Study Flashcards
1
Q
Where is the most common anatomical site for ectopic pregnancy?
A
Fallopian tubes (ampullary portion)
2
Q
This STD is a gram negative diplococcus
A
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
3
Q
Vaginal bleeding in a post menopausal female is what until proven otherwise?
A
Endometrial cancer
4
Q
These two vaccinations are given at age 12-15 months and again at 4-6 years
A
MMR, Varicella
5
Q
What is the tumor marker for colon cancer?
A
CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen)
6
Q
What is the tumor marker for pancreatic cancer?
A
CA 19-9
7
Q
What is the anti-dote for a beta blocker overdose?
A
Glucagon
8
Q
What is the anti-dote for a coumadin overdose?
A
Vitamin K
9
Q
This class of antibiotic has risks for tendon rupture as a side effect
A
Fluoroquinolones
10
Q
What is the anti-dote for a benzodiazepine OD?
A
Flumazenil
11
Q
Polycystic kidney disease is what type of inheritance?
A
Autosomal dominant
12
Q
What is the causative agent, rash, and treatment for Lyme disease?
A
Borrelia burgdorferi
Erythema migrans
Doxy (< 12y or pregnant, give Amox)
13
Q
What is the best test for pancreatitis?
A
Serum lipase
14
Q
This antibiotic classically causes “red man syndrome”
A
Vancomycin
15
Q
This anti-hypertensive medication causes erectile dysfunction in men
A
Beta blockers
16
Q
This anti-hypertensive is classic for angioedema and hyperkalemia
A
ACEi
17
Q
This sign (exam test) is classically positive in epididymitis, but negative in testicular torsion
A
Prehn sign
(relief of pain with elevation of testicle)
18
Q
This type of pneumonia is classically associated with hot tubs and aeration systems
A
Legionella
- classically presents with bradycardia and hyponatremia
19
Q
This is the a1c level that is diagnostic for diabetes.
A
6.5% or more
20
Q
True or false: mumps can cause pancreatitis
A
True
21
Q
What level of elevation of LDL warrants a statin in patients with no other comorbidities other than hyperlipidemia?
A
160 mg/dL
22
Q
When are patients eligible for the Shingrix vaccine?
A
at 50 years old
OR
at 19 years and older in pts who have weakened immune systems
23
Q
Two side effects of spironolactone
A
Hyperkalemia, gynecomastia
24
Q
10/10 foot pain with first few steps in the morning
A
Plantar fasciitis
25
This test comfortably rules out DVT in a low risk patient
D-dimer
26
This is contraindicated in acute diverticulitis
Colonoscopy
27
This type of thyroid cancer has the worst prognosis
Anaplastic
28
What is cranial nerve 9 called?
Glossopharyngeal
29
This murmur classically has unusual exam findings (think: uvula pulsation, head bobbing, and nail pulsations)
Aortic regurgitation
30
Which overdose classically has tinnitus as a notable symptom?
Salicylates (NSAIDs in high doses)
31
Which pancreatic cells secrete glucagon?
alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans
- glucagon releases glucose from the liver and fatty acids from fat tissue. In turn, glucose and free fatty acids favour insulin release and inhibit glucagon release
32
What is the usual mechanism for PCL tear?
Anterior force onto knee
(classic ex: MVA where pt's leg hits dashboard)
33
What is the usual mechanism for ACL tear?
Non-contact pivoting injury
(common in football)
34
Where is the Tzank smear useful?
HSV
35
Causative agent for syphilis
Treponema pallidum
36
PPI medications classically cause this electrolyte abnormality
Hypomagnesemia
(decreased magnesium)
Prolonged QT
37
Ascending paralysis post influenza vaccine
Guillain-Barré Syndrome
38
Antidote for Acetaminophen overdose
N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
39
This malignancy classically has "smudge cells" on peripheral smear
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
40
Initial treatment for stable patients presenting with SVT
Vagal maneuver
41
Subsequent treatment (medication) if vagal maneuvers fail in SVT
Adenosine
42
Causative agent for 5ths disease (erythema infectiosum)
parvovirus B19
43
Age for colonoscopy screening in asymptomatic patient with no FH (careful....)
50
44
What is the condition that pts can cause themselves by using nasal decongestants too much?
Rhinitis medicamentosa
45
This medication class commonly used for fungal infections prolongs the QT
-azoles
46
This is the most common EKG finding in pulmonary embolus (careful...)
T wave inversion
S1Q3T3
Sinus tachycardia
T wave inversion in the anterior leads represent reciprocal changes related to infero-posterior ischemia due to compression of the right coronary artery (RCA), caused by pressure overload in the right ventricle following an acute PE
47
This is the tumor marker for some liver cancers
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) blood test
48
What is CN 8 and how might an abnormality of it present?
Vestibulocochlear
Schwanomma tumor - hx usually is 40-50yo with hearing loss, speech discrimination issues, and pain
49
What does a U-wave on ECG represent?
Hypokalemia
50
What HTN med can cause hypokalemia?
HCTZ and furosemide (Lasix)
51
What HTN med can cause hyperkalemia?
