Study Flashcards
(150 cards)
1
Q
What is the HERF/HERP/HERO for the r?
A
95/169/302/348
2
Q
What is the scanner pitch and roll limitation?
A
+/- 15 pitch
+/- 25 roll
3
Q
What is the scanner manual tilt limitation?
A
+10/-20
+10/-15 in periscope
4
Q
What 3 things need to happen before a high voltage check?
A
Engines on
Flaps between 1 - 25
Parking brake off
5
Q
What is the frequency of the radar?
A
9.35 - 10.15
6
Q
What is the peak power of the r?
A
50kW
7
Q
What is the power of the REP pulse?
A
1W
8
Q
What is the max number of TWS tracks?
A
256
9
Q
What does ATI stand for?
A
Automatic Track Initiation
10
Q
What was R designed for?
A
Open blue water
Low manoeuvring targets
11
Q
Why does the speed of a TWS contact seem fast at first?
A
The prediction algorithm updates in a very short period of time, so thinks the contact is moving quickly.
12
Q
Which mode does R gain new contacts?
A
Search
13
Q
What is the roll limitation of R?
A
18.75
14
Q
What is the cut off distance from land for new contacts in R?
A
2.5nm
15
Q
How many contacts can R handle?
A
2000
16
Q
What system handles TWS?
A
TOMS
17
Q
What system handles R?
A
RDC
18
Q
What criteria must be met for R to create a contact?
A
5 detections in 7 opportunities
19
Q
After how many detections is C/S generated in R?
A
150
20
Q
In R what symbol appears when a contact is good for ISAR?
A
a green circle
21
Q
What are the 5 promo levels of R?
A
promo 0 - tentative (internal)
promo 1 - provisional (internal)
promo 2 - established (<150, blue circle)
promo 3 - coasting (DR)
promo 4 - persistent (>150)
22
Q
What is the default coast time for R
A
180s
23
Q
What are the height limits for SAR?
A
4000 - 41000ft
24
Q
What are the SAR grazing angle limits What is the best grazing angle for SAR?
A
4-19 degrees limits
7-12 degrees best
1nm = 1000ft
Then for every 10,000ft take 1000ft off
e.g. 10nm is 9000ft
25
What is the GS limit for SAR?
350kts will give a warning but will still work up to 450kts.
26
What is the name of the ESM system?
AN-ALQ-240-ESM
27
What is the coverage of the ESM?
0.5 - 2
2 - 18
18 - 40
28
Which band doesn't provide geolocation?
HB or CW emitters
29
How does geolocation happen?
Interferometry and amplitude comparison
30
Why does 860 not have a grill?
It is a closed-loop cooling system
31
What components are in the 870?
Top Left: EWSP, ACE
Top Right: RDC
Middle Left: Forward AIU
Middle Right: IFFI
Bottom Left: REP
Bottom Right: Tx/Rx
32
What components are in the 860?
Top Left: RF/IF Converter, ESM DRP
Bottom Left: ESM power, ELINT DRP
Top Right: Acoustics Rx
Bottom Right: Acoustics processor
33
What components does the IBU work with?
DME
IFFI
V/UHF1
Radar
TACAN
IFFT
L16
TCAS
34
What components does the FACS consist of?
2 cold plates
Reservoir, Pump and Controller module (RPC)
Heat sink
Fluid lines
35
What powers and controls the FACS?
SPDS
36
What are the "problem" signals from the FACS?
Degraded - low coolant level or single pump failure
Malfunction - no flow, and after 10s SPDS removes power from the RPC
37
What is Mode 1 for IFFI?
military only, 2 digit code identifying a mission
38
What is Mode 2 for IFFI?
military only, 4 digit code identifying a unit
39
What is Mode 3/A for IFFI?
military and civilian, 4 digit code for the a/c
40
What is Mode C for IFFI?
military and civilian, gives altitude
41
What is Mode 4 for IFFI?
military only, encrypted, no longer used
42
What is Mode 5 for IFFI?
military only, encrypted version of Mode S and GPS position.
43
What is Mode S for IFFI?
Not part of IFFI system, it's the signal that TCAS uses.
a/c to a/c interrogation
44
What are the frequencies of IFFI?
1030
1090
45
How many IFFI elements are there?
10
46
What are the max number of IFFI modes in each r mode?
2 in Srch
4 in Nav,Wxr,IFFI
1 in Pers (low probability of detection)
1 in ISAR (maybe)
0 in SAR
47
What is the priority order of IFFI modes?
5/4/3-A/2/1/C
48
What is the HERF/HERP/HERO of IFFI?
1.2/4.5/20/79
49
What are the 5 conditions of flight?
