Struggles through FL 2 Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
Define: Magnocellular cells
A
perceive moving objects
2
Q
Define: Parvocellcular cells
A
perceive stationary objects
3
Q
Name the theory: proposes that working memory is controlled by a system termed “central executive”. This organizing system coordinates two other structures, the visuospatial sketchpad and the phonological loop. The sketchpad holds visual information to be used and manipulated by the central executive, while the loop is the site of auditory information for the same purpose.
A
Baddeley’s model of working memory
To summarize, Baddley’s model of working memory includes a phonological loop and a visuospatial sketchpad.
4
Q
Which mode of reinforcement causes high amounts of response near end of interval and slower responses immediately after delivery of reward (beginning of interval)
A
Fixed interval reinforcement
5
Q
Explain: Cognitive Appraisal of Stress
A
Cognitive Appraisal of Stress consists of TWO stages. Primary and Secondary. During primary, person analyzes stressor along with surrounding environment and determines if it’s a threat. If primary appraisal determines the presence of a threat, secondary appraisal begins. During secondary appraisal, the individual decides whether and how he or she can cope with the threat.
6
Q
What is the most useful demographic in determining risk for various diseases?
A
Age is the most useful demographic in determining risk for various diseases - Age is related to far more conditions than the other mentioned characteristics. Aging directly affects the body’s ability to fight off and recuperate from disease. Across all ethnic groups, the elderly are significantly more vulnerable than the young to a wide spectrum of illnesses.
7
Q
True or False: Members of a lower socioeconomic class are likely to have less social capital, because they exist in in a larger network of people, and have weak ties and a larger network of connections.
A
True
8
Q
True or False: Attitudes tend to have the most predictable effects on behavior when they are highly specific
A
True
9
Q
True or False: In Socialization, Values, behaviors, attitudes and norms must ALL be accepted or rejected.
A
True
10
Q
Explain the difference between Normative Influence and Informational influence
A
Normative influence (being liked)
Information influence (being right)
11
Q
True or False: A status can be both achieved and ascribed.
A
False.
Remember: a status can either be achieved or ascribed, but can never be both achieved AND ascribed. A master status, however, can be both achieved or ascribed in addition to being the master status.
12
Q
What kind of social control causes shame, criticism, and ridicule without explicit laws or regulations?
A
Informal social control
13
Q
Often known as “muscle memory”, This is how someone can multitask simpler and more efficiently when performing actions they are used to.
A
Automatic processing
14
Q
This term refers to ones value or worth as a person. This is NOT related to abilities unless specified.
A
Self-esteem
15
Q
This term refers to how well the experimental results may be generalized to other situations
A
External Validity
16
Q
What are McConnell’s 3 techniques of brainwashing?
A
- isolation
- Dependency
- Reward
17
Q
What are the three cues in Kelley’s covariation model of attribution?
A
- Consensus cues
- Distinctiveness cues
- Consistency cues
18
Q
This is designed to provide healthcare for patients over 65 years of age
A
Medicare
19
Q
True or False: Water, CO2, and Urea can all cross the plasma membrane through simple diffusion
A
True
20
Q
What is the vant hoff factor of O2?
A
1, because it does not dissociate into ions.
21
Q
True of False: Both endocytosis AND exocytosis REQUIRE ENERGY and do not happen spontaneously
A
True
22
Q
What are responsible for degrading ingested substances via endocytosis in order for the cell to repurpose the basic building blocks of the ingested material for other uses?
A
Lysosomes
23
Q
True or False: Noradrenaline is not a catecholamine
A
False. Noradrenaline and Adrenaline are both catecholamines
24
Q
If an observer watches another engage in a behavior (e.g. flipping over rocks), what is required to draw the inference that such a behavior is intentional and aimed at a particular reward (e.g. looking for grubs to eat under the rocks rather than just flipping rocks randomly).
A
Theory of mind.
“Theory of mind” refers to the ability of a subject to understand that others have minds and to make inferences about the intentions and actions of others.
25
Explain the difference between primary reinforcers and secondary reinforcers
Primary reinforcers are those things that are directly biological such as food, drink or sex. Secondary reinforcers are those things that are conditioned such as money or grades in school.
26
Define: Ingratiation
Ingratiation is an attempt to influence another person by becoming more “like-able”
27
______ is a form of impression management in which we accept a current situation and explain our behavior in a way that shows we accept the situation.
Aligning Actions
28
_________ occurs when we choose behavior (or an explanation for our behavior) which shows that we do not accept a situation.
