Struggle Flashcards
(278 cards)
1
Q
What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative observations?
A
Qualitative observations describe characteristics.
Quantitative observations are based on measurements and reported numerically.
2
Q
What are 3 rules that should be followed in order to design a good experiment?
A
The experiment must show that a hypothesis is either supported or not supported.
The results must be measurable and objective.
The experiment must be repeatable by other scientists.
3
Q
What are primary pollutants?
A
Pollutant substances or compounds in the atmosphere that cause a direct effect or harm to environmental health.
4
Q
What are secondary pollutants?
A
Substances or compounds that are created from reactions between primary pollutants and components of the atmosphere.
5
Q
What are Particulate Matter (PM
A
Solid and liquid particles that are suspended in the air, most of which pose a hazard.
6
Q
What are non-point sources of water pollution?
A
Pollution occurs over a wide area with many possible sources, making it difficult to identify only one source. It can be associated with a town, a series of industries, an agricultural area, and other sources.
7
Q
What is eutrophication?
A
The presence of too many nutrients in the water, enhancing the growth of algae that covers the surface and preventing sunlight from reaching lower levels of rivers, lakes, or seas.
8
Q
What is Epidemiology?
A
a public health science that studies the spread of disease and other health factors in populations
9
Q
What are the steps for an outbreak investigation? 5 things
A
Investigating how many people became sick.
Determining their risk factors.
Gathering diagnosis information.
Creating clinical criteria.
Pinpointing the location of the outbreak
10
Q
What is DNA forensics?
A
A field that uses genetic material during criminal investigations to help solve a crime or answer questions about a crime.
11
Q
What is gene therapy?
A
A technique that allows doctors to prevent or treat a disease by manipulating genetic material as opposed to administering medication or performing surgery.
12
Q
How can gene therapy work? 3 ways
A
Replace a mutated gene with a healthy copy.
‘Knock out’ a mutated gene.
Introduce completely novel genes into a person’s body
13
Q
What is genetic engineering?
A
Modifying or manipulating a living organism’s genetic information in order to achieve desirable traits in the organism.
14
Q
What is eugenics?
A
The idea that humans can be improved through artificial selection.
15
Q
What are telomeres?
A
DNA sequences at the end of chromosomes that shorten naturally as an organism ages.
16
Q
How are atoms created?
A
Through nuclear fission(atoms split) and nuclear fusion(come together)
17
Q
What type of bond is formed when positively and negatively charged ions are brought together by their electrostatic charge?
A
Ionic bond
18
Q
What is an element defined as?
A
A pure substance consisting of only one type of atom.
19
Q
What determines the stability of an atom’s outer electron shell?
A
The number of electrons in the outer shell.
20
Q
How do atoms with incomplete valence levels deal with instability?
A
Share electrons.
Take or donate electrons
21
Q
What are electrons in the outermost shell not involved in bond formation called?
A
Lone pairs
22
Q
What are the unique properties of covalent bond molecules? 6 things
A
Held together by weak van der Waals forces.
Not conductors of electricity.
Easily dissolve in organic solvents.
Have low density.
Have low boiling and melting points.
Are usually in a gaseous, soft solid, or volatile liquid state.
23
Q
What is the ball-and-stick model used for in chemistry?
A
To represent atoms and the bonds between them in molecules.
24
Q
What kind of models are used for macromolecules and very large molecules like proteins or DNA?
A
Blob or ribbon models.
25
Name the four classes of macromolecules.
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Lipids
Nucleic acids
26
What are monomers?
Smaller molecules or subunits that compose macromolecules.
27
What is catabolism?
The chemical breakdown of molecules, such as macromolecules, through hydrolysis.
28
What is anabolism?
The process of building molecules, particularly macromolecules, through dehydration synthesis.
29
What are the monomers of carbohydrates?
Monosaccharides
30
What determines the function of a protein?
Shape
31
What is the function of RNA in cells?
To carry the genetic information from DNA to build proteins.
32
What is the function of DNA in cells?
To carry the genetic information that is responsible for inheritable traits.
32
What are the monomers of nucleic acids?
