Study Flashcards
(379 cards)
1
Q
Rapid Cabin Depressurization
A
OXYGEN MASKS……………………………………………ON; 100%
CREW COMMUNICATION……………………………..ESTABLISH EMERGENCY DESCENT ……………………………….AS REQ
2
Q
Cabin or Cockpit Fire/Smoke/fumes
A
OXYGEN MASKS …………………………………………. ON & 100%
SMOKE GOGGLES…………………………………………ON
RECIRC …………………………… …………………………… OFF
CREW COMMUNICATION ……………………….. ESTABLISH
3
Q
Aileron/Roll Trim Runaway
A
QUICK DISCONNECT button……………………PRESS and HOLD
4
Q
Pitch Trim Runaway
A
QUICK DISCONNECT button……………………PRESS and HOLD
5
Q
What is the Maximum Altitude for operation after an inflight depressurization unless MEA or other constraints require a higher altitude?
A
10,000’ MSL
6
Q
What is the Maximum Operating Airspeed, VMO/MMO?
A
320 KIAS/.78 M
7
Q
What is the Maximum Operating Airspeed from 8,000 to 10,000 ft. MSL, VMO?
A
Red Line
8
Q
What is the Maximum Operating Airspeed up to 8,000 ft. MSL, VMO?
A
250 KIAS
9
Q
What is the Maximum Turbulence Penetration Airspeed below 10000 ft., VB?
A
200 KIAS
10
Q
What is the Maximum Turbulence Penetration Airspeed above 10000 ft., VB,MB
A
250 KIAS/.63 M whichever is lower
11
Q
What is the Maximum Maneuvering Airspeed, VA?
A
200 KIAS
12
Q
What is the Maximum Landing Gear Extension Airspeed, VLOE?
A
250 KIAS
13
Q
What is the Maximum Airspeed with the Landing Gear Extended, VLE?
A
250 KIAS
14
Q
What is the Maximum Airspeed for Landing Gear Retraction, VLOR?
A
200 KIAS
15
Q
What is the Maximum Airspeed for Flaps 9, VFE?
A
250 KIAS
16
Q
What is the Maximum Airspeed for Flaps 18, VFE?
A
200 KIAS
17
Q
What is the Maximum Airspeed for Flaps 22, VFE?
A
200 KIAS
18
Q
What is the Maximum airspeed for Flaps 45, VFE?
A
145 KIAS
19
Q
What is the Maximum Wiper Operating Airspeed?
A
160 KIAS
20
Q
What is the Maximum Operating Altitude?
A
37,000 ft.
21
Q
What is the Minimum Takeoff and Landing Pressure Altitude?
A
-1,000 ft.
22
Q
What is the Maximum Takeoff and Landing Pressure Altitude?
A
8,000 ft.
23
Q
What is the Minimum Takeoff and Landing Temperature Limit?
A
-40 C SAT
24
Q
What is required in the event of a landing with a temperature lower than -40 C SAT?
A
The aircraft may not takeoff without further maintenance inspection
25
What is the lowest allowed TAT allowed in cruise flight above 25,000 ft.?
-45 C
26
When do icing conditions exist on the ground?
OAT is 10 C or below and Visible Moisture is present
- OAT is 10 C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where
surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on the engines, nacelles, or sensor probes
27
Define Visible Moisture
Clouds, fog with visibility one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals
28
When do icing conditions exist in flight?
TAT is 10° C or below and visible moisture in any form is present
29
Should the crew manually activate the Ice Protection System if the aircraft is in known icing conditions and the Ice Detection System is not activating the Ice Protection System?
Yes
30
What is the Minimum Temperature for Manual Anti-icing Operation?
-40o C SAT or TAT
31
What is the Maximum Temperature for Manual Anti-icing Operation?
10o C SAT or TAT
32
What is the temperature limitation for automatic Anti-icing System Operation?
None
33
What are the conditions that make a runway considered “contaminated”?
```
More than 25% of the required field length within the width being used is covered
by:
• More than 1/8th inch (3 mm) of:
- standing water,
- slush or
- wet snow.