Realigning actions
For example, someone who shouts at a political rally might say later that they were expressing support for the speaker. This would be an example of an aligning action. However, someone who shouts insults at a speaker during a political rally and attempts to make a speech of their own would be engaging in realigning actions.
29
________ occurs when people become attracted to things or people they are exposed to on a regular basis.
The mere exposure effect
30
What type of selection applies to traits that do not directly imply fitness (e.g., the feathers of a male peacock).
Fisherian selection
31
Define: game theory
Generally, game theory is a way of explaining how individuals try to make decisions that are in their best interests when others are part of the decision-making process.
32
Define: Altercasting
Altercasting involves characterizing a person, and then creating the expectation that they fit this characterization.
33
What refers to genetically-determined physical differences between the sexes.
Sexual dimorphism
34
What substance enhances the action of GABA receptors, which are inhibitory receptors?
Alcohol
35
What substance is a stimulant that blocks the reuptake of serotonin?
Cocaine
36
What substance is also a stimulant, but it works by promoting the release of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine?
MDMA (ecstasy/molly)
37
What substance promotes alertness by blocking adenosine receptors (which promote drowsiness)?
Caffeine
38
When awake and alert, the brain’s electrical activity primarily consists of _____ waves. When tired or drifting off, ______ waves predominate. _____ waves occur in stages 1 and 2 of sleep, but stage 2 is characterized by ________ and _______, while _____ waves predominate in stage 3.
beta, alpha, theta, K-complexes, sleep spindles, delta
39
What are the slowest type of brain waves, and in which stage of sleep do they emerge?
Delta waves, the slowest type of brain waves, emerge during stage 3 sleep.
40
True or False: In stage 1 sleep, slow eye movements occur. In stage 2 sleep, eye movements stop and breathing and heart rate become slower.
True
41
True or false: Meditation promotes beta waves in experienced practitioners
False.
Meditation has been shown to promote alpha and theta waves in experienced practitioners. Beta waves are associated with alertness and are not promoted by meditation.
42
Explain the difference between MDMA and Cocaine
MDMA promotes the release of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine.
Cocaine works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine, therefore allowing them to exert their effects over a larger period of time.
43
__________ is a psychiatric condition associated with chronic alcoholism that involves amnesia and a tendency for confabulation, or invented memories.
Korsakoff syndrome
44
_______ waves, which are present when someone is fully awake, are characterized by high-frequency, low-amplitude waveforms.
Beta waves
45
________ is an opioid that can be described as an extremely potent endorphin agonist.
Fentanyl
46
__________ are depressants that enhance the activity of GABA receptors
Barbiturates
47
What is the FIRST step in Broadbent’s filter model of attention?
In Broadbent’s filter model of attention, the FIRST step is processing of sensory stimuli, thereby yielding information about properties such as color, shape, pitch, loudness, etc.
48
Define: Pragmatics
Pragmatics is the study of how nonverbal aspects of language contribute to meaning
49
Define Linguistic determinism and give an example of it.
Linguistic determinism is the idea that language constrains thought and perception. Because the culture has no word that distinguishes red from orange, the person cannot discriminate between these colors.
50
What is the difference between language determinism and language relativism?
Linguistic relativism holds that language has some influence on the way we think about and perceive the world. (Linguistic determinism is the stronger view that language determines thought and perception completely.)
51
Explain Ebbinghaus' curve of forgetting
Ebbinghaus’ curve of forgetting shows how retention of memorized material decreases over time, especially if it is not rehearsed or otherwise emphasized. Information is forgotten most rapidly in the days right after memorization.
52
Explain the idea of information influence, a major component of group polarization.
Two major components of group polarization are informational influence and normative influence. Informational influence relates to group members’ desire to be accurate or “right” about an idea. When a member holds a minority opinion, she may assume that she is wrong and change her mindset to reflect that of the majority. This explains why the dominant viewpoints end up being reflected in the ideas that emerge.
53
How do transcription factors affect cell differentiation?
Transcription factors direct the eukaryotic transcription of a set of specific genes. As differential gene expression is critical to cell differential, transcription factors thus play a key role.
54
Are conditioned responses a key component of emotion?
No.
There are three core components of emotion – physiological arousal (how your body reacts to emotions, emotional information or stimuli), expressive displays (how you express your emotions), and subjective experiences (how you feel and interpret your emotions, which is extremely personal and subjective). Conditioned responses are not a core component of emotion.
55
Name and explain the three core components of emotion.
