sterilisation Flashcards

1
Q

There are two general approaches to produce sterile products. what are they?

A
  1. produce under clean conditions then terminally sterilise in the final container
    (limit the no. of MO’s during the manufacturing process - best way)
  2. produce and assemble under conditions free of MO’s and other particulates. (ASEPTIC)
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2
Q

Why is Aseptic processing the best way to produce a sterile product?

A

you are sterilising a product in one container and only using one container.

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3
Q

Which type of material out of synthetic and natural have a greater microbial count?

A

Natural
Synthetic have a low count - usually MO’s on synthetic materials are derived from the manufacturing process (the machines they are put under.)

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4
Q

Does the population count and type of MO’s present depend on the natural product itself?

A

YES

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5
Q

what are the three factors associated with the manufacturing process that can cause MO’s to appear on a product?

A

raw materials, water and the manufacturing environment

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6
Q

what does the manufacturing environment include?

A

AIR (spores and endospores)
PERSONNEL (ourselves, we carry a host of MO’s)
EQUIPMENT AND FACILITIES (moving parts)

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7
Q

What are the sources of MO’s?

A

organisms can either be resident or transient

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8
Q

Give examples of where resident organisms come from

A

soil (gram+, endospore forming, fungi)
water (gram-, yeasts and moulds)
Animals and humans (gram-, obligate anaerobes, gram+)
Plants (yeasts and moulds)

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9
Q

Give examples of where transient organisms come from

A

they are carried by water and air.
they are harder to control
may already packaged up with the product inside

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10
Q

what does sterile mean?

A

free of viable micro-organisms; ZERO MO’s present

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11
Q

There are different sterilisation methods: killing or removal of all viable MO’s

A
KILLING: 
heating - dry heat and moist heat 
chemical - EtO
radiation - gamma 
REMOVAL: 
filtration (sieves the cells out, doesn't damage them)
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12
Q

AN antibiotic solution will be placed in a vial with a stopper - how are these three components sterilised?

A

solution: filter
vial: steam sterilisation
stopper: EtO sterilisation
then bring the 3 components into the clean room to be assembled together to form a packaged sterile product

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13
Q

Is water destroyed by high temperatures?

A

NO

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14
Q

What are sterilisation standards used for?

A
  1. to control the number of M/O’s in the manufacturing environment
  2. to validate the sterilising agent
  3. to validate the sterilisation process
  4. to monitor the sterilisation process
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15
Q

who are the sterilisation standards regulated by? Are they consistent across all countries?

A

European Networks
FDA
no, they can differ between continents/countries, therefore, if a drug wants to be sold in America BUT was created and tested against the sterilisation standards in England, it needs to be repeated in America, against their standards before being sold.

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16
Q

Inactivation kinetics summary (4 points)

A
  1. first order kinetics
  2. affected by temperature
  3. infinite probability of survival
  4. organism specific
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17
Q

Why is bioburden estimation important?

A

inital number required to specify sterilisation parameters - to know what the pop. count is or what the pop. looks like in order to kill them

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18
Q

What is the bioburden estimation?

A

A population of viable micro-organisms on or in a product and/or packaging - the packaging is part of the overall product

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19
Q

At what stage would you conduct indirect treatment to the product?

A

after transfer to the test laboratory

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20
Q

What does indirect treatment include to estimate the bioburden on a product?

A
  1. contact with eluent
  2. physical treatment
  3. Then transfer to culture medium
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21
Q

In which cases would you use indirect treatment?

A

a multi-component product: indirect route would break the product apart

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22
Q

what do you have to be sure to do before using an eluent on a product?

A

look in the pharmacopoeia to see if the eluent you are using does not affect the vialbility of the cells you are handling

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23
Q

What are the physical treatment measures you can undergo on your product to extract the MO’s?

A

after using a eluent
add a mild detergent to identify them and help remove them from the surface
treat them with a swab/ultrasound - need to consider frequency
extract via glass beads - shake the product with the glass beads, the smaller the size of the beads the better.

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24
Q

What is the direct technique of estimating the bioburden count?

A

direct transfer to culture medium (also need to consider which culture medium will be used, as there are so many different types.)

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25
Q

selection of a removal technique considerations (indirect method)

A
  1. ability to remove microbial contamination
  2. effect of removal method on microbial viability
  3. types and location of MO’s present on product
  4. nature of product
    culture conditions (in which the MO’s will be in contact with after)
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26
Q

is there a universal growth medium?

