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1
Q

What is the HERF/HERP/HERO for the r?

A

95/169/302/348

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2
Q

What is the scanner pitch and roll limitation?

A

+/- 15 pitch
+/- 25 roll

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3
Q

What is the scanner manual tilt limitation?

A

+10/-20
+10/-15 in periscope

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4
Q

What 3 things need to happen before a high voltage check?

A

Engines on
Flaps between 1 - 25
Parking brake off

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5
Q

What is the frequency of the radar?

A

9.35 - 10.15

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6
Q

What is the peak power of the r?

A

50kW

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7
Q

What is the power of the REP pulse?

A

1W

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8
Q

What is the max number of TWS tracks?

A

512 in FR85

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9
Q

What does ATI stand for?

A

Automatic Track Initiation

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10
Q

What was R designed for?

A

Open blue water
Low manoeuvring targets

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11
Q

Why does the speed of a TWS contact seem fast at first?

A

The prediction algorithm updates in a very short period of time, so thinks the contact is moving quickly.

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12
Q

Which mode does R gain new contacts?

A

Search

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13
Q

What is the roll limitation of R?

A

18.75

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14
Q

What is the cut off distance from land for new contacts in R?

A

2.5nm

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15
Q

How many contacts can R handle?

A

2000

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16
Q

What system handles TWS?

A

TOMS

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17
Q

What system handles R?

A

RDC

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18
Q

What criteria must be met for R to create a contact?

A

5 detections in 7 opportunities

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19
Q

After how many detections is C/S generated in R?

A

150

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20
Q

In R what symbol appears when a contact is good for ISAR?

A

a green circle

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21
Q

What are the 5 promo levels of R?

A

promo 0 - tentative (internal)
promo 1 - provisional (internal)
promo 2 - established (<150, blue circle)
promo 3 - coasting (DR)
promo 4 - persistent (>150)

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22
Q

What is the default coast time for R

A

180s

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23
Q

What are the height limits for SAR?

A

4000 - 41000ft

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24
Q

What is the best grazing angle for SAR?

A

4-9 (7.5)
1nm = 1000ft
Then for every 10,000ft take 1000ft off
e.g. 10nm is 9000ft

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25
Q

What is the GS limit for SAR?

A

<450kts

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26
Q

What is the name of the ESM system?

A

AN-ALQ-240-ESM

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27
Q

What is the coverage of the ESM?

A

0.5 - 2
2 - 18
18 - 40

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28
Q

Which band doesn’t provide geolocation?

A

HB

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29
Q

How does geolocation happen?

A

Interferometry and amplitude comparison

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30
Q

Why does 860 not have a grill?

A

It is a closed-loop cooling system

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31
Q

What components are in the 870?

A

Top Left: EWSP, ACE
Top Right: RDC
Middle Left: Forward AIU
Middle Right: IFFI
Bottom Left: REP
Bottom Right: x/Rx

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32
Q

What components are in the 860?

A

Top Left: RF/IF Converter, ESM DRP
Bottom Left: ESM power, ELINT DRP
Top Right: Acoustics Rx
Bottom Right: Acoustics processor

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33
Q

What components does the IBU work with?

A

DME
IFFI
V/UHF1
Radar
TACAN
IFFT
L16
TCAS

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34
Q

What components does the FACS consist of?

A

2 cold plates
Reservoir, pump and controller module (RPC)
Heat sink
Fluid lines

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35
Q

What powers and controls the FACS?

A

SPDS

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36
Q

What are the “problem” signals from the FACS?

A

Degraded - low coolant level or pump failure
Malfunction - no flow, and after 10s SPDS removes power from the RPC

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37
Q

What is Mode 1 for IFFI?

A

military only, 2 digit code identifying a mission

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38
Q

What is Mode 2 for IFFI?

A

military only, 4 digit code identifying a unit

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39
Q

What is Mode 3/A for IFFI?

A

military and civilian, 4 digit code for the a/c

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40
Q

What is Mode C for IFFI?

A

military and civilian, gives altitude

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41
Q

What is Mode 4 for IFFI?

A

military only, encrypted, no longer used

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42
Q

What is Mode 5 for IFFI?

A

military only, encrypted version of Mode S and GPS position.

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43
Q

What is Mode S for IFFI?

A

Not part of IFFI system, it’s the signal that TCAS uses.
a/c to a/c interrogation

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44
Q

What are the frequencies of IFFI?

A

1030
1090

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45
Q

How many IFFI elements are there?

A

10

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46
Q

What are the max number of IFFI modes in each r mode?

A

2 in Srch
4 in Nav,Wxr,IFFI
1 in Pers (low probability of detection)
1 in ISAR (maybe)
0 in SAR

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47
Q

What is the priority order of IFFI modes?