There are three core components of emotion – physiological arousal (how your body reacts to emotions, emotional information or stimuli), expressive displays (how you express your emotions), and subjective experiences (how you feel and interpret your emotions, which is extremely personal and subjective). Conditioned responses are not a core component of emotion.
56
Explain the Stroop Effect
The Stroop effect describes the phenomenon in which it is harder for an individual to reconcile different pieces of information relating to colors than to reconcile similar pieces of information.
An example of this is reading the word "green" while the letters are red, and so on.
57
The ____________ is a protein-based linkage that appears during meiosis and connects homologous chromosomes. As these chromosomes must be closely situated to facilitate crossing over, issues could arise involving genetic recombination or synapsis.
The synaptonemal complex
58
This theory focused on the processes by which people acquire behaviors and other characteristics simply by observing others and attempting to imitate them.
Albert Bandura’s theory of observational learning
59
Hiking and skiing each require attention to different properties of the terrain. Experiencing a path via hiking, and later being able to ski it well, suggests that __________ about the terrain has taken place. In other words, the individual has learned things about the terrain that were not necessarily applied while hiking but were used later while skiing.
Latent Learning
60
Explain the idea of a token economy
In a token economy, tokens are secondary reinforcers that can be exchanged for primary reinforcers. For example, "schrute bucks" are secondary reinforcers that can be exchanged for time off, which functions as a primary (and positive) reinforcer.
61
_________ are a type of solid that do not have order to their particles.
Amorphous solids
62
________ solids consist of particles that are packed in an ordered manner with a repeating pattern. There are four different types of these solids: ionic, molecular, covalent network, and metallic solids.
Crystalline solids
63
What are the four types of crystalline solids?
ionic, molecular, covalent network, and metallic solids.
64
_______ solids consist of cations and anions, which are held together by the electrostatic attraction between them.
Ionic solids
65
___________ solids are held together by intermolecular forces, such as hydrogen bonding and London dispersion forces.
Molecular solids
66
__________________ solids are held together by covalent bonds. The intricate network of covalent bonding throughout the crystal causes them to have very high melting points.
Covalent network solids
67
________ solids consist of central metal atoms surrounded by delocalized valence electrons that give them the ability to conduct heat and electricity.
Metallic solids
68
What is a possible consequence of oligonucleotides, such as mRNA, not being degraded rapidly by intracellular agents?
The destruction of mRNA prevents continuous protein production, allowing the cell to change its protein expression over time. The coordination of cell differentiation during development is extremely sensitive to the timing of mRNA turnover.
69
Rank the following molecules from most to least acidic: propanal, propanoic acid, propanone, and propanedial
In order from most acidic to least acidic:
| propanoic acid > propanedial > propanal > propanone.
70
Explain the hydrogen bonding patterns of Carbonyl groups.
Because carbonyls are aprotic, they are not capable of acting as hydrogen bond donors. They can, however, be hydrogen bond acceptors by using their oxygen to interact with an electropositive hydrogen from a different functional group such as an alcohol (-OH).
71
Are ketones or aldehydes more reactive?
A ketone’s carbonyl carbon is hindered by two hydrocarbon groups (R) such as alkyl groups, while an aldehyde carbonyl is bonded to only one R group and one hydrogen. As a result, aldehydes can be more easily approached by nucleophiles, , making aldehydes more reactive. In addition, aldehydes' carbonyl carbons have a higher partial positive charge than those of ketones because aldehydes have only one electron-donating carbon group bonded to the carbonyl.
72
Explain the reaction of chromic acid with ketones and aldehydes, respectively
Chromic acid (H2CrO4), like many chromium-containing reagents, is a strong oxidizing agent. Reaction of an aldehyde with such a compound will oxidize it as thoroughly as possible. Since an aldehyde has only one bond to carbon, it possesses the ability to form three bonds to oxygen, creating a carboxylic acid. Ketones can not do this, as they’d need to break C-C bonds to do so, which is unfavorable.
73
How are imines synthesized?
Imines are formed from primary amines and either aldehydes or ketones.
74
What two compounds create a hemiketal?
Hemiketals are produced from the reaction of alcohols with ketones
75
Rank the stability from lowest to highest:
| carboxylates, acyl chlorides, acid anhydrides, amides, and esters.
Recall that acyl chlorides are the most reactive, followed by acid anhydrides, followed by the fairly unreactive esters and almost entirely unreactive amides. And don’t forget that carboxylates, the conjugate base of carboxylic acids, are the most stable of the bunch!
acyl chlorides < acid anhydrides < esters < amides < carboxylates
76
True or False: LiAlH4 is a very strong reducing agent and would generate a primary alcohol from a carboxylic acid
True
77
If a lung is punctured, what effect will this likely have on breathing?