A

NO

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27
Q

the type of MO’s likely to be encountered upon depend on what?

A

the nature of the product
method of manufacture
potential sources of microbial contamination (operator, packaging)

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28
Q

what are the stages involved in bioburden estimation?

A
sample selection
collection of items for test 
transfer to test lab 
treatment (if required)
transfer to culture medium 
incubation 
enumeration and characterisation 
interpretation of data
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29
Q

process operation - what are the three factors involved in this?

A
  1. cycle development
  2. cycle validation
  3. cycle monitoring
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30
Q

what is the definition of process validation?

A

high degree of assurance provided for a specific process consistently producing a sterile product every time (the process meets its pre-determined specifications)

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31
Q

performance qualification can be assessed in two different ways - what are these?

A

physical qualification

micro-biological qualification

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32
Q

are physical or micro-biological measures more reliable in assessing performance qualification?

A

physical measures, they can be measured/monitored e.g. the amount of radiation the product is being exposed to
microbiological measures are open to change. biological indicators are used to often validate physical qualification

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33
Q

Are physical and microbiological qualification methods, means of assessing the physical validation of a sterilisation process?

A

YES

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34
Q

what is the definition of biological indicators?

A

An inoculated carrier contained within its primary pack ready for use and providing a defined resistance to the specified sterilisation process

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35
Q

what does it mean if the sterilisation process can kill endospores?

A

the sterilisation process is good

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36
Q

when are biological indicators used?

A

used for validation of steam, dry heat, radiation EtO. only used routinely to monitor EtO.

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37
Q

What is the sterility assurance level?

A

10-6. this is used when using BI’s as a means of measure for performance validation. if the process can reduce the no.i of BI’s to this level or more then it is good.

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38
Q

What factors govern the choice of BI’s used?

A

stability
resistance (high in comparison to product bioburden.)
non-pathogenic (endospores should be non-pathogenic)
recoverability

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39
Q

What are the recommended BI’s to be used for the different sterilisation processes, to assess whether they meet the sterility assurance level at least?

A
Filtration - Brevundimonas Diminuta
Moist - Bacillus Stearothermophilus
Dry - Bacillus Subtilus 
 EtO - Bacillus Subtilus 
Radiation - Bacillus pumilus
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40
Q

When is the choice of sterilisation method made?

A

often at the design/developmental stage of the process

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41
Q

Which is better - terminally sterilising the product in the final container or aseptic processing?

A

terminally sterilisation (product in its container with its label) - but this is not always possible, in which case you would use aseptic processing!

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42
Q

What are factors of the sterilisation method that should be followed?

A

shouldn’t leave any toxic residues;
agent should be in contact with all parts of the product
process variables are controlled and monitored
process does not present hazards to the operators or the environment

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43
Q

is filtration sterilisation interested in big solutes?

A

No, only small solutes

44
Q

What is filtration sterilisation?

A

when a passage of fluid (liquid or gas moves across a filter, removing any contaminated solutes

45
Q

A sterile filter (screen filter) should the particle size be less than the pore diameter of the filter?

A

yes

46
Q

what are the four different sizes of the particles that could come into contact with a sterile filter?

A
irregular shape 
simultaneous arrival (two particles try to go through the same pore)
blocked pore (fat)
surface interactions
47
Q

What is filter voidage?

A

the empty space of the filter- particles accumulate in the voidage and then you will notice a small layer of cells on top of the filter.

48
Q

What two types of filters are there? (removal sterilisation, not killing!)

A

Depth and screen

49
Q

which type of filter achieves sterility?

A

Screen

50
Q

do depth filters have a fixed pore size?

A

No - it is variable

51
Q

name other properties of depth filters that are associated with them.

A

robust
cheap
intertial impaction
high retentative capacity

52
Q

what is the uniform pore size for a screen filter?

A

0.8um (EU) or 0.45um (America)

53
Q

What is the benefit of using a depth filter and a screen filter in combo?

A

As the uniform pore size of a screen filter is quite low, if you initially tip the product straight over, alot of the pores may get blocked. in this case it is better to use a depth filter first to filter out all the larger particles and then having a screen filter to allow the small particles to hit the surface of the filter.

54
Q

name other properties of screen filters that are associated with them.

A

fragile (very thin)
expensive
will produce a sterile product if the correct porosity is present
direct interception

55
Q

What are the two different methods to validate a filter?

A

physical measurement: bubble point pressure test

biological measurement: Brevundimonas Diminuta

56
Q

explain how the bubble point pressure test works?

