step 2 Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

management of mucormycoses infection

A

diabetic with nasal black eschar with bleeding
- amphotericin B + surgical debridement

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2
Q

patient with active tB, most accurate diagnostic test

A

mycobacterium culture of sputum

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3
Q

treatment for active TB

A

rifampicin, isoniazide, pyrazinamide, ethambutal for 6 months followed by isoniazid + rifampicin for 4 months

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4
Q

treatment for latent TB

A

isoniazid + rifampicin/rifapentine for 3 months or rifampicin for 4 months

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5
Q

side effects of the following medications;
- rifampicin
- isoniazid
- ethambutol
- pyrazinamide

A

rifampicin - liver impairment, orange urine
isoniazid - hepatitis, peripheral neuopathy, lupus like syndrome
ethambutol - optic neuritis
pyrazinamide - hyperuricaemia or hepatitis

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6
Q

what medication should you co-prescribe when giving isoniazid

A

pyridoxine (B6) to prevent peripheral neuropathy

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7
Q

mycobacterium avium can occur in HIV patients with a CD4 count of what

A

< 50

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8
Q

patients not on highly active anti retroviral therapy for HIV should recieve what prophylaxis against mycobacterium

A

azithromycin

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9
Q

antibiotics for mycobacterium avium infection

A

macrolide + ethambutol +/- rifabutin

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10
Q

what might be present on labs of a patient with PJP infection

A

elevated LDH
elevated beta-D-glucan

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11
Q

would should be added to treatment regimen in a patient with PJP and Pa02 < 70 or A-a gradient >35

A

steroid taper to reduce inflammation and improve mortality

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12
Q

alternative abx regimen (from co-trim) in severe PJP

A

pentamidine or primaquine + clindamycin

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13
Q

best initial treatment for anthrax

A

ciprofloxacin or doxycycline + 1 or 2 other antibiotics
14 days if inhalation or cutaneous of the head, face, neck
7-10 days if other cutaneous locations

if cutaneous anthrax - post exposure prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin to prevent inhalation anthrax should be continued for 60 days

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14
Q

describe centor criteria for acute pahryngitis

A

if 4 -5 points then start abx
if 2-3 then rapid antigen test

fever
pustular tonsils
tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
lack of cough
age 3-14 yrs

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15
Q

complication of retropharyngeal abscess presenting with fever, chest pain and dyspnoea

A

necrotizing mediastinitis
treat with surgical drainage

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16
Q

what is ludwig angina

A

rapidly progressive cellulitis of the submanidibular space that may cause airway compromise from oedema
presnets with red, warm mouth, dysphagia, drooling and fever
caused by polymicrobials in the setting of poor dental hygiene
treat with IV abx and airway management

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17
Q

light criteria for pleural effusion

A

pleural protein + serum protein > 0.5
pleural LDH + serum LDH >0.6
pleural LDH > 2/3 upper limit normal

if 1 or more criteria met = exudate

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18
Q

causes of exudate pleural effusion

A

meets 1 or more light criteria
caused by increased vascular permeability
- infection
- malignancy
- autoimmune
- drugs
- haemothorax, chylothorax
- left side: pancreatitis, esophageal rupture
- right side: meigs syndrome, endometriosis

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19
Q

causes of transudate pleural effusion

A

doesnt meet any light criteria

increased in hydrostatic pressure or PCWP;
- heart failure
- ESRF
- PE (early)

decrease in oncotic pressure
- nephrotic syndrome
- cirrhosis

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20
Q

how would pleural effusion present on physical examination

A

dullness to percussion
reduced breath sounds
reduced vocal resonance

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21
Q

PH transudate vs exudate pleural effusion

A

transudate 7.4 - 7.55
exudate < 7.4

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22
Q

CXR confirms left sided pleural effusion measuing 4cm. what is the next step?

A

thoracentesis
required if new effusion and is >1cm
not required if bilateral or signs of CHF

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23
Q

features of complicated parapneumonic effusion and empyema vs simple parapneumonic effusion