The punctured lung will be unable to inflate, affecting inhalation.
78
Why does histone deacetylation generally decreases gene expression?
Since DNA is negatively charged due to its phosphate backbone, the charge on lysine allows for tight histone-DNA interactions thanks to electrostatic attraction between the charged atoms on each molecule. Acetylation of lysine makes the residue neutral, lessening these interactions and promoting a looser structure. Loose chromatin structure is typically associated with euchromatin, the less dense, transcriptionally active chromatin structure that appears light under a microscope. In contrast, histone deacetylation will restore the positive charge to the residue, allowing the electrostatic attractions to return. Therefore, deacetylation of lysine residues on histones should lead to a denser chromatin structure and lowered transcription/gene expression.
79
Compared to a T11 residue, a T3 residue is:
closer to the N-terminus, and that terminus is likely to be positively charged in vivo.
80
Do post-transcriptional modifications involve catalysis by enzymes?
Post-transcriptional modifications do involve catalysis by enzymes. For example, addition of the poly(A) tail is catalyzed by a poly(A) polymerase.
81
Where do proteins undergo post-transcriptional modifications?
Proteins do NOT undergo post-transcriptional modifications. Protein modifications must be post-translational modifications. Such modifications can take place in a variety of locations within the cell, such as the interior of the endoplasmic reticulum or the cytoplasm. In contrast, post-transcriptional modifications (those performed on mRNA) occur in the nucleus; these include the addition of the poly(A) tail, the addition of the 5’ cap, and splicing.
82
Are histones enzymes?
No. Although they are proteins, histones are not enzymes.
83
If the DNA of a representative species from each of the major kingdoms was examined, the sequences coding for which of following would be expected to be most similar?
Photosynthesis, cholesterol synthesis, protein modification, or DNA synthesis?
DNA synthesis. DNA sequences that are common among different species, phyla, or even kingdoms are called conserved sequences. Conserved sequences tend to remain that way due to the fact that they code for a vital function that is common among disparate species.
84
Which phase of mitosis is likely to be first interrupted if a cell has no microtubules?
Metaphase
85
Describe anomers, and explain the difference between and alpha and beta anomer.
Anomers are a form of epimer. Epimers are sugars that differ only at one stereocenter, with all other stereocenters being exactly the same. Thus, epimers are a type of diastereomer. An alpha anomer has an -OH group on its anomeric carbon pointing in the opposite direction from the CH2OH group. In contrast, an anomer that has its -OH group pointing in the same direction as the CH2OH group is the beta anomer.
86
From which amino acid are the catecholamines derived?
Tyrosine
87
From what molecule are thromboxanes derived?
Thromboxanes are a class of prostanoids derived from arachidonic acid.
88
From what molecule are prostaglandins derived?
Prostaglandins are a class of prostanoids derived from arachidonic acid.
89
If inhibitor A (a strong acid) and inhibitor B (a strong base) are mixed together before being added to the reaction mixture, how will this affect the enzyme kinetics curve?
It will be unaffected as the strong acid and strong base will neutralize each other before added to the mixture.
90
Do prokaryotes contain introns?
No
91
The disruption of which membrane component is most likely to result in cellular traffic complications similar to those seen in gap junction disorders?
Choose between cholesterol, glycoproteins, glycolipids, and phospholipids
The cell membrane is composed of several different components, each responsible for different functions. Membrane transport is most likely to be affected if the disruption occurs in components that span the entire membrane. Transmembrane proteins (many of which are glycoproteins) are the only component listed that pass all the way through the cell membrane and facilitate membrane transport.
92
Is the side chain of phenylalanine polar or nonpolar?
The side chain of phenylalanine is nonpolar, not polar.
93
True or False: Meiosis I results in two diploid daughter cells.
False.
Meiosis I results in two haploid daughter cells.
94
True or False: During mitosis and meiosis II, sister chromatids are separated.
This question is asking us to recall some facts about mitosis and meiosis. Remember that mitosis separates sister chromatids to create two diploid daughter cells. Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes to create haploid daughter cells, each of which divides again, separating sister chromatids in Meiosis II to create two haploid cells.
95
siRNA is generally part of what process?
siRNA (small interfering RNA) is associated with post-transcriptional modification, in which it silences genes by interrupting expression.