1 - Low level
2 - High alt
3 - Op checks
4 - A/C inspection
5 - T/O and landing
50
How many Quick dons are there?
22
51
How many portable O2 bottles are there?
5
52
How many fire extinguishers are there?
6
53
How long does the portable O2 last?
35 mins @ 10K
25 mins @ sea level
54
Where is the O2 for the FD?
Single bottle in electrical equipment bay
55
Where is the O2 for the crew?
3 bottles behind the forward fire extinguisher and portable O2 bottle
56
How long does the crew O2 last?
2:15 @ 10K
1:30 @ sea level
57
How long does the FD O2 last?
2hrs @ 10K
1:20 @ sea level
58
How many locking pins are there?
3 in the front wheel well: 1 for nose wheel turning, 1 for nose wheel retraction, 1 for the flares
1 in each rear wheel well for the gears, 1 in each rear wheel well for the thrust reversers
1 in the weapons bay
1 for the rear door
9 total (8 plus rear door)
59
What is in 810?
Top Left: ICS 1 & 2
Bottom Left: V/UHF AIUs 1, 2 & 3
Top Right: L11 box, V/UHF 1, 2 & 3 Tx/Rx and SatCom 1 & 2 Tx/Rx
Bottom Right: BI, SatCom 1 & 2 AIUs
60
Why is there a CB for V/UHF1?
If power is cut to 810/V/UHF radios it switches to battery to enable comms. CB is pulled if V/UHF1 is the problem.
61
What is in 820?
Top Left: SMC
Bottom Left: EO/IR and 2 L16 boxes
Top Right: IBU
Bottom Right: HF Power Amplifier & HF Rx/Exciter
62
What is in 830 for dry guys?
Top Left: TACLANE
63
What is the ceiling light for in the forward cabin?
Illuminates if ground power is attached
64
What does the C/P stand for for O2?
Cabin/Passengers
65
Where are the APU fire handles?
Cockpit and Stbd wheel well
66
Which way do you throw a lift raft into the water?
Whichever is suitable at the time
67
Which pane of glass is the pressure one for the obs stations?
Inner one
68
Where do E113/4 get their power from?
SPDS
69
Where is the rope connected to for the rear door?
Eyelet in the door frame
70
Where is the rope connected to for the over-wing exits?
Eyelet in the door frame
71
What is the MOA in VMC day?
300ft BARO
250ft <3nm >0.5nm from land
200ft >3nm from land
72
What is the MOA in IMC day or anytime at night?
>5nm from land
500ft BARO
300ft
73
What is the standard avoidance on rigs?
1.5nm or 2000' in day
3nm or 2000’ in night
74
What is the standard avoidance on warships?
2nm or 2000'
OR
HIRTA limit
75
What is the standard avoidance on civilian shipping?
>500ft or 0.5nm MSD
76
What is the altitude required for a 32nm radar horizon?
700'
77
What is the altitude required for a 64nm radar horizon?
2700'
78
What is the altitude required for a 128nm radar horizon?
10800'
79
What is the altitude required for a 200nm radar horizon?
26500'
80
What is the altitude required for a 50nm radar horizon?
1650'
81
What is the altitude required for a 100nm radar horizon?
6500'
82
What is the standard HIRTA avoid?
2.6nm 10K'
83
What is the main SAM of the Kuznetsov?
SA-N-9
84
What is the main SAM of the Kirov?
SA-N-20
85
What is the main SAM of the Slava?
SA-N-6
86
What is the main SAM of the Udaloy I?
SA-N-9
87
What is the main SAM of the Udaloy II?
SA-N-9
88
What is the main SAM of the Sovremenny?
SA-N-7B
89
What is the main SAM of the Gorshkov?
SA-N-28
90
Which radar feeds SA-N-9?
Cross Swords
91
Which radar feeds SA-N-20?
Tomb Stone
92
Which radar feeds SA-N-6?
Top Dome
93
Which radar feeds SA-N-7?
Front Dome
94
Which radar feeds SA-N-28?
Poliment
95
What criteria must be met for the overwing exits to lock?
Entry/service doors are shut OR
Either engine is running OR
Aircraft logic indicates the a/c is in the air OR
Both thrust levers are advanced
96
What 2 radios does L11 use?
HF and UHF
97
Where is the CB for V/UHF1
FD, port side over the pilot's left shoulder.
P18-2:D12
98
What radar is on the Kilo?
ST/ST3/MR231-4
99
What is the wind limit for operating the front door?
40 kts
100
What is the wind limit after which the front door must be closed?
65 kts
101
If ECS is placed in smoke mode, how long is the radar fan shut down for?
5 mins
102
By how far should thunderstorm cells be avoided?