Nucleotides
33
What are the three subcomponents of a nucleotide?
Sugar
Phosphate
Base
34
What is the specific heat capacity of water?
(4186 J/kg°C) or 1 calorie
35
What is density a measure of?
Mass of an object per unit volume.
35
What is the first law of thermodynamics also known as?
It states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred.
36
What is the second law of thermodynamics?
It states that the entropy(amount of useful work) in a system increases with time.
37
What is anabolism?
Takes simpler molecules and builds them into more complex ones, generally using ATP in the process.
38
What is catabolism?
Breaks down complex molecules into simpler ones, producing ATP in the process.
39
What is a redox reaction?
Reaction that involves transfer of electrons between reactants
40
How do enzymes lower activation energy?
By bringing the reactants together to interact more efficiently.
41
What are the four things needed for enzymes to function?
Enzyme and substrate must be available in sufficient quantities.
Enzyme and substrate collide and bind at the active site.
Formation of enzyme-substrate complex.
Enzyme releases the product and is available for binding with additional substrate.
42
Know the different types of sugars
Ex. What are monosaccharides, di, poly
43
What is the term for the maximum rate of a reaction that an enzyme can reach?
Vmax
44
What are the three factors that can affect enzyme activity?
enzyme and substrate concentration
temperature
pH levels
45
How is enzyme activity regulated in body?
By inducing or repressing the gene producing the enzyme.
46
Where is ATP found in animal cells? Plant Cells?
Animal: Cytoplasm, mitochondria
Plant: cytoplasm, chloroplast
47
What are the products of cellular respiration?
ATP, Water, CO2
48
What is the total number of ATP molecules produced during the entire process of cellular respiration?
32
49
Where does cellular respiration occur if oxygen is present?
Mitochondria
50
What is the photosynthesis equation to make glucose?
6𝐻2𝑂+6𝐶𝑂2+𝑠𝑢𝑛𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡−−>𝐶6𝐻12𝑂6+6𝑂2
51
What are the reactants needed for photosynthesis to occur?
Water
Carbon dioxide
Light
52
What are the products created during photosynthesis?
Oxygen
Glucose
53
What is the equation of light-dependent reaction?
Water (in the presence of light) + NADP + ADP –> Oxygen + NADPH + ATP
54
What are the products of the light-dependent reaction in photosynthesis?
Oxygen
ATP
NADPH
55
Where are photosystems found?
In the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast in plants and algae.
In the cell membrane of photosynthetic bacteria.
56
What is the role of sunlight in the photosystem II during the light-dependent reactions?
It strikes the pigment molecules on the surface of the thylakoid, exciting electrons and raising them to a higher energy level, while photolysis occurs.
57
What does Photosystem I do?
Captures high energy electrons, and passes them down an electron transport chain to produce NADPH.
58
What is the process called that completes the second half of photosynthesis by taking in carbon dioxide and producing glucose?
Calvin cycle
59
What are the reactants of the Calvin cycle?
CO2
ATP
NADPH
60
What are the products of the Calvin cycle?
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P)
ADP
NADP+
61
What are the three main stages of the Calvin cycle?
Carbon fixation
Reduction
Regeneration
62
What is the key to creating sugars in the Calvin cycle?
Carbon Fixation
63
What is reduction in the Calvin cycle?
The process of reducing 3-phosphoglyceric acid (3-PGA) to produce glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) using ATP and NADPH for energy.
64
What is the regeneration stage in the Calvin cycle?
The process of recycling G3P to produce Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) using ATP to allow the cycle to continue.
65
What is the enzyme that joins carbon dioxide with RuBP in the Calvin cycle?
RuBisCo (This process is going to create 6 molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P).
66
What is glycolysis?
Glucose is converted to pyruvate, and energy that is released is converted to 2 ATP.
67
Where does Glycolysis take place within plant and animal cells?
Cytoplasm
68
What are the starting materials of Glycolysis? What are the ending products?
1. Glucose
2. ATP
NADH
2 Pyruvate
69
What is the coenzyme in cells that collects electrons and carries them to another location?