96
In severe diabetic hyperglycemia (high blood sugar), insulin cannot effectively induce the uptake of glucose by cells. Chronic hyperglycemia directly leads to the presence of which of these molecules in the urine?
I. Proteins
II. Glucose
III. Ketone bodies
II and III only
This question requires outside knowledge about glucose metabolism. If cells cannot take up glucose, it will remain in the blood and eventually be excreted in the urine when it builds up to the point that it cannot be reabsorbed by the nephron (II). In a state of extended hyperglycemia, the body relies on fat metabolism to generate energy, which produces ketone bodies that are also excreted in the urine (III).
97
Meiosis I results in:
2 haploid cells with 23 chromosomes, each chromosome consisting of 2 sister chromatids.
Meiosis I results in 2 haploid cells, each with 23 chromosomes consisting of 2 sister chromatids per chromosome. In the male, the sister chromatids are split into 4 gametes during meiosis II. For females, meiosis I results in a secondary oocyte (a gamete) and a polar body. Penetration of the secondary oocyte by a sperm brings on anaphase II. Telophase II produces a zygote and a second polar body. Remember for the MCAT: mitosis results in diploid daughter cells, while meiosis results in haploid cells to produce gametes.
98
Given that ΔG° is negative for a particular reaction, what can be said about the equilibrium constant K?
K > 1
Given that ∆G° is negative, and using the equation ∆G° = -RTlnK, ln(K) must be positive for ∆G° to be negative. K > 1.
99
Which of the following molecules is/are most likely to have selective proteins in the BBB to facilitate its passage into the brain?
Antibodies, starch, amino acids, or urea?
Amino acids
The correct answer will be a molecule or substance that is essential to brain function. Amino acids are necessary for the production of proteins, which are essential for the function of any cell.
100
True or False: The nervous system is derived from ectoderm
True.
Remember, the ectoderm is the outer layer of the gastrula. It gives rise to the nervous system, epidermis, hair, nails, teeth, and sweat glands.
101
Uracil is usually found in:
I. tRNA.
II. ribosomes.
III. single-stranded DNA.
I and II only.
Uracil is found in any structure made of RNA. Both tRNA and ribosomes are made of RNA (I and II). Single-stranded DNA has thymine rather than uracil (III).
102
What is "parallel play"?
Parallel play is a normal part of the behavior of preschool children, in which they will play by themselves but observe another child playing and adjust their behavior in response. Parallel play does not entail direct interaction between the children. As children reach school age, they are much more likely to engage in forms of play together.
103
The music children listen to conveys certain typical social situations and the expected emotional reaction to those situations in a simple, repetitive way that allows children and adolescents to more easily internalize. This process of internalizing the expected reactions to life situations is:
a normal part of the socialization process.
Socialization is the process of internalizing the social norms and values expected in one’s society, and mass media (such as popular music) is one source of normal socialization.
104
The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion would suggest that any aggressive emotions that the children experience as a result of listening to aggressive music would:
entail simultaneous physiological arousal and a subjective feeling of aggression, which are separate and independent.
The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion asserts that the physiological arousal and the subjective feeling of an emotion arise from different parts of the brain and are separate and independent of one another.
105
Assuming that the children studied are 6-7 years old and are in the normal stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, which of the following would most likely be observed among these subjects?
A. An ability to mentally manipulate information
B. A high degree of symbolic play
C. Empathy based on understanding the viewpoint of another child
D. An ability to solve puzzle games using simple deductive logic
B. A high degree of symbolic play
In Piaget's stages of development, children from ages 2 to 7 are in the pre-operational stage of development. At that level, children learn to operate symbolically and engage in a lot of symbolic play (e.g. a stick is a sword, a plastic toy is a cake, a doll is a person, etc.).
106
Which of the following statements accurately describes a major assumption of the functionalist theory of social stratification?
I. Social stratification affects what people believe about themselves and others and influences their daily life, lifestyle choices, and interactions with others.
II. Social stratification is unnecessary and results from both lack of opportunity and discrimination against the poor and people of color.
III. Social stratification is necessary and results from the need for those with special intelligence, knowledge, and skills to be a part of the most important professions and occupations.
III only.
Functionalist theories assert that aspects of culture are necessary and need-based (III).
107
True or False: Higher infant mortality is associated with lower quality-of-life indicators.
True
108
True or False: Higher fertility rates tend to be associated with lower quality-of-life indicators.
True
109
What characteristics of society are associated with high levels of anomie?