A

use tap water
increase the pressure till a few bubbles arise
the relationship between the pressure and the porosity - to make sure the correct porosity is present in the filter.

57
Q

how do you use brevundimonas diminuta to validate the filter?

A

a fully functional filter should be able to remove the organism at a size of 10^7 per cm2 at least! BUT working capacity is usually around 10^9-10^10/cm2 anyways.

58
Q

how does death occur via dry heat sterilisation?

A

oxidative process

59
Q

what is dry heat sterilisation used to sterilise?

A

glasswares, oil preps, instruments

60
Q

why are dry heat ovens efficient?

A

they have stainless steel sides, therefore improving heat transfer. also withold sterilising tunnels (conveyer belts) which is a continuous process

61
Q

what are the critical aspects associated with dry heat sterilisation?

A
Product size (larger products harder to heat up due to low SA:V ratio)
loading pattern 
air circulation (fan assisted oven to achieve an even temp all throughout the oven)
62
Q

what are the four phases of dry heat sterilisation?

A
  1. drying (moisture intitially driven off just by placing the product in the oven and heat starts to rise)
  2. heating (heating to the temp required for the sterilisation)
  3. exposure (exposure of the product to heat for the required amount of time)
  4. cooling (product needs to cool down)
63
Q

which temps are the most commonly used from the pharmacopoeial cycles and what are the holding times associated with these temps?

A

170 degrees C: 60 mins

160 degrees C : 120 mins

64
Q

How long will a dry heat cycle overall take?

A

12-15 hours

65
Q

what technology is used for moist heat sterilisation?

A

autoclave (self boiler or mains steam) very similar to a pressure cooker

66
Q

what products undergo moist heat sterilisation?

A

aqueous products/devices/ dressings e.g. swabs/dressings

67
Q

how does death occur by moist heat sterilisation?

A

death by protein co-agulation and hydrolysis

68
Q

in a autoclave, what temps can it reach?

A

in excess of around 100 degrees celcius

69
Q

what is the mechanism of heat transfer in moist heat S.?

A

steam is generated by boiling of water
temps can reach in excess of around 100oC
steam rises
BUT only occurs if there is no air already present in the chamber of the autoclave

70
Q

how is air removal achieved when you switch the autoclave on?

A

steam comes in from the top, pushes it downwards and pushes air out of the chamber for it to be drained (there is a drain connected at the bottom of the chamber for air to come out - steam pushes the excess air out)

71
Q

how is the product heated in the autoclave?

A

after air removal, saturated steam will wrap itself around the product and some of the energy from the steam is transferred to the product. this causes a slight vaccum to be generated around the product - this cools additional heat and steam. Eventually the chamber and the product will reach the required temp (the chamber first)

72
Q

what are the critical aspects of MHS?

A

air removal
saturated steam
steam under pressure to achieve temps in excess of 100oC

73
Q

what are the critical lethal parameters associated with MHS? these need to be achieved!!!!

A

steam (dry saturated, not WET OR SUPER SATURATED)
temp (+/- 5K of the required temp)
time of contact (sufficient to given SAL of >10^-6)
bioburden level (nature, no. and location)

74
Q

what are the 5 different procsses involved overall in the autoclave?

A
air removal 
heating 
sterilisation/holding period 
cooling 
drying
75
Q

why are the temps very specific in the pharmacopoeial cycles?

A

they correlate with the steam pressures - it is easier to measure the steam pressure rather than the temp (Psi) therefore the temps are very specific

76
Q

what is the most commonly used temp and holding time

A

121-124 oC for 15 mins

77
Q

how long will the process take overall?

A

2-2.5 hours (much less than dry heat sterilisation)

78
Q

What are the three different types of autoclave cycles?

A

fluid cycle (MHS)
porous load cycle
air- ballasted cycle

79
Q

what is a porous load cycle usually used for?

A

fabrics and dressings, all the air needs to be removed then heat is introduced (injecting and withdrawing 6/7 times)
heated alot higher compared to a fluid cycle therefore cycle usually complete within around 30 mins

80
Q

when would you use an air-ballasted cycle?

A

to sterilise sealed plastic units e.g. saline containing plastic bags in hospitals
they have specific pressures associated with them therefore you can’t put them under a fluid cycle

81
Q

Which two ways can you validate and monitor MHS?

A

MTR and TRC

82
Q

Master Temp Record - what does this include?

