibitor)
38
medication used to treat PTSD related nightmares
prazosin (alpha blocker)
39
MMSE and Moca scores diagnostic of dementia
MMSE < 24 MOCA < 26
40
1st and 2nd line treatment for alzheimers
1st line: cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine) 2nd line: NMDA antagonists i.e. memantine
41
treatment for seasonal depression
light therapy
42
side effects of ECT
antegrade amnesia arrythmias post ictal confusion headache
43
what SSRI should be avoided in pregnancy and why
paroxetine 1st trimester - cardiac defects, 3rd trimester - pulmonary HTN of newborn
44
side effects of TCA's
i.e. amitryptilline, imipramine antihistamine - sedation, weight gain anticholinergic - dry mouth, dry eyes antiadrenergic - orthostatic HTN cardiac - QT prolongation
45
pnemonic for the symptoms of mania
DIG FAST Distractability insomnia grandiosity flight of ideas agitation/ activities sexual indiscretion/ other pleasurable activities talkativeness
46
treatment for mania/hypomania in pregnancy
1st line is typical antipsychotic as they have fewer risks to developing foetus compared to mood stabalisers may also have ECT for severe depression
47
hypnagognic vs hypnopompic hallucinations
hypnagognic - occurs when going to sleep hypnopompic - occurs when wakening found in narcolepsy
48
management of narcolepsy
regimen of daily scheduled naps plus stimulants i.e. amphetmines or modafinil cataplexy requires SSRI's
49
primary hypersomnia vs narcolepsy
both characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness but narcolepsy is due to hypocretin deficiency (found on CSF sampling) diagnosis of EDS is excessive daytime/nigh somnolence for at least 1 month diagnosis of narcolepsy is excessive daytime somnolence and reduced REM sleep at least 3x/week for 3 months
50
OSAS vs central sleep apnoea treatment
OSAS: CPAP CSA: BiPAP
51
side effects associated with OSAS
hypertensios (systolic) pulmonary hypertension headache depression cor pulmonale