• More than 3⁄4 inches (19mm) of dry snow. • Compacted snow
• Ice
```
34
What is the Autopilot Minimum Engagement Height?
500 ft.
35
What is the Autopilot Minimum Disengagement Altitude on an Instrument Approach with APR or NAV mode?
MDA/DA/DH
36
What is the Autopilot Minimum Disengagement Altitude on a Visual Approach with HDG mode?
Traffic Pattern Altitude (1,500 ft. AGL)
37
Can the autopilot be engaged during a Single Engine go-around?
No
38
When can Approach mode be selected during localizer capture?
When the aircraft is inbound
39
When is Yaw Damper operation not authorized?
Takeoff to 500’ AFL
| - Landing
40
What is the cooling period between 3 consecutive start attempts of the APU?
1 min. OFF
41
What is the cooling period between two series of three consecutive start attempts of the APU?
30 mins. OFF
42
Can the aircraft be moved during the AHRS initialization? How do you know when it is ok to move the aircraft?
No
| - Only after all attitude and heading information presented on the PFD is displayed
43
What is the minimum time an engine run at idle or taxi thrust before shutdown?
One minute
44
Minimum dispatch oil quantity before engine start? After engine start?
8 quarts;
| 7 quarts
45
What is the minimum time the engines must be run at idle or taxi thrust if they have been shut down for more than 90 minutes? Less than 90 minutes?
4 minutes
| - 2 minutes
46
What is the minimum Oil Temperature prior to increasing N2 above 83%?
40 C
47
What is the minimum time the engines must be run at idle or taxi thrust prior to increasing N2 above 83% if Oil Temperature has not reached 40 C?
8 minutes
48
How long can you leave the Thrust Levers in the Thrust Set position or beyond with a Thrust mode of T/O-1 or T/O-RSV?
5 minutes
49
What is the ITT limit for Max Continuous thrust mode?
901
50
How long can the engines operate with the Oil Pressure in the amber range in all thrust modes?
Up to 5 minutes
51
How long can the engines operate with the Oil Pressure at 116 psi?
Up to 2 minutes
52
Can the engines operate with the Oil Pressure in the red range? What action must the crew take if the Oil Pressure reaches the red range?
No
- Any exceedance must be monitored and logged in the AML 49. What is the Minimum Oil Temperature for engine start?
- -40 C
53
What is the maximum time to run the starter for Starting or Dry Motoring?
Up to 5 minutes ON, 5 minutes OFF or
| - 1st thru 4th cycles, 1 min ON, 1 min OFF; following cycles, 1 min ON, 5 min OFF
54
What is the Maximum Altitude for Flaps Extension?
20,000 ft. MSL
55
What is the Maximum Airspeed after Takeoff/During Climb without Retrimming the Pitch Trim?
160 KIAS
56
What is the Holding Configuration?
Landing gear - UP
- Flaps - UP
- Minimum Airspeed - 200 KIAS in Icing Conditions
57
When MUST MAXIMUM reverse thrust be used?
Whenever its use will prevent a runway excursion
- If landing on runways with “Medium” or “Poor” braking action
• unless appropriate landing distance penalty is applied
58
When MAY IDLE reverse thrust be used?
Dry runways 9,000 ft. or shorter usable length (LDA)
| - Non-dry runways where braking action is ‘GOOD’
59
When is Thrust Reverser use is PROHIBITED?
Power-back operations
- Taxi operations
- Thrust Levers stabilized in any intermediate position between IDLE reverse and
MAXIMUM reverse
60
What is the Demonstrated Crosswind for takeoff and landing?
30 kts.
61
What is the Maximum Tailwind Component for Takeoff and Landing?
10 kts.
62
When are headsets with boom microphones required to be used?
Operations below 18,000’ including taxi.
63
What is the requirement for a crewmember to utilize their personal headset?
Headset must be marked with a TSO certification stamp or marking
64
What are the critical phases of flight that require a Sterile Cockpit?