A

test load
thermocouples placed around the autoclave (minimum of 12 must be placed!) computer generated diagrams help to visualise/localise where the TC’s are in the autoclave

83
Q

Temp Record Chart - what does this include?

A

drain probe temp
once the drain reaches the required temp, the everything else in the chamber should have already reached the required temp

84
Q

which part is the coolest part of the autoclave?

A

the drain

85
Q

What is important about MTR?

A

it is specific for one type of load only!!

if you increase/decrease the volume or size of product then you have to validate the product again - can’t mix and match

86
Q

Why don’t we want gross overkill? (which some companies do by over achieving the SAL)

A

could cause product degradation

this is economically wasteful and expensive - we then make up for it because it pushes the price up of products

87
Q

What is the Fo value?

A

the lethality of a process expressed in terms of the equivalent time in minutes at a temp of 121 degrees delivered by the process to the product in its final container - with reference to micro-organisms possessing a Z-value of 10.

88
Q

what is the minimum value Fo should be?

A

8 mins @ 121 degrees celsius

89
Q

The GREATER the Fo value the GREATER the lethality of the process. Corresponds equivalently to the holding times and temps.

A

the greater the lethality for the greater the Fo value!
e.g. 3 mins @ 134 oC >
8 mins @ 121 oC

90
Q

what are the overall summary points for the Fo value?

A

alternative to compendial (dry heat/moist heat, Eto, radiaiton) cycles
allows lethalities to be compared
can be used for heat labile products
offers great flexibility for heat sterilisation

91
Q

when is EtO sterilisation used?

A

for dispensing items and 50%| of all medical devices

92
Q

what does EtO sterilisation require?

A

standard product load containing suitable biological indicators

93
Q

What needs to be mixed with EtO to calm the explosivity down?

A

needs to be mixed with an inert gas e.g. nitrogen or mainly CO2

94
Q

what is the measure of sterility assurance with EtO - does this differ from other sterilisation processes?

A

there is no accurate, physical measure for EtO, manufacturer’s rely on biological indicators (looking for a certain level of kill on endospores)

95
Q

what are the critical lethal parameters for EtO?

A

time: 1-24 hours
temp: 25-65 oC
humidity: 40-85% RH
EtO conc: 250-1200mg/L EtO
B. Subtilus: used for BOTH validation and monitoring

96
Q

what is the problem with EtO

A

has distribution and penetration issues

97
Q

what equipment is needed for EtO sterilisation?

A

pre-conditioning
steriliser
aeration room (residuals are not explosive to sterile air, the air helps them be removed)

98
Q

how does aeration help? (last step after pre-conditioning and sterilisation cycle|)

A

product is exposed to several pulses of air to make sure any residuals (which could be carcinogenic) are gotten rid of.
manufacturer’s will often quarantine with the product to make sure the product has no EtO left on it.

99
Q

Specific guidance rules with alternative technologies

A
  1. terminal sterilisation preferred to aspetic processing
  2. agent should be exposed to all parts of product (including the packaging)
  3. process does not present hazards to the operators or the environment
  4. process variables are controlled and monitored
  5. process does not leave toxic residues
100
Q

What other factors are associated with alternative technologies, other than specific guidance?

A

general guidance

sterilising agent characteristics

101
Q

what are the sterilising agent characteristics for an alternative technology?

A
  1. precise description of nature and quality of sterilisation agent described
  2. microbial effectiveness needs to be demonstrated e.g. enzyme kinetics, environmental parameters
  3. material effects (product compatibility)
  4. safety and the environment
102
Q

Give examples of new and emerging sterilisation techniques

A

x-ray irradiation
pulsed lights (specific wavelength of light)
microwaves
gas plasma - made the most progress in terms of being used as a sterilisation process

103
Q

what can gas plasma be used to sterilise?

A

medical devices (alternative to EtO)

104
Q

what are microwaves used to sterilise?

A

contact lens’, solutions in vials

105
Q

what is the difference between x-ray irradiation and pulsed lights?

A

X ray: ionising radiation

pulsed lights: specific wave length of broad spectrum light used and it is non-ionising

106
Q

what is pulsed light used to sterilise?

A

in-line sterilisation and intra-vascular medical devices

107
Q

what are the current problems associated with new technologies?

A
  1. unknown lethal effects (should really know how the MO’s are killed)
  2. kill kinetics are different to the traditional processes
    validation compliance: can the new techniques consistently show the end points?
  3. monitoring: physical methods used
  4. no established regulatory requirements - therefore no standards!