ACEi, Spironolactone
52
What should we do to a patient who has pain over the anatomical snuffbox but normal x-ray?
Thumb spica cast
53
This TB drug classically causes alteration of color vision.
Ethambutol
54
This fracture classically has a "dinner fork deformity"
Colles fracture
55
X-ray of this disease shows a "pencil in a cup" deformity
Psoriatic arthritis
56
This specific medicine is treatment and prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in HIV/AIDs patients
Bactrim
57
What is the key exam finding for differentiating orbital cellulitis from pre-septal cellulitis (specific test)
Pain with EOM is present in orbital cellulitis
Pain with EOM is absent in preseptal cellulitis
58
This anti-hypertensive class is known for causing peripheral edema as a side effect
Calcium channel blockers
59
Sickle cell patients are more prone to develop infection with this organism
Salmonella, Strep pneumo, H influenze type b (Hib)
60
What is the probability that two individuals who are carriers of sickle cell trait produce an offspring who is autosomal recessive and therefore afflicted with sickle cell disease?
25%
61
Aspirin is used in Kawasaki disease for what reason?
To prevent coronary artery aneurysm
62
What disease classically impacts the terminal ileum?
Crohn's disease
- transmural inflammation (affects all layers of intestinal mucosa)
- can affects anywhere from mouth to anus (discontinuous) -- Rectum usually spared
63
What cardiac enzyme is best for reinfarction?
CK-MB
- unlike troponin, CK-MB quickly returns back to normal. b/c troponin will still be elevated (from 1st infarct), CK-MB makes it the best test for current infarction
64
What triglyceride level puts you at risk for pancreatitis?
800-1000 mg/dL
65
What are the 4 indications for statin therapy?
1. Confirmed ASCVD (atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease): MI, angina, stroke, PAD, TIA, AAA
2. LDL >190 mg/dL & age >21
3. Diabetics age 40-75 with LDL >70
4. Age 40-75 w/10-yr. ASCVD risk calculator >7.5%
66
What causes Giardia?
How does it present?
How do you treat?
Someone who drank stream water that was not filtered
Foul smelling, floating stools described as sulphury
Tx w Metronidazole (Don't forget pt edu: NO alcohol)
67
2 common causes of hypercalcemia
Hyperparathyroidism
Malignancy
68
What two hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary?
Oxytocin and ADH
69
Best test for acromegaly?
What are pts with acromegaly at risk for?
IGF-1
At risk for CAD, CHF, and colon cancer
70
What might a pt with acromegaly have in their history?
Increasing hat, glove or ring size
71
Treatment for acromegaly
Dopamine agonist, such as bromocriptine
72
52yo with unexplained iron deficiency anemia --- what should you be thinking?
Colon cancer
(slow bleeding loss in stool over time)
-----> get colonoscopy
73
Ovarian cancer tumor marker
CA-125
74
Pancreatic cancer tumor marker
CA 19-9
75
Young, healthy female with balance issues, trouble holding urine, and eye color changes?
Multiple sclerosis
76
How does atropine affect the pupil?
It causes dilation bc it's an anticholinergic
77
Initial treatment for acute angle closure glaucoma
Acetazolamide
(diuretic that helps lower intraocular pressure)
78
Buildup of aqueous humor causes what?
Increased IOP and pupil dilation
79
#1 cause of Torsades
#2 cause of Torsades
#1 Hypomagnesemia
#2 Hypokalemia
80
What medication keeps ductus arteriosus open?
Prostaglandin E
81
What medications closes ductus arteriosus?
Indomethacin
82
This diagnosis is an emergency and presents with eye pain/redness, a fixed mid-dilated pupil, nausea and vomiting
Glaucoma
83
This disease causes severe pruritus in the web spaces and is classically worse at night
Scabies
84
This hematologic disorder is classically associationed with the Philadelphia chromosome
CML
85
This must be ruled out in all nasal trauma, given that missing the diagnosis can result in septum necrosis
Septal hematoma
86
This anti-hypertensive classically causes peripheral edema
CCB
87
This anti-hypertensive is relatively contraindicated in asthma and COPD, given its ability to cause bronchospasm
BB
88
This murmur classically radiates to the axillary region
Mitral regurgitation
89
This exam can help differentiate scleritis from episcleritis
Cotton tip maneuver
Episcleritis is the movable vessels
90
This infectious disorder presents with laryngospasm
Rabies/Epiglottitis
91
TM rupture due to barotrauma most likely presents on what part of an airplane flight
Descending
92
This class of anti-hypertensives classically causes cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia
ACEi
93
This diuretic causes ototoxicity and hypokalemia
Furosemide (Lasix)
94
This test, when positive, shows an involuntary flexion of the hips/knees with passive neck flexion
Brudzinski
95
This antibiotic is most classically associated with causing Clostridium difficile diarrhea
Cephalosporin
Esp. Clindamycin
96
This antibiotic causes Red Man Syndrome
Vancomycin
97
This is the imaging test of choice to rule out acute stroke in the ED
CT
98
An actinic keratosis is a precursor to what malignancy?
SCC
99
This dermatome level is at the umbilicus
T10
100
Koplik spots are associated with what preventable disease?