- All ground operations when moving under the aircrafts own power
- Takeoff and Landing
- The last 1,000’ of any assigned altitude during climb or descent
- Holding, regardless of altitude
- All other operations below 10,000’ except cruise
- Any other phase of flight as deemed necessary by the Captain
65
When are shoulder harnesses required to be used in addition to seatbelts?
- Taxi
- Takeoff
- Landing
66
Prior to the taxi phase of flight, which chart should be displayed on each pilot’s EFB?
Airport Diagram
67
If you are unable to obtain an IFR clearance at airports which do not have operating ATC facilities and it is not possible to obtain an IFR clearance from the flight deck, what conditions must exist before the flight can takeoff?
- VFR conditions reported at the time of takeoff
- Flight remains in VFR conditions while operating under VFR
- Flight crew obtains an IFR clearance as soon as practical but not more than 50
NM from the departure airport
68
What conditions must exist for a flight crew to cancel an IFR flight plan?
- VFR weather conditions, remain within Class B or C airspace, remain radar
monitored by ATC, and remain in direct communication with the appropriate ATC
facility
- OR
- VFR weather conditions; direct communication with an air/ground communication
facility that provides airport traffic advisories; and within 10 NM of destination OR has established and will maintain visual reference with the landing runway
69
Can you carry a passenger onboard your aircraft that is obviously under the influence of any intoxicating liquor or drugs?
No, unless it’s a medical patient under proper care
70
When are we directed to declare an emergency in regards to fuel remaining?
Anytime the flight has less than 30 minutes of fuel
71
What is the transponder code used for Emergency aircraft? Radio failure? Hijacking?
- 7700
- 7600
- 7500
72
Name a couple of conditions that are considered an Emergency Condition according to FM1?
- Flight unable to establish definite position
- Flight 15 minutes or more overdue and not heard from at terminal or check point
- Failure/Malfunction of aircraft or any component, which interferes with safe
operation
- Indication of Fire
- Priority in air traffic control by ATC or tower, at request of the pilot
- Communication or navigational facilities impaired to the point that orientation or
letting down is difficult or impossible
- Any circumstance or condition that jeopardizes safety of flight, and which
requires deviation from prescribed methods, procedures, or minimums in the
interest of safety
- Flight has less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining on board
73
How soon after a Captain exercises their emergency authority must they file a Pilot Pipeline?
No later than 24 hours after the event
74
How much rest must a crewmember receive prior to the start of any reserve period or FDP?
10 hours, with a minimum of 8 hour of uninterrupted sleep opportunity
75
When does the required rest period begin following a domestic flight? What about an International flight?
- Domestic- 15 minutes after block in
| - International- 30 minutes after block in
76
Does a deadhead following the last working segment count towards a FDP? What about a middle segment or first segment deadhead?
- No
| - Yes
77
What is the maximum flight duty period extension that can be accepted?
2 hours
78
If a Crewmember accepts a FDP extension that is greater than 30 minutes, what is required before that Crewmember can accept another extension that is greater than 30 minutes
30 hour rest period
79
Does a Captain have the authority to cancel a flight?
No, that authority rests with SOC
80
Name two of the available methods that a pilot can electronically declare fitness for duty?
- CCI or Mobile CCI
- DECS
- ACARS
81
How early may a scheduled Flight depart assuming all passengers and cargo are onboard?
5 minutes
82
Can a flight be dispatched utilizing the Conditional Language Exemption, 17347, for international flights?
No
83
When would a Takeoff alternate be required?
When weather at the departure station is below authorized CAT I landing
minimums
84
When is a destination alternate required?
- WX forecast +/- 1 hour of ETA (at the Destination) indicating ceilings less than
2,000’ or visibility less than 3 miles
- Airshows/VIP movement within +/- 2 hours
- Braking action reported NIL
- Crosswind component more than 25kts forecasted
85
When would a second destination alternate be required?
- When the weather at the destination and first alternate is forecast to be marginal - OR
- When using the Conditional Language Exemption, 17347
86
When determining alternate airport weather minimums with two navigational facilities available, what values must be added to the ceiling and visibility?