NAD+
70
What is the role of coenzyme NAD+ in glycolysis?
It picks up an electron when it is reduced to become NADH.
71
What are the net products of Glycolysis?
Two pyruvate
Two NADH
Two net ATP
72
What is the CAC cycle?
Converts pyruvate into high-energy intermediates that help create ATP
73
Where does the Krebs Cycle/Citric Acid Cycle occur?
Mitochondria
74
What are the starting materials for the Krebs cycle?
Pyruvate,
NAD+, and
coenzyme A
75
What are the products of the Krebs cycle?
Acetyl-CoA
Carbon dioxide
NADH
76
What are the total products of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle combined?
Four net ATP molecules and six carbon dioxide molecules.
77
What is the electron transport chain?
The final step of cellular respiration that converts food into chemical energy (ATP).
78
Where does the electron transport chain take place?
On the inner membrane of the mitochondria.
79
How much ATP is produced by the electron transport chain in aerobic cellular respiration?
To produce 28 molecules of ATP.
80
What are the reactants of the electron transport chain?
NADH
FADH2
Protons
ADP
Oxygen
81
What are the products of the electron transport chain?
NAD+,
FAD,
water, and
ATP.
82
What happens in the electron transport chain? 3 things
1. **Electrons are transferred from one protein complex to another** on the inner membrane of the mitochondria.
2. Protons are pumped across the membrane, **creating a proton gradient**.
3. **Protons then flow through** the channel protein, **ATP Synthase,** which phosphorylates ADP to **produce ATP**.
83
What is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain?
O2
84
What is the function of ATP synthase in the electron transport chain?
catalyzing the phosphorylation of ADP to produce ATP.
85
What are the two connected processes involved in oxidative phosphorylation?
Electron transport chain
Chemiosmosis
85
What is the primary process that results in ATP production during the electron transport chain?
Chemiosmosis
86
What is the main function of oxidative phosphorylation?
To create a large number of ATP molecules
87
What are the steps of oxidative phosphorylation?
NADH and FADH2 donate their electrons to the electron transport chain.
Electrons moving across the chain produce energy to establish an electrochemical gradient.
Oxygen becomes the final electron acceptor, binding with hydrogen ions to form water.
The electrochemical gradient powers ATP synthase for ATP production.
88
What are the products of oxidative phosphorylation?
Adenosine triphosphate
NAD+
FAD
Water
89
How many molecules of ATP are produced by oxidative phosphorylation from each molecule of glucose?
Approximately 34.
89
Forms of Anaerobic respiration
Alcoholic/lactic acid fermentation
90
What is the main difference between lactic acid fermentation and alcoholic fermentation?
The end product of lactic acid fermentation is lactic acid.
The end product of alcoholic fermentation is ethanol and carbon dioxide.
91
What is the difference between photosynthesis and chemosynthesis?
Photosynthetic organisms need sunlight to make food energy.
Organisms that use chemosynthesis do not require sunlight but need inorganic chemicals from their environment.
92
What is chemosynthesis?
A process whereby a carbon molecule is converted into a sugar-based food source through the oxidation of inorganic molecules as a source of energy.
93
Who coined the term cell
Hooke
94
Who discovered plants had cells
Schleiden
95
Who discovered animals had cells
Theodor Schwann
96
Who discovered unicellular bacteria and protists
Leeuwenhoek
97
Who identified Chromosomes and mitosis
Flemming
98
What did the cell theory put an end to?
Spontaneous generation(cells appear out of thin air)
99
What are the common characteristics of living organisms?
8 things
Cellular organization
Reproduction
Growth and development
Regulation
Respond to stimuli
Use and obtain nutrition
Excretion of waste
100
What is cellular organization in living organisms?
101
Define the endocrine system.
Body system that uses hormones that travel through the blood to convey messages.
102
How are blood glucose levels controlled?
By the pancreas secreting insulin when levels are high and glucagon when levels are low.
103
What are organelles?
Small structures that perform different jobs within a cell.
104
What is the average size range of prokaryotic cells?
0.1 - 5 micrometers in diameter.
105
Where is the DNA located in prokaryotic cells?