I. Rapid changes in society
II. Low levels of income
III. High heterogeneity
I, II, and III
Anomie refers to society feeling fragmented and lacking cohesiveness. All of the characteristics listed are associated with anomie (I, II, III).
110
Explain the idea of internal validity?
Internal validity refers to the degree to which causal conclusions can be drawn from a study, which can include accounting for potential confounding variables.
111
Explain the idea of external validity
External validity describes the degree to which the findings of a study are generalizable to the population as a whole. Typically, this involves issues regarding the size and representativeness of the sample.
112
Explain The cognitive appraisal theory of emotion
In the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, individuals make different interpretations about stimuli, such as interpreting stigma negatively or non-negatively.
113
What is "fading" in operant conditioning?
Fading is reducing the prompts used in operant conditiong
114
In operant conditioning, what does "thinning" refer to?
In operant conditioning, thinning refers to reducing the frequency of rewards for a given action.
115
Name three strategies used in impression management.
Boasting, flattery, and ingratiation are all strategies used in impression management.
116
Many elderly individuals struggle with the concept of death and dying. The Kübler-Ross model provides a series of stages that most people experience when facing the end of their life. What is the correct sequence of emotional stages from this model?
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance.
For these stages, you can remember the acronym Death Always Brings Definite Acceptance. The stages are sequenced in the following order: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
117
Which of these statements describe(s) primary aging?
I. Aging related to social factors and environmental context, like changes in romantic relationships
II. Aging related to biological factors and the physical body, like molecular changes
III. Aging related to controllable behavioral factors, like changes in diet and exercise
II only.
Primary aging describes the aging of biological factors and the physical body (II).
118
What is "secondary aging"?
Aging that relates to behavioral factors like diet and exercise is defined as secondary aging.
119
What is the "house money effect"?
Thaler and Johnson have found that individual risk-taking behavior is affected by prior gains and losses. They found that after a prior gain, people become more open to assuming risk since the new money is not treated as one's own. This is known as the house money effect.
120
What is the "gambler's' fallacy"?
The gambler's fallacy is the mistaken belief that, if something happens more frequently than normal during some period, it will happen less frequently in the future, or vice versa. For example, someone who bets on red on a roulette wheel because the last 5 spins have all landed on black.
121
An individual who scores highly on a measure of positive feelings towards the culture to which he immigrated and low on a measure of positive feelings towards his native culture would likely be employing what strategy of acculturation?
A. Assimilation
B. Separation
C. Marginalization
D. Integration
A - Assimilation
Assimilation is a strategy in which the individual seeks to interact with the new culture and reject the native culture.
Separation is rejecting the new culture and maintaining the native culture, Marginalization involves the rejection of both cultures, and Integration involves identifying with both cultures.
122
If a psychologist were to claim that the ideomotor effect is unconscious, Freudian psychologists could argue this effect resides in which components of the psychic apparatus?
I. The id
II. The ego
III. The superego
I, II, and III.
Since this is a Roman numeral (RN) question, we may be able to save time by working efficiently. The id, ego, and superego are the three parts of the psychic apparatus Sigmund Freud suggested in his structural model of the psyche. The id includes basic human instinctual drives and, by definition, is unconscious (I). However, you may have noticed that RN I appears in all four answer choices, meaning that it must be correct and we do not even need to evaluate it. This is a perfect example of working efficiently through a Roman numeral problem.
Moving on to RN II, this is a tough one! While the ego operates primarily at the conscious and preconscious levels, it also contains unconscious elements. This is because both the ego and the superego evolved from the id, which is unconscious. The ego deals with the id's impulses as soon as an adequate response is found. Hence, RN II is correct. Finally, the superego forms the organized part of the personality structure and therefore is mostly (but not entirely) unconscious (III).
123
What are subjective norms?
Subjective norms refer to the perceived social pressure to engage or to not engage in a behavior.
124
What is reciprocal determinism?
Reciprocal determinism is the theory set forth by Albert Bandura that a person’s behavior both influences and is influenced by personal factors and the environment.
125
What is social cognitive theory?
Social cognitive theory asserts that people learn by watching others, and if they see someone is rewarded for a behavior, they are more likely to behave that way too.
126
When dealing with social sanctions, what do the terms positive and negative mean?
In social sanctions, positive refers to a reward, while negative refers to a punishment.
127
True or False: One criticism of bureaucracies is that employees are promoted until they become insufficiently competent for their positions.
True
128
Define "protectionism"
Protectionism refers to a country rejecting trade with others and being isolative, which is inversely proportional to globalization.