- Ceiling- add 200 feet to the higher DA/DH/MDA of the two approaches
- Visibility- add 1⁄2 statue mile to the higher authorized landing minimum of the two
approaches
87
Your proposed alternate has two usable approaches and suitable runways, the GPS approach requires 500 and 1, the LOC approach requires 400 and 3⁄4 what is the minimum weather to file the airport as your alternate?
700 and 1 1⁄2 SM
88
If an alternate is listed on your release what is the minimum HOLD fuel time that will be
listed on the dispatch release?
12 min
89
If an alternate is not listed, what does the default HOLD fuel incorporate?
- The greater of the following:
- Historical Delay values plus fuel for gauge error and a missed approach
- OR
- One circuit in a standard hold; a missed approach; climb to 10,000’; and fly to an
Op Spec airport or an airport with a runway at least 7,000’x148’
- OR
- Minimum of 20 min
90
What is the lowest visibility authorized for Envoy departure operations?
600 RVR
91
What wind speed requires taxi and takeoff operations be suspended?
50 kts or more
92
When does a Dispatch Release expire?
- Flight cancels
- Lands at a point not on the original release
- Lands at a point in a different sequence than specified in the dispatch release
- Returns to a station after taking off (air interruption)
- Not having departed by expiration time if given by dispatcher
93
With a drift down flight plan, what should the flight crew do if the actual ramp weight exceeds the planned ramp weight listed on the dispatch release?
Contact dispatch
94
If actual ramp weight exceeds your planned ramp weight on the dispatch release by 2,000lbs or more what shall the Captain do?
Contact dispatch and consider obtaining a new fuel plan
95
What is the primary method for determining takeoff performance?
TPS
96
If TPS is unavailable, how can the takeoff performance and speeds be determined?
- Airport Analysis data (VAA/VAQ or fos.aa.com)
| - Flip Cards
97
If you are operating a Functional Check Flight will EWBS or TPS be available?
No
98
When are you required to perform a Static Takeoff?
If the actual takeoff weight is within 300 lbs of the takeoff Runway Weight Limit
for the thrust mode to be used
99
If the Maximum Takeoff Weight is landing weight limited and the actual Takeoff Weight is determined to be heavier, what should the crew do?
Contact dispatch
100
What does the letter “L” indicate next to the Maximum Takeoff Weight on the TPS? What about “A”? What about “T”?
- L- MTOW is landing weight limited
- A- MTOW is limited by the climb or runway limit for ALT T/O-1
- T- MTOW is limited by the climb or runway limit for T/O-1 or T/O
101
If the current temperature is warmer than the planned temperature by more than 20 C, what must the flight crew do?
Obtain new TPS data
102
Using the QRH, determine the Max Landing Weight for a destination at 1,000’ PA, 5,400’ usable landing distance, WET runway, and calm wind.
42,500 lbs. with Flaps 45
103
Using the QRH, determine the Climb Limited Landing Weight at 7,000’ PA and 36°C.
42,400 lbs.
104
What does the FM1 define as the weight of a Cabin Crewmember? ACM?
- Cabin Crewmember- 170 lbs
| - ACM- 190 lbs
105
What is the maximum variance per zone between the actual passenger count and the Load Closeout passenger count?
Two passengers
106
With a Forward Caution Zone indicated on the Load Closeout, what are the requirements for the actual passenger count in zone A and C?
- Zone A- actual number of passengers must be less than or equal to the Load Closeout
- Zone C- actual number of passengers must be greater than or equal to the Load Closeout
107
Where is the Basic Operating Weight of the aircraft denoted?
Yellow sticker in the AML
108
When performing a manual weight and balance on a flight without a Flight Attendant, will they need to be subtracted from the Basic Operating Weight?
Yes
109
What is the standard weight for Valet bags? What about Checked bags? What about Heavy Checked bags?
- Valet- 20 lbs.
- Checked- 30 lbs.
- Heavy- 60 lbs.
110
If the Load Closeout indicates MANUAL next to the C-4 weight instead of SCANNED, what additional paperwork is the crew required to obtain?