In a space called the nucleoid.
106
Where does DNA replication and transcription take place in prokaryotic cells?
In the nucleoid area of the cytoplasm.
107
How do prokaryotic cells divide?
Using binary fission.
107
What specialized molecule makes up the cell walls of prokaryotic cells?
Peptidoglycan
108
What is the average size range of eukaryotic cells?
10 - 100 micrometers in diameter.
109
What is the main advantage of organelles in eukaryotic cells?
They compartmentalize cellular functions, separating processes and organizing space.
110
List the similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Have a cell membrane.
Contain DNA.
Have ribosomes.
Can divide and reproduce
111
What are some similarities between bacterial cells and eukaryotic cells?
Cell wall (in some cases)
Cell membrane
Ribosomes
Cytoplasm
Genetic material
112
What are the differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Prokaryotic Cells:
Simple structure
Lack true nucleus
Lack membrane-bound organelles
Unicellular
Reproduce through binary fission
Eukaryotic Cells:
Larger and more complex
Contain diverse organelles
Have a membrane-bound nucleus
Can be multicellular
Reproduce through mitosis
113
What is the prominent structure found in plant cells that occupies a large portion of the cell volume and stores water?
Large central vacuole.
113
How is DNA structured in prokaryotic cells compared to eukaryotic cells?
pro: single circular chromosome
eu: linear chromosomes
114
What are the differences in organelles between plant and animal cells?
Plant Cells:
1. Rectangular shape
2. One large central vacuole
3. No lysosomes
4. Chloroplasts present
5. Cell wall present
6. Does not contain centrosomes to aid in replication.
Animal Cells:
1. Round shape
2. Several small vacuoles
3. Lysosomes present
4. No chloroplasts
5. No cell wall
6. Contains centrosomes to aid in replication.
115
What is a key difference between plant cells and animal cells?
Plant cells have a cell walls, chloroplasts and central vacuoles. Animal cells do not
116
What is the main purpose of the plasma membrane in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
It’s a thin, flexible, selectively permeable barrier that protects the cell and regulates the passage of substances in and out.
117
What is the fluid mosaic model used to describe?
Plasma membrane
118
What are the hydrophilic parts of phospholipids in the bilayer?
Head
119
What does the plasma membrane allow to diffuse directly across it?
Small, nonpolar molecules, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide.
120
What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?
To further process and package materials into secretory vesicles for transport.
121
What is the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) referred to as in the cell?
The transport system or highway of the cell.
122
What is the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) responsible for?
Transporting properly synthesized proteins and retaining incorrectly made proteins.
123
What is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) responsible for?
Synthesizing, transporting, and storing lipids needed by the cell.
124
What is the function of the smaller subunits of ribosomes?
Decoding the messenger RNA.
125
What is the function of the larger subunits of ribosomes?
Formation of the peptide bonds.
126
What occurs during the initiation stage of ribosomal protein production?
mRNA binding to the smaller subunit of the ribosome and involves the release of initiation factors.
127
What occurs during the elongation stage of ribosomal protein production?
GTP binds with elongation factor Ef-Tu and **formation of peptide bonds between amino acids.**
128
What occurs during the termination stage of ribosomal protein production?
**Recognition of termination codon by release factors** RF1 and RF2, leading to the **release of the peptide chain**.
128
What happens to proteins synthesized by membrane-bound ribosomes?
Transferred to the endoplasmic reticulum and further to the Golgi apparatus for processing.
129
What structure found in animal cells acts as a microtubule organizing center during cell division?
Centrosome
130
What process involves moving molecules into the cell through vesicles?
Endocytosis
131
What are the differences between microtubules and microfilaments?
Microtubules:
**made of tubulin
**have a diameter of 25 nm
**involved in intracellular transport**
Microfilaments:
**made of actin**
have a diameter of 7 nm
**responsible for cellular movement**
132
What is the function of fibrous proteins in the extracellular matrix?
Provide tensile strength and support to tissues.
133
Name the four principle classes of fibrous proteins found in the extracellular matrix.