20nm
103
How long should you leave between shutting down radar and shutting down the radar fan?
10 mins
104
When does Crew Duty Time (CDT) start?
When the first person shows up for work
105
Who is usually the first person to report to work for a flight?
The TACCO to get crypto
106
When does CDT end?
30 mins after chocks-in time, or when you leave the debrief.
Whichever is later
107
How long is CDT?
16 hours if starting between 0500-1500.
14 hours if starting between 1500-0500.
108
What happens to CDT hours if there is unplanned flying?
It reduces by 2 hours
109
Who can extend CDT and by how much?
A/C can extend by 1 hour.
OC CXX can extend by 2 hours.
DDH can extend by 3 hours.
ODH can extend by >3 hours.
110
How long is CRP?
12 hours with at least 8 hours for uninterrupted sleep.
111
How long does an LCR Cat check last?
6 months
112
How long does a CR Cat check last?
12 months
113
How long does an Instructor Cat check last?
12 months
114
What aircraft system is located behind the E870?
FACS
115
A failure of which systems will set off the AFACS alarm?
ECS Draw Thru or ESM Supplemental
116
What frequencies does the EPLB transmit on?
121.5, 243, 406
117
Which of the 3 frequencies the EPLB transmits on is the most important and why?
406 as it is a dedicated emergency signal that can reach the satellites
118
What must you do after pulling the tabs to inflate the LSJ?
Pull the tab to activate the EPLB
119
How much water is stored in your LSJ?
5 sachets of 50ml
120
What else does the EPLB send out along with the emergency broadcast signals?
GPS signal
121
How many first aid kits are there on the jet?
2 for general use
1 for emergency use
122
What are the 2 main boxes that are used for ISAR and SAR processing?
REP and RDC
123
What is in the left side of the LSJ?
EPLB
124
What is in the right side of the LSJ?
16mm flares
First aid kit
Heliograph
Razor blade
Ground Air codes
Foil Blanket
LMD (Light marker distress)
2 AA batteries
Safety cutter
125
What colour of flares are there, what symbols do they have and which ones do we carry?
Red = Cross (carried)
Green = Triangle
White = Line
126
How long is your no-fly time after a general anesthetic?
7 days
127
How long is your no-fly time after a local anesthetic?
12 hours
128
How long is your no-fly time after giving blood?
36 hours
129
Which is the only sport that requires a no-fly time after taking part?
And how long is it?
Boxing - 48 hours, and you need to be checked
130
Which systems make up ESM Supplemental
FACS, ESM chiller, aft AIU, 2 tail-cone fans
131
What is the main SAM of the Steregushchy?
SA-N-28
132
How long is your no-fly time after acupuncture?
12 hours
133
How long is your no-fly time after SCUBA diving?
12 hours, or 24 hours if you've gone deeper than 10m
134
How long can the P8 fly in light/moderate icing conditions?
45 mins if there is a rubber nose boot.
30 mins if not
135
How long can the P8 fly in severe icing conditions?
It cannot fly in severe icing conditions
136
What is the overload capacity of the MS10?
20
137
In ISAR what degree off the bow-stern line will give 50% of a ship's length?
60
138
How does the size of the radar keyhole relate to height?
Roughly 1nm radius per 1000ft
139
How many Est. Posit. tracks can you have at once?
8
140
In the event of an All Modes Fail on radar, what is the correct response?
Wait for 2 mins to allow reestablishment of connection.
If that doesn't work, cycle power at SPDS.
141
In the event of a grey chicklet on IFFI, what is the likely failure? And what is the correct response?
VME
Recycle IFFI power at SPDS
142
What is Supermode for IFFI?
Allows Mode 5 to be selected in addition to usual maximum number of Mode for each radar mode you’re in.
143
Can aircrew self-medicate?
Yes but not within 24 hours of flying
144
What is in the Radome that is of interest to EWOs?
Radar antenna
IFFI
LB Array
145
What are the ESM blind spots?
LB LBI gap of 60 degrees on the nose and tail.
MB LBI gap of 30 degrees on the nose and tail.
146
What is the display priority of IFFI?
3/C/2/5/4/1
147
How long is each tick mark in the Normal, High and Ultra-high res in ISAR?
100, 50, 20
148
What is the beam width and height of the radar?
3.4 degrees wide. 4.3 degrees high.
149
Why is the radar better at height than lower down?
At low level there is increased scattering of the beam, particularly in high sea states.
150
If a *boresight error* indication is displayed what is the cause and the corrective action?
Usually when a REP is replaced.
Perform a R5 or SPOT MAP SAR containing a minimum of 75% land.
Aircraft straight and level, GS 200-360 kts, 5-40Kft.
Takes around 3-5 mins