Cargo Worksheet
111
What does a “LA” indicate on the SPCL line of the Load Closeout?
Live Animal
112
If the Auto-NOTOC system is not available, which form must be used to notify the Captain that HAZMAT is being carried
Form OK333
113
Who is required to review the AML prior to flight?
Captain AND First Officer
114
When is it required to start a new AML page?
- Start of each new flight day
- No more Mechanical discrepancies blocks or Accepted by Captain blanks are
available
- White carbon page has been removed and an entry need to be made
115
What is the correct way to void an entry in the AML?
- Draw a single line through each line of the entry
- Print the word VOID or “Entered in Error” across the entire entry
- Sign and employee number
116
If the current AML page has been voided by Maintenance after the Captain has already accepted the aircraft, does the Captain need to accept the aircraft again?
No
117
What does a silver dot next to a dent in the airframe signify?
Maintenance has inspected the area and found the damage to be within limits
118
What should a crew do if a silver dot is not located next to a visible dent in the airframe?
Contact Maintenance to ensure the area in question hasn’t already been notated
in the ADL (Aircraft damage log), prior to making an AML entry.
119
Is a flight crew authorized to Flight Crew Placard a CDL item?
No
120
If you have departed the gate and a flight crew placard requires the cockpit door to be opened what action must be taken?
Return to the gate and normal placard procedures shall be followed
121
How would a crew know which items could be deferred under a flight crew placard and where could they find the procedure on how to perform a Flight Crew Placard?
- A “YES” is listed in the Flight Crew Placarding column in the MEL
- The Flight Crew Procedure is located in the MEL General Section
122
If a Category B MEL is entered into the AML on a Monday, on what day would it officially expire?
Thursday
123
What is an NEF, where are they located in the MEL, and can NEF items Flight Crew Placarded?
- Nonessential Equipment Furnishings
- MEL General Section
- Yes
124
Your aircraft has a Category B MEL expiring tonight at your destination, but you must divert to another airport with no maintenance and remain overnight, can you depart the next day?
Yes
125
What is an ACI?
Administrative Control Item
126
What is the maximum airspeed in Class D airspace?
200 KIAS
127
What is the maximum airspeed under Class B airspace?
200 KIAS
128
A LAHSO clearance, regardless of the performance capability of the aircraft, may not be accepted if ATC provides it after the aircraft is on the Final Approach and has descended below how many feet AGL?
1,000’
129
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearance?
The Pilot in Command
130
If a particular airport or runway configuration is not listed in the Jepps as approved for LAHSO, may it be used for LAHSO?
No
131
How long before a hold should you be established at your holding speed?
3 minutes prior to entering hold
132
What is the maximum holding speed below 6,000’?
200 KIAS
133
What is the maximum holding speed between 6,000’ and 14,000’?
230 KIAS
134
What is the maximum holding speed above 14,000’?
265 KIAS
135
Where can crewmembers find a listing of the airports that require Special Airport Qualifications?
FM1, Section 3
136
How would a Captain ensure they are qualified for a flight into an airport identified as SARA or requiring SAQ?
Review the SAQ chart in FM1, Section 3
137
How does a Captain document that they have qualified per FM1 for operation into a SAQ airport?
HI14/city/ddmmmyy
138
Where can the photo pages for SAQ/SARA airports be found?
JeppFD-Pro application
139
Can a First Officer ever use the photo pages for the purposes of certification to operate into a SAQ/SARA airport?
No
140
Where are the familiarization videos found for SAQ/SARA airports?
my.envoyair.com --> Flight Training --> SARA Airport Familiarization
141
If the Captain has made a takeoff and landing at DCA 6 months ago, is it required for him to review the photo pages before making another takeoff and/or landing at DCA?
No
142
Crewmembers will normally sign in how long before their scheduled departure time at the beginning of their sequence?
45 min
143
Crew scheduling can reduce the crewmember’s show time at an outstation to what minimum time?
20 min
144
Under normal conditions when shall a crewmember be at the aircraft and ready for flight?