Collagen
Elastin
Fibronectin
Laminin
134
Explain the concept of hypotonic solutions.
These solutions have the least amount of solute(part dissolved in solvent), with a high solvent concentration.
135
What happens to red blood cells in a hypotonic solution?
They receive water by osmosis, expand, and burst
135
How do red blood cells respond in a hypertonic solution?
They lose water by osmosis and shrivel.
136
What are isotonic solutions?
These are solutions with an equal amount of solutes.
137
What is the function of transcription factors in signal transduction?
Proteins that turn on gene expression.
138
What is the process where protein kinases trigger the phosphorylation of other protein kinases?
Phosphorylation cascade.
139
What does phagocytosis involve?
The process where large molecules or other cells are eaten by engulfing them.
140
What occurs during prophase in cellular division?
**The nucleolus disappears**.
Uncoiled DNA called **chromatin condenses into chromosomes**.
A **mitotic spindle** made out of microtubules **form**
141
What occurs during prometaphase of mitosis?
The **nuclear envelope disappears**.
**Centrosomes** **begin to move to opposite poles**.
**Spindle fibers connect to kinetochores**
142
What occurs during telophase in cellular division?
Individual chromosomes are pulled to opposite ends.
Nuclear envelope forms.
Chromosomes begin to unravel and turn into chromatin.
Cell prepares for cytokinesis
143
What is a cleavage furrow in animal cells?
An indentation on the cell surface that continuously deepens until the animal cell is ‘pinched’ into two separate halves.
144
What are cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) and their role in the cell cycle?
CDKs are enzymes that attach phosphate groups to target proteins, allowing them to perform their functions in the cell cycle.
145
What are tumor suppressors in the cell cycle?
Negative regulators that effectively halt the progression of the cycle when DNA is damaged
146
What are the purines(2 ring) and pyramidines(1 ring)
purine: A and G
Pyramidine: C and T
147
What is the structure of a nucleotide composed of?
A Nitrogenous base
A Sugar
A Phosphate group
148
What does the central dogma of genetics describe?
The flow of genetic information in cells: DNA to RNA to protein.
149
What enzyme allows for the creation of DNA by copying RNA?
Reverse transcriptase
150
What is the site of initial unwinding in DNA replication called?
Origin of replication.
151
What is the role of topoisomerase(gyrase) in DNA replication?
It untangles the DNA molecule by cutting the phosphodiester bonds comprising the backbone of the DNA structure to allow unwinding during transcription and DNA replication.
152
What is the role of single strand binding proteins in DNA replication?
Covering unwound strands to prevent reannealing.
153
What is the function of exonucleases in DNA replication?
Removing RNA primers and replacing them with DNA.
154
Initiation in DNA Replication
Helicase unwinds DNA and topoisomerase prevents supercoiling to open the DNA for DNA polymerase
155
Elongation of DNA Replication
DNA polymerase is the replicating enzyme that works in the 5’ to 3’ direction to create a complementary strand of DNA in the 3’ to 5’ orientation. The strand synthesized continuously is called the leading strand and the strand synthesized in fragments is called the lagging strand.
156
Termination of DNA Replication
DNA polymerase is the replicating enzyme that works in the 5’ to 3’ direction to create a complementary strand of DNA in the 3’ to 5’ orientation. The strand synthesized continuously is called the leading strand and the strand synthesized in fragments is called the lagging strand.
157
What is the name of the parent strand that runs in the 3’ to 5’ direction
Leading strand
158
What occurs during the initiation stage of transcription?
1. Binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter region.
2. Formation of transcription initiation complex.
3. Unwinding of DNA for access to template DNA.
159
Elongation of Transcription of RNA
The addition of new nucleotides and elongation of an RNA strand by RNA polymerase in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
160
Termination of RNA replication
Terminator sequence marks the termination of the RNA transcription and RNA is released from the RNA polymerase.
161
Where does transcription and translation occur in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
1. In prokaryotes, transcription and translation are coupled and occur simultaneously in the cytoplasm.
2. In eukaryotes, transcription and translation occur separately in the nucleus and cytoplasm and/or endoplasmic reticulum.