Measles aka Rubeola
101
What is the first-line antibiotic for acute otitis media (assuming to allergies)?
Amoxicillin
102
This is the name for the flapping tremor in the hands seen in advanced cirrhosis/liver disease?
Asterixis
103
This is the organism responsible for cat-scratch fever
Bartonella henselae
104
This is the first-line antibiotic for cat-scratch fever
Azithromycin
105
This "machine-like" murmur can be closed with indomethacin
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
106
This is the electrolyte abnormality commonly seen as a side effect of Spironolactone
Hyperkalemia
107
This common over-the-counter medication can cause tinnitus as a side effect when taken in excess
NSAIDs
108
This structure is classically spared in benign eye conditions (episcleritis, conjunctivitis) but typically shows erythema in deeper eye pathology
Limbus
109
Cherry red spots seen on funoscopy
Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
110
If you saw papilledema on funoscopy, which diagnostic procedure is contraindicated?
Lumbar puncture
111
Which has higher propensity to progress to malignancy, leukoplakia or erythroplakia?
Erythroplakia
112
Which murmurs increase on inspiration? And on expiration?
Right-sided murmurs increase on inspiration
Left-sided murmurs increase on expiration
113
Parotid gland enlargement, orchitis, and possible pancreatitis can be caused by what?
Mumps
114
What virus causes mumps?
Paramyxovirus
115
What virus causes erythema infectiosum aka Fifths disease?
Parvovirus B19
116
What malignancy may present with hoarseness/dysphonia?
Laryngeal cancer
117
Giant cell arteritis is associated with what disorder
Polymyalgia Rheumatica
118
This is the term for normal age-related vision changes
Presbyopia
119
Tall, peaked T waves on ECG are earliest finding of what electrolyte abnormality?
Hyperkalemia
120
A patient with tall, peaked T waves is most likely on what medication?
Spironolactone, ACEi
121
Nasal polyps, low growth curves and frequent URIs should make you think of what disease?
CF
122
This type of brain injury impacts the "bridging veins"
Subdural hematoma
123
A tall, skinny male presents with acute onset SOB and chest pain
Pneumothorax
124
This dermatologic problem classically is seen in the summer, starts with a herald patch and then ultimately lasts 3-8 weeks in a Christmas tree pattern
Pityriasis rosea
125
Prognosis in melanoma typically relates to what?
Depth/thickness of lesion
126
A patient using a beta agonist too frequently or more than prescribed is at risk for what electrolyte abnormality?
Hyperkalemia
127
What is an Osborn J wave and what condition will it be seen on EKG?
Notched downstroke QRS; reversed delta waves
Hypothermia
128
This type of thyroid cancer is most common and carries the best prognosis?
Papillary
129
This disease classically has bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
Sarcoidosis
130
This is the somewhat unusual/not commonly ordered lab test that is elevated in sarcoidosis
ESR
131
Special test most sensitive for ACL tear?
Lachman
132
Best abortive option for acute cluster headache
O2
133
14yo unvaccinated make with gray pseudomembranes in throat?
Diphtheria
134
A 14 year old male presents after a syncopal episode during a football game. His EKG shows deep septal Q Waves. What is the diagnosis?
HOCM
135
What is the treatment for 1st degree heart block?
Nothing
if symptomatic, can give 0.5mg Atropine
136
A 62 year old male with BPH and inability to urinate will most likely have what type of renal injury (pre-renal, intrinsic, or post-renal) if obstruction is not relieved?
Post-renal
137
Use of strong topical steroids should be avoided in thin skinned areas for what reason?
It causes skin thinning/atrophy
138
What disorder has "exclamation point hairs" viewed under microscopy?
Alopecia areata
139
A strawberry cervix corresponds with what disorder?
Trichomonas
140
Best abortive option for an acute cluster headache
100% O2, subq sumatriptan
140
Best abortive option for an acute cluster headache
100% O2, subq sumatriptan
141
This cholesterol medication classically causes facial flushing
Niacin
142
What is the Chvostek sign and what does it indicate?
Spasm of the facial nerve area caused by tapping
Hypocalcemia
143
Which Salter Harris fracture is the most common?
Type II
144
Which Salter Harris fracture is associated with a crush injury?
Type V
145
Criteria to diagnose DM
FBG > 126
or
Random glucose > 200 WITH symptoms
or
A1C > 6.5
146
Mid-fixed, dilated pupil and a steamy cornea
Acute angle closure glaucoma
147
Presentation and Tx for acute angle closure glaucoma
Pt usually was in an environment with a change of light (ex movie theater) and suddenly have severe eye pain, N/V
PE show a mid-fixed, dilated pupil and a steamy cornea
1st line: Azetazolamide + topical BB to reduce IOP
148
Dx Menopause
FSH > 30
149
Best test to dx acromegaly
IGF-1
150
Tx for acromegaly
Dopamine agonist, such as bromocriptine
151
Which is louder at the apex... S1 or S2?
S1
152
Cold shocks
Hypovolemic
Cardiogenic
153
Warm shocks
Anaphylactic
Septic