A

simple parapneumonic effusion: PH > 7.2, glucose normal/increased, clear fluid

complicated: PH < 7.2, glucose decreased, no positive culture , cloudy

empyema: PH < 7.2, glucose decreased, growth of sputum culture, purulent

complicated and empyema require drainage

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24
Q

what size of pnuemothorax requires only observaion and 02

25
diagnostic criteria for OSAS
apnoea-hyponea index (AHI) AHI >5 with symptoms AHI >15 regardless of symptoms
26
1st line treatment for OSAS
weight loss + CPAP
27
STOP-BANG survery
survey used to assess the risk of OSAS snoring tiredness observed stopped breathing at night pressure (bp) bmi >35 age >60 neck circumference >40cm gender (male)
28
1st line treatment for nasal polyps
oral steroids intranasal steroids are not as effective
29
1st line management for anterior and posterior epistaxis not responding to first aid measures
anterior = cauterization nasal packing if source of bleeding cannot be visualised posterior = balloon catheter alternatively foley catheter
30
patient develops fever, hypotension and rash after nasal packing
toxic shock syndrome
31
multiple warty lesions in the upper airway
recurrent respiratory papilomatosis
32
what is recurrent respiratory papilomatosis
rare disease caused by HPV causing warty growths in the upper airway juvenille risk factors: first born, vaginal delivery, mothers age < 20yrs adult form: oral sex hoarsness, episodic chocking, voice change, cough, dyspnoea, foreign body sensation, inspiratory wheeze, stridor treatment: multiple debulking surgical removals, noncurative but may obtain remission after several years malignant transformation to SCC can occur
33
male smoker presents with pnuemonthorax and CXR shows upper lobe cysts and nodules ?diagnosis
pulmonary langerhan cell histocytosis - male smokers - progressive SOB - affects upper lobe without basilar involvement - cysts and nodules - pnuemothoraces
34
management of langerhan cell histocytosis
1st line: smoking cessation if cysts persist then steroids can be useful
35
feature of langerhan cell histocytosis on sputum microscopy
birbeck granules stain positive for S100 and CD1a
36
adenosine deaminase level in TB
adenosine deaminase levels are an important marker in TB - elevated
37
1st step in investigation of OSAS
home sleep study if uncomplicated and high probability of diagnosis in-lab test if complicated +/or lower probability
38
signs/sympotms of theophylline toxicity
theophylline has a narrow therapeutic range and so toxicity can occur; - nausea, vomiting - diarrhoea - arrythmias i.e. AF - hypoglycaemia - hypokalaemia - headache
39
what severity of symptoms warrants step 2 and 3 in asthma management step-wise approach
step 2 (SABA + ICS) - few nighttime wakenings 2-3x per month - symptoms few times per week - minor limitations step 3 (SABA + LABA + IC) - daily symptoms - night time wakenings >1x per week - some limitations
40
common arrythmia found in lung disease such as COPD
multifocal tachycardia
41
as part of ARDS, what is the Pa02/Fi02 and what does this indicate
Pa02/Fi02 < 300 Pa02 is their 02 Fi02 is the supplemental 02 they are receiveing (i.e. if on 40% 02, the Fi02 would be 0.4)
42
management of meconium aspiation syndrome
if signs of respiratory distress then positive pressure CPAP if this fails then intubation
43
management of SVC syndrome
radiotherapy if severe then stent placement or intubation
44
treatment for pnuemonia if penicillin allergy
respiratory flouroquinolone such as moxifloxacin
45
lymphoid interstitial pnuemonia (LIP) risk factors, presentation and investigations
commonly seen in female patients with autoimmune conditions i.e. sjogrens CXR/CT shows bilateral lower lobe opacities, cysts and ground glass appearance biopsy shows non-necrotizing granulomas with plasma cells, lymphocytes and giant cells treat with steroids can transform into lymphoma
46
in moderate-severe PJP what can be added to the management in combination with iv ABX
steroids
47
recurrent sinus infection, recurrent pneumonia, bronchiectasis and splenomegaly + FHx of similar presentation, sweat chloride negative. what is the most likely diagnosis
common variable immunodeficiency confirm with serum immunoglobulin testing
48
antibiotic of choice if pneumonia is caused by extended-spectrum beta lactamase organism such as klebsiella
carbapenem i.e. meropenam note: cephalosporin i.e. ceftriaxone can be used for klebsiella if no beta-lactamase activity
49
indications for thoracotomy with haemothroax
immediate draineg fo 1000-1500ml blood or continuation of blood > 200ml/hr
50
what indicates a posititive purified protein derivative test
purified protein derivative test is for TB positive if induration > 10mm
51
in a patient who is intubated, how can the settings be changed to reduce PaC02
increase tidal volume and/or respiratory rate
52
in a patient who is intubated, how can the settings be changed to increase Pa02
increase PEEP and/or Fi02 (fraction of inspired 02)
53
indication for mepolizumab vs omalzumab in asthma management
mepolizumab if elevated IgE omalizumab if normal IgE
54
management for ventillator-support pneumonia
abx to cover gram negative incl pseudomonas + MSRA i.e. vanc (MSAR cover) + cefepime (pseudomonas cover)
55
parameters on right heart catheterization suggestive of PAH
mean pulmonary artery pressure >20 PCWP < 15 pulmonary vascular resistance > 2 wood units
56
most common pathogen of infections in CF in younger vs older patients
younger patients - staph aureus older patients - pseudomonas
57
when should itraconazole be avoided
patient has congestive heart failure
58
patient has chest pain, dyspnoea and 02 requirement with signs of heart failure and hypertension. ?diagnosis ? management
hypertensive emergency can lead to flash pulmonary oedema 1st line: loop diuretics 2nd line: nitroglycerin
59
1st line treatment for COVID in the outpatient setting for high risk individual
nirmatrelvir-ritonavir - nirmatrelvir is a protease inhibitor against Mpro - ritonavir is a strong PY450 inhibitor