20 min prior to departure time
145
Are crewmembers authorized to consume the same meals while on duty?
Crewmembers shall not intentionally eat the same meals prepared by the same
food preparation service while on duty, or within a six-hour period prior to duty
146
What is the time frame limit on consumption of alcohol prior to being on duty?
12 hours
147
What items are you required to carry or have readily available while performing duties on the aircraft or attending training?
- Envoy ID
- Pilot Certificate
- Medical
- Photo ID
- Passport
- Restricted Radiotelephone operator permit
- EFB
- Backup Battery (Captain only)
148
What what is the primary method a crewmember should follow if they lose an Airman or Medical certificate on duty?
Request a Replacement Certificate (Permanent or Temporary) from the FAA website at http://www.faa.gov
149
What must a crewmember do if their FAA medical examination will not be completed by the 20th day of the due month?
Inform their Domicile Chief Pilot when the examination will be complete
150
Should crewmembers carry backpacks while in uniform?
No
151
When is the uniform jacket or company approved leather jacket required to be worn?
From the beginning of November to the end of April
152
What are the approved methods of wearing the company ID?
- Company lanyard OR
- Clip- Clear, silver, black, navy – No Logo/design OR
- Retractable badge reel- Clear, silver, black, navy – No Logo/design
153
Are crewmember allowed to have beards or goatees while on duty? In training?
No
154
When shall crewmembers wear their company issued green, highly visible safety vest?
At all times while on the AOA
155
Are hats required to be worn with the uniform?
No
156
Can you self-clear yourself medically fit to fly if you were hospitalized during an illness?
No
157
Where can crewmembers find a list of common medications that are approved for use while on duty?
FM1
158
Who should a crewmember contact if they are too fatigued to continue performing their duties or notice that another crewmember is too fatigued to continue performing their duties?
Contact Crew Scheduling
159
If a crew member is removed due to fatigue, how long do they have to complete the mandatory report?
48 hours
160
If a crewmember has a limitation stating corrective lenses are required what is an additional requirement besides wearing the corrective lenses while on duty?
Carry and have readily available a spare set of corrective lenses (IATA requirement)
161
What actions should the crewmember take when you have received an updated medical?
- Provide a copy to Chief pilot’s office for their input into FOS
- HIL entry to update weight
162
You called in sick on day three of a four day trip. You were released by scheduling and intend to commute home. What should you consider prior to your commute?
Obtain travel authorization prior to any “travel while absent” from your Chief pilot
163
Where does a crewmember find what the latest updates for the electronic flight bag?
EFB --> Flight Operations Technical --> Revision Status Sheet
164
Who is responsible to maintain their manuals in a current state?
Each crewmember
165
Can a crew fly with only 1 IPAD available
Yes but only to a domicile to get a loner or replacement.
166
When the Captain is not an IOE instructor and the FO has less than 100 hours in the type of aircraft being flown what conditions warrant the Captain making all Takeoffs and Landings?
- SARA Airports designated by the FAA –OR-
- Any of the following conditions exist:
a) Visibility in the latest weather is at or below 3/4 mile
b) RVR for the runway being used is at or below 4,000 ft.
c) Runway to be used has water, snow, slush or similar conditions
which adversely affect aircraft performance
d) Braking on runway to be used is less than “good” or equivalent e) Crosswind component for runway to be used is in excess of 15
kts.
f) Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport
g) Flaps 180 or 220 takeoffs
h) Any other condition the PIC determines to be prudent
167
How often are Captains required to have completed a line check?
Within the preceding 12 months
168
When is a Captain considered to be a “Restricted Captain”?
When such pilot has not accumulated 100 hours as PIC in revenue service on
the type of aircraft being operated
a) Flight time during IOE is not eligible toward the 100 hours required
169
What are the lowest possible minimums for landing as a restricted Captain?
300/1 mile or 4,500 RVR
170
You are flying with or as a high minimums Captain, the weather upon arrival reports 200 and 1 mile and you are expecting an ILS approach, may the approach be conducted?