162
What are the three main processes that comprise pre-mRNA processing?
Splicing
Capping
Tailing
163
What is the function of tRNA molecules during translation?
They match up with amino acids and attach to the mRNA strand by matching their anticodons to the mRNA codons.
164
What marks the termination of the translation process?
The presence of stop codons
165
What is the start codon sequence in translation?
AUG
166
What is gene expression?
The process of turning on or off different genes in a cell to create proteins necessary for various cellular functions
167
What is the function of the promoter region in the lac operon?
It is where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription of the structural genes needed to metabolize the sugar lactose, containing structural genes for lactose metabolism
168
How is gene expression turned off in prokaryotes?
Through the binding of the repressor to the operator, blocking RNA polymerase from reading the DNA
169
What does the degenerate nature of the genetic code mean?
Multiple codons may code for the same amino acid.
170
Why is the genetic code considered universal?
All living organisms use the same genetic code to create proteins.
171
How many different codons are there? Amino acids in humans
64, 20
172
What are the components of a typical operon?
Promoter
Operator region
Regulator protein (repressor or activator)
173
What is the function of chaperone proteins in protein synthesis?
fold the polypeptide chain into the correct shape
174
What happens during synapsis in meiosis?
Homologous chromosomes come together in pairs and form tetrads.
175
What are the different types of mutations that can occur in chromosomes?
Deletion a particular section of a chromosome is lost.
Duplication a particular section of a chromosome is duplicated.
Inversion or switching around of genes or sections that make up a chromosome.
Translocation, which occurs when a portion of a chromosome is detached and reattached to another nonhomologous chromosome.
176
Common Pt mutation diseases
Cystic Fibrosis
Color Blindness
Tay-saches Disease
Sickle Cell
177
What is a missense mutation?
resulting in a different amino acid
178
Nonsense mutation is when what happens?
Stop codon is produced
179
What is the difference between transition and transversion mutations?
Transition: Same type of base substituted.
Transversion: Purine substituted for pyrimidine, or vice versa.
180
What is Polymerase Chain Reaction?(PCR)
A nucleic acid amplification technique that amplifies genetic material several millions to billions of times.
181
What are the three primary steps of PCR?
1. Denaturation(Break hydrogen bonds)
2. Annealing(allow priers to attach to DNA template)
3.Extension (add nucleotides)
182
What is a karyotype?
A picture of a person’s chromosomes, used to examine the number and structure of chromosomes.
183
What ratio did Mendel’s Second Law predict in a dihybrid cross?
9:3:3:1
184
What is epistasis?
The phenomenon of one gene suppress or interfere with the physical expression of another gene.
185
What are the causes of epistasis?
Mutagens or physical or chemical influences which can cause a gene to mutate and be broken.
Recombination during meiosis.
Nondisjunction during meiosis.
186
What is the difference between pleiotropy and polygenic inheritance?
Pleiotropy: one gene affects multiple traits.
Polygenic inheritance: many genes influence one trait.
187
What is epigenetics?
The study of how environmental factors influence heritable traits.
188
Be able to read pedigree problems and tell what type of inheritance a disease is
189
Know how to do HWE problem
190
What is divergent evolution?
Ex.?
When an ancestral species spreads into multiple populations, niches, or geographical locations.
Ex. Darwin's finches
191
What is coevolution?
Ex.?
Occurs between two or more species which are evolutionarily distant from one another, but influence each other’s evolution through natural selection.
Ex. Predator-Prey
192
What is parallel evolution?
Occurs when geographically distant and independent species develop and maintain similar original traits due to similar evolutionary pressure or adaption to similar circumstances
193
What is convergent evolution?
Occurs when organisms of different origins evolve in similar environments and develop similar traits.
ex. sharks and dolphins
194
Describe the bottleneck effect. Evolution question
A drastic form of genetic drift that occurs when a population’s size is drastically reduced.
195
How is a species defined by the biological species concept?
A group of individuals capable of mating and producing fertile offspring.
196
What is the field of paleontology?
The study of prehistoric life, including fossils, footprints, and past climatic events.
197
What is homology in comparative anatomy?