A

5/4/3A/2/1/C

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48
Q

What is the HERF/HERP/HERO of IFFI?

A

1.2/4.5/20/79

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49
Q

What are the 5 conditions of flight?

A

1 - Low level
2 - High alt
3 - Op checks
4 - A/C inspection
5 - T/O and landing

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50
Q

How many Quick dons are there?

A

22

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51
Q

How many portable O2 bottles are there?

A

5

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52
Q

How many fire extinguishers are there?

A

6

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53
Q

How long does the portable O2 last?

A

35 mins @ 10K
25 mins @ sea level

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54
Q

Where is the O2 for the FD?

A

Single bottle in electrical equipment bay

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55
Q

Where is the O2 for the crew?

A

3 bottles behind the forward fire extinguisher and portable O2 bottle

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56
Q

How long does the crew O2 last?

A

2:15 @ 10K
1:30 @ sea level

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57
Q

How long does the FD O2 last?

A

2hrs @ 10K
1:20 @ sea level

58
Q

How many locking pins are there?

A

8 (7 plus rear door)

59
Q

What is in 810?

A

Top Left: ICS 1 & 2
Bottom Left: V/UHF AIUs 1, 2 & 3
Top Right: L11 box, V/UHF 1, 2 & 3 Tx/Rx and SatCom 1 & 2 Tx/Rx
Bottom Right: SatCom 1 & 2 AIUs

60
Q

Why is there a CB for V/UHF1?

A

If power is cut to 810/V/UHF radios it switches to battery to enable comms. CB is pulled if V/UHF1 is the problem.

61
Q

What is in 820?

A

Top Left: SMC
Bottom Left: EO/IR and 2 L16 boxes
Top Right: IBU
Bottom Right: HF Power Amplifier & HF Rx/Exciter

62
Q

What is in 830 for dry guys?

A

Top Left: TACLANE

63
Q

What is the ceiling light for in the forward cabin?

A

Illuminates if ground power is attached

64
Q

What does the C/P stand for for O2?

A

Cabin/Passengers

65
Q

Where are the APU fire handles?

A

Cockpit and Stbd wheel well

66
Q

Which way do you throw a lift raft into the water?

A

Whichever is suitable at the time

67
Q

Which pane of glass is the pressure one for the obs stations?

A

Inner one

68
Q

What are the limits with floor lights?

A

Neither of the end lights may be out
No two lights together may be out
The emergency exit lights on the floor for the overwing doors must have no more than 3 LEDs out

69
Q

Where do E113/4 get their power from?

A

SPDS

70
Q

Where is the rope connected to for the rear door?

A

Eyelet in the door frame

71
Q

Where is the rope connected to for the overwings?

A

Eyelet in the door frame

72
Q

What is the definition of LSALT?

A

5nm from land and heading away

73
Q

What is the MOA in VMC day?

A

250’ if operating at least 0.5nm from land

74
Q

What is the MOA in IMC day or anytime at night?

A

300’ if using rad alt
500’ if using baro
And if operating at least 5nm from land

75
Q

What is the standard avoidance on rigs?

A

1.5nm or 2000’

76
Q

What is the standard avoidance on warships?

A

2nm or 2000’

77
Q

What is the standard avoidance on civilian shipping?

A

0.5nm or 1000’

78
Q

What is the altitude required for a 32nm radar horizon?

A

700’

79
Q

What is the altitude required for a 64nm radar horizon?

A

2700’

80
Q

What is the altitude required for a 128nm radar horizon?

A

10800’

81
Q

What is the altitude required for a 200nm radar horizon?

A

26500’

82
Q

What is the altitude required for a 50nm radar horizon?

A

1650’

83
Q

What is the altitude required for a 100nm radar horizon?

A

6500’

84
Q

What is the standard HIRTA avoid?

A

2.6nm 10K’

85
Q

Describe the signal flow for the radar?

A

MCW
RDC - ACE
REP - ANT
Tx

86
Q

What is the main SAM of the Kuznetsov?

A

SA-N-9

87
Q

What is the main SAM of the Kirov?

A

SA-N-20

88
Q

What is the main SAM of the Slava?

A

SA-N-6

89
Q

What is the main SAM of the Udaloy I?

A

SA-N-9

90
Q

What is the main SAM of the Udaloy II?

A

SA-N-9

91
Q

What is the main SAM of the Sovremenny?

A

SA-N-7

92
Q

What is the main SAM of the Gorshkov?

A

SA-N-28

93
Q

Which radar feeds SA-N-9?

A

Cross Swords

94
Q

Which radar feeds SA-N-20?