No and Yes, *find in FM1**
171
What are the landing currency requirements?
3 takeoffs and landings within 90 days on the same type of aircraft they are to
serve
172
What is the maximum passenger seating capacity of the Embraer 145? Embraer 140?
- 50 pax
| - 44 pax
173
What are the exterior dimensions of the Embraer 145? Embraer 140?
- 98 x 66 x 22
| - 94 x 66 x 22
174
What is the minimum pavement width for an 1800 turn in an Embraer 145?
70 ft.
175
Can the height of the pilot seats be adjusted manually?
Yes
176
When the Cockpit Direct Vision Windows are not properly locked in the closed position, what indication will be present?
- A yellow pin protruding from flat plate linkage near opening
- “WINDOW NOT CLOSED” inscription visible
177
Is the Baggage Compartment pressurized?
Yes
178
Name the three compartment hatches that share the EICAS caution message, “ACCESS DOOR OPEN”
- Forward Electronic compartment access hatch - Rear Electronic compartment access hatch
- Under Cockpit access hatch/rigging hatch
179
Where is the Emergency Locater Transmitter located?
In the Lavatory, above the toilet
180
When does the CVR begin to operate?
When Essential DC Bus 2 is engergized
181
How many hours does the CVR record?
2 hours
182
When does the FDR begin to record operational data?
- When the Red Beacon switch is ON or
| - When the aircraft is airborne
183
How many hours does the FDR record?
25 hours
184
What system pressure will cause the “OXYGEN LO PRESS” EICAS caution message to be presented? How many minutes will that be sufficient for?
400 psi, 12 minutes
185
What is the difference between the pilot’s oxygen masks and the observer’s mask?
- No venting valve
| - Flow indicator installed in the supply hose
186
Once a chemical oxygen generator is activated, can it be shut off?
No
187
Where is the Least Risk Bomb location in the EMB-145/140?
In the first overhead bin, over row three.
188
What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed with the flight deck oxygen masks not stowed?
Stops flow of oxygen.
189
What are the different modes of the cockpit quick donning O2 mask?
- Emergency Setting - Pure oxygen with positive pressure.
- 100% Setting - Pure oxygen at all altitudes.
- Normal Setting - Oxygen/Air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)
190
During preflight, how would you know if the cockpit crew oxygen had been over pressurized?
The green blowout disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage.
191
What is the oxygen duration of an oxygen chemical generator?
- 12 minutes
192
With the Passenger Oxygen Selector in AUTO, what cabin altitude will cause the Passenger Oxygen masks to automatically deploy?
Cabin altitude of 14,000 MSL.
193
How long does the PBE provide protection from smoke or toxic gas inhalation?
15 minutes
194
What is the Portable Oxygen Cylinder exclusively used for?
Therapeutic first aid
195
List the Emergency Equipment that is located in the Cockpit:
- 1 Fire Extinguisher, PBE, Crash Axe
- 2 Flashlights, 2 Escape Ropes
- 3 O2 Masks, 3 Smoke Goggles, 3 Life Vest
196
What compressor stage is low pressure bleed air tapped from? High pressure bleed air?
- 9th stage
| - 14th stage
197
What conditions will cause the High Stage Valve to open?
- Low engine thrust
- Crossbleed engine start
- Anti-ice operation
198
During any type of engine start, with the Cross Bleed knob in AUTO, will the Cross Bleed Valve automatically open or remain closed?
Automatically open
199
What is the Purpose of the Pre-cooler?
Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the ECS
200
Is the bleed air for the Engine Air Inlet Anti-icing System tapped upstream or downstream of the High Stage Valve?
Upstream
201
Which side of the Pneumatic System is the APU Bleed Air connected?
Left
202
What prevents engine bleed air from flowing back to the APU?
A check valve
203
What is the temperature range of Automatic Temperature Control Mode?
18 C to 29 C
204
What will be the indication if the ECS Off Logic closes the pack valves?