Similar characteristics in organisms from a common ancestor.
198
What is the Endosymbiotic Theory?
The theory that mitochondria and chloroplasts were once free-living prokaryotic cells
199
How old is Earth?
About 4.6 billion years old.
200
What is the Competitive Lotka-Volterra Model?
A mathematical model formalizing the impacts of interspecific competition on populations.
201
Who is considered the father of taxonomic classification?
Linnaeus
202
List the four kingdoms under the domain Eukarya.
Plantae
Animalia
Fungi
Protista
203
Which phylum includes sea sponges and most sessile aquatic life?
Description: simple body structure, aquatic habitat, and skeleton made of spicules
Porifera
204
Which phylum includes jellyfish?
Description: radially symmetrical invertebrate animals that lack a true body cavity, possess tentacles studded with nematocysts
Cnidaria
205
Earthworms and related species fall under which phylum?
Description: the possession of a body cavity (or coelom), movable bristles (or setae), and a body divided into segments by transverse rings
Annelida
206
Which phylum is the largest and includes all insects?
Description:
a segmented body and jointed appendages, a usually chitinous exoskeleton molted at intervals, and a dorsal anterior brain connected to a ventral chain of ganglia.
Arthropoda
207
What phylum includes all organisms with a backbone?
Chordata
208
What is used to identify organisms and includes the genus and species name?
Binomial nomenclature
209
What is the cellular wall of most bacteria made up of?
Peptidoglycans
210
What is mycelium?
A root-like network of fibrous threads called hyphae responsible for the absorption and transportation of nutrients in fungi.
211
What are the eight characteristics used to classify animals?
Have to have all of these!
Eukaryotic
Multicellular
Heterotrophic
Have the ability to move
Have body symmetry
Have a body cavity
Contain tissues
Have a vertebral column
212
What is the term for a virus that infects and replicates within bacteria?
Bacteriophage
213
List the levels of biological organization from smallest to largest.
Atoms
Molecules
Cells
Tissues
Organs
Organ Systems
Organism
Population
Community
Ecosystem
Biome
Biosphere
214
What is permafrost?
Permanently frozen ground located under the soil and is unique to the tundra biome.
215
What triggers the release of the follicle from the ovary in females?
The luteinizing hormone (LH)
216
What are the two main circuits of the cardiovascular system?
Pulmonary circuit: Moves blood between the heart and the lungs.
Systemic circuit: Moves blood throughout the body.
217
What is the function of platelets in the blood?
Help blood to become solid and clot when a blood vessel is broken.
218
What is the function of the tricuspid valve in the heart? bicuspid is opposite
Allows deoxygenated blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle.
219
What is the function of the pulmonary artery?
Carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs
220
What is the function of the pulmonary vein
Carries oxygenated blood back to the heart from the lungs
221
What is the function of the spleen in the cardiovascular system?
Filters blood and removes damaged or old red blood cells.
222
What is the overall function of the respiratory system?
Bringing air into the body.
Putting oxygen in the blood.
Removing carbon dioxide and wastes from the blood.
Releasing air from the body.
223
What are the structures that are more commonly called the air sacs and are the site of gas exchange in the lungs?
Alveoli
224
What are the muscles located between the ribs that help to move the chest cavity during inhalation and exhalation?
Intercostal muscles
225
What is the function of amylase in the digestive process?
Breaks large polysaccharides into smaller ones.
226
Which enzyme breaks proteins down into smaller peptides in the stomach?
Pepsin
227
What is the function of the pyloric sphincter?
Controls the flow of partially digested food into the small intestine.
228
Where does most nutrient absorption in the lower GI tract occur?
Small intestine
229
What are the major functions of the kidneys?
Filter waste products out of the blood.
Help regulate blood composition and pressure.
230
What is a major byproduct of human metabolism that the liver converts into urea?
Ammonia
231
What are the tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder called?
Ureters
232
What happens in the renal tubules of the kidneys?
They collect filtrate from the blood, concentrate it into urine, and reabsorb nutrients, water, and sodium chloride.
233
What are the organs of the immune system?