A

Tomb Stone

95
Q

Which radar feeds SA-N-6?

A

Top Dome

96
Q

Which radar feeds SA-N-7?

A

Front Dome

97
Q

Which radar feeds SA-N-28?

A

Poliment

98
Q

What criteria must be met for the overwing exits to lock?

A

Entry/service doors are shut OR
Either engine is running OR
Aircraft logic indicates the a/c is in the air OR
Both thrust levers are advanced

99
Q

What 2 radios does L11 use?

A

HF and UHF

100
Q

Where is the CB for V/UHF1

A

FD, port side, P18-2:D12

101
Q

What radar is on the Kilo?

A

ST/ST3

102
Q

What is the wind limit for operating the front door?

A

40 kts

103
Q

What is the wind limit after which the front door must be closed?

A

65 kts

104
Q

If ECS is placed in smoke mode, how long is the radar fan shut down for?

A

5 mins

105
Q

By how far should thunderstorm cells be avoided?

A

20nm

106
Q

How long should you leave between shutting down radar and shutting down the radar fan?

A

10 mins

107
Q

When does Crew Duty Time (CDT) start?

A

When the first person shows up for work

108
Q

Who is usually the first person to report to work for a flight?

A

The TACCO to get crypto

109
Q

When does CDT end?

A

30 mins after chocks-in time,or when you leave the debrief

110
Q

How long is CDT?

A

16 hours if starting between 0500-1500.
14 hours if starting between 1500-0500.

111
Q

What happens to CDT hours if there is unplanned flying?

A

It reduces by 2 hours

112
Q

Who can extend CDT and by how much?

A

A/C can extend by 1 hour.
OC CXX can extend by 2 hours.
DDH can extend by 3 hours.
ODH can extend by >3 hours.

113
Q

How long is CRP?

A

12 hours with at least 8 hours for uninterrupted sleep.

114
Q

How long does an LCR Cat check last?

A

6 months

115
Q

How long does a CR Cat check last?

A

12 months

116
Q

How long does an Instructor Cat check last?

A

12 months

117
Q

What aircraft system is located behind the E870?

A

FACS

118
Q

A failure of which systems will set off the FACS alarm?

A

ECS Draw Thru or ESM Supplemental

119
Q

What frequencies does the EPLB transmit on?

A

121.5, 243, 406

120
Q

Which of the 3 frequencies the EPLB transmits on is the most important and why?

A

406 as it is a dedicated emergency signal that can reach the satellites

121
Q

What must you do after pulling the tabs to inflate the LSJ?

A

Pull the tab to activate the EPLB

122
Q

How much water is stored in your LSJ?

A

5 sachets of 50ml

123
Q

What else does the EPLB send out along with the emergency broadcast signals?

A

GPS signal

124
Q

How many first aid kits are there on the jet?

A

2 for general use
1 for emergency use

125
Q

What are the 2 main boxes that are used for ISAR and SAR processing?

A

REP and RDC

126
Q

What is in the left side of the LSJ?

A

EPLB

127
Q

What is in the right side of the LSJ?

A

16mm flares
First aid kit
Heliograph
Razor blade
Ground Air codes
Foil Blanket
LMD (Light marker distress)
2 AA batteries

128
Q

What colour of flares are there, what symbols do they have and which ones do we carry?

A

Red = Cross (carried)
Green = Triangle
White = Line

129
Q

How long is your no-fly time after a general anesthetic?

A

7 days

130
Q

How long is your no-fly time after a local anesthetic?

A

12 hours

131
Q

How long is your no-fly time after giving blood?

A

36 hours

132
Q

Which is the only sport that requires a no-fly time after taking part?
And how long is it?

A

Boxing - 48 hours, and you need to be checked

133
Q

Which systems make up ESM Supplemental

A

FACS, ESM chiller, rear tail-cone fans

134
Q

What is the main SAM of the Steregushchy?

A

SA-N-28

135
Q

How long is your no-fly time after acupuncture?

A

12 hours

136
Q

How long is your no-fly time after SCUBA diving?

A

12 hours, or 24 hours if you’ve gone deeper than 10m

137
Q

How long can the P8 fly in light/moderate icing conditions?

A

45 mins if there is a rubber nose boot.
30 mins if not

138
Q

How long can the P8 fly in severe icing conditions?

A

It cannot fly in severe icing conditions

139
Q

What is the overload capacity of the MS10?

A

13

140
Q

What percentage off the bow-stern line will give 50% of a ship’s length?

A

60%

141
Q

How does the size of the radar keyhole relate to height?

A

Roughly 1nm radius per 1000ft

142
Q

How many Est. Posit. tracks can you have at once?

A

8

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