PACK 1-2 VLV CLSD advisory EICAS message
205
Will the guarded Pressurization Dump Button function if the Pressurization System is being operated in the manual mode? What will the cabin altitude depressurize to if the Pressurization Dump Button is pressed?
- No
| - 14,500 ft.
206
What position must the Pressurization Manual Control Knob be in when operating in AUTO Mode?
To the DN position
207
If the aircraft is on the ground and the Gasper Button is out and illuminated, will the Gasper fan be off or on?
On
208
What controls the APU starting system, control logic, and failure indications?
The APU FADEC
209
Which fuel tank normally provides fuel to the APU?
Tank 2 (right)
210
How can Fuel Tank 1 provide fuel to the APU?
Selecting LOW 2 on the XFEED knob
211
What EICAS message will be presented when the AHRS 900 Built In Test is complete and must be presented before starting the APU?
“AHRS 1-2 ALN”
212
What happens when the APU Stop Button is pressed?
Sends a stop request to the FADEC
213
What happens when the guarded APU Fuel Shut-off Button is pressed?
- Sends a stop request to the FADEC
| - Closes the APU fuel shut-off valve
214
What happens when the APU Master Knob is set to OFF?
- Deenergizes the APU FADEC
- Closes the APU fuel shut-off valve
- Turns off indications and alarms whenever the APU RPM is below 10%
- Commands the APU to shutdown
215
What happens when the APU Master Knob is set to ON?
- Energizes the APU FADEC
- Commands the APU Fuel Shutoff Valve to open
- Enables APU EICAS information and alarms
216
When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur in flight?
- Overspeed
- Underspeed
- Failure to start, accelerate, or light
- Loss of speed data
- External short
- Loss of FADEC signal
- FADEC failure
217
Which IC-600 incorporates Autopilot functions?
IC-600 #1
218
How is the “AUTOPILOT” voice message cancelled if the RA is below 2,500 ft.?
Press the Quick Disconnect button twice with a 0.6 sec delay in between
219
What is the pitch up guidance of the Takeoff Submode “ROL-TO” with the Flaps at 90? 220? 180?
- Flaps 9- 14°
- Flaps 22- 12°
- Flaps 18- 13°
220
What is the initial pitch up guidance of the Go Around Submode “ROL-GA”?
10°
221
What is the bank angle limited to when Low Bank Mode is selected?
14°
222
When climbing from 0 to 10,000 ft. with Flight Level Change Mode selected, what is the preprogrammed climb speed?
240 KIAS
223
When descending below 10,000 ft. with Flight Level Change Mode selected, what is the preprogrammed descent rate?
1,000 ft./min
224
How can the pitch be adjusted with Pitch Hold Mode “PIT” selected and will this mode capture an altitude that is set in the Altitude Select window?
- The Pitch Control Wheel
| - Yes
225
With the “LOC” and “GS” captured, will the Autopilot capture an altitude that is set in the Altitude Select window?
No
226
If the Autopilot Couple Button is pressed in flight with the autopilot engaged, will the autopilot disengage or remain engaged?
Engaged
227
How can an RMU be Cross-side tuned?
Selecting Transfer Button labeled “1⁄2” on the opposite RMU
228
What is the purpose of the Tuning Backup Control Head?
Provides an alternate means to select frequencies for COM 2 and NAV 2
229
What indication is there that an RMU has been cross-side tuned by the opposite RMU?
Any change in frequency will be displayed in yellow
230
What happens when Emergency Mode is selected on the Captain’s Digital Audio Panel?
The Captain is directly connected with COM 1 and NAV 1
231
What happens when Emergency Mode is selected on the First Officer’s Digital Audio Panel?
The First Officer is directly connected with COM 2 and NAV 2
232
How do you change to Direct COM Tuning on the RMU?
Press and hold the line select button beside the COM preset frequency line for three
seconds
233
What provides DC power to the aircraft?
- 4 engine driven generators
- 1 APU Starter-generator
- 2 Nickel-Cadmium batteries
- 1 lead-acid backup battery
- External power
234
What provides AC power to the aircraft?
An Inverter
235
Does the Electrical Distribution Logic