Spleen, thymus, bone marrow
234
What is the role of thymus in the immune system?
Produces important immune cells.
235
What are the types of white blood cells produced in the bone marrow? what do they do
Neutrophils: Kill bacteria and fungi.
Eosinophils: Kill parasites and invade cancerous cells.
Basophils: Involved in an allergic response.
Monocytes: Get rid of damaged cells.
Lymphocytes: Attack viruses and produce antibodies.
236
What is the primary function of innate immunity(non-specific)
To act as the body’s initial line of defense against infections and illnesses
237
What is the primary role of T-cells in the immune system?
Destroy cells directly.
238
What is the purpose of immune tolerance?
To distinguish between self and non-self (foreign) cells.
239
What are the five main categories of bones in the skeletal system?
Long bones
Short bones
Flat bones
Sesamoid bones
Irregular bones
Note(classified by shape)
240
What is the function of long bones in the skeletal system? Ex.
Contain red marrow that functions in producing blood cells and have an epiphyseal plate for bone lengthening.
(humerus, femur, radius. ulna, tibia, fibula, falanges)
241
Where can short bones be found in the body?
Places like the wrists and ankles.
242
Give an example of a flat bone in the skeletal system.
scapula (shoulder blade)
pelvis
243
What are examples of irregular bones in the skeletal system?
mandible (lower jaw bone)
vertebrae
sacrum
244
What is the composition of skeletal muscle?
Bundles of **myofibrils**.
Long and **fibrous muscle cells**.
**Sarcomeres** containing **actin and myosin fiber**s.
245
What is the function of ligaments in the musculoskeletal system?
Connect two bones together.
246
What is the function of tendons in the musculoskeletal system?
Connect muscles to bones at their origins and insertions.
247
Specialized cells that can send electrochemical signals.
neurons
248
What is the cerebrum responsible for?
Main processing organ of the body.
249
What is the cerebellum involved in?
Fine motor coordination, motor learning, and more.
250
What is the brainstem responsible for?
Involuntary body processes such as breathing, heartrate, and regulating the sleep cycle.
251
What is the function of the afferent division of the peripheral nervous system?
Sends sensory information from the body to the brain.
252
What is the function of the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system?
Sends motor information from the brain to the glands and muscles.
253
What does xylem transport?
Water and dissolved minerals.
254
What does phloem transport?
Sugar and nutrients.
255
What is the process by which water is lost through the stomata of leaves?
Transpiration
256
what do guard cells do?
They surround stomata and control their opening and closing.
257
What is the alternation of generations in plants?
It describes the unique nature of plant life cycles where they alternate between two different stages of life in each generation.
258
What are ecomorphs?
Populations of distantly related animals that have recently acquired morphological differences to adapt to certain environments.
259
What is fecundity?
The biological capability and capacity of bearing children.
260
What information is able to be obtained from a survivorship curve?
Types of survivorship
Life expectancy
Reproductive timing
261
What are density-independent factors as limiting factors?
Natural disasters
Climate change
Pollution
262
What are density-dependent factors as limiting factors?
Disease
Resource availability
263
What is a niche?
The special role an organism plays within its ecosystem.
264
What can destroy atmospheric ozone?
Reactions with chloro-fluoro-carbons (CFCs) or nitrogen dioxide (NO2).
265
What are the seven components of the water cycle in order?
Evaporation
Condensation
Precipitation
Sublimation
Transpiration
Runoff
Infiltration
266
What is the largest pool of carbon in the world?
Sediments of the deep ocean.
267
What is the process called when some bacteria add hydrogen atoms to atmospheric nitrogen to create ammonia?
Nitrogen Fixation
268
What is the process by which ammonia is converted to nitrite and then to nitrate called?
Nitrification
269
In the nitrogen cycle, what process converts nitrate back into atmospheric nitrogen?
Denitrification
270
What are the steps in the phosphorus cycle?
1. Weathering releases phosphates from rocks and sediments.
2. Plants absorb the phosphates from the soil.
Animals obtain phosphates by eating plants or other animals.
3. Decomposition of plants and animals returns phosphates back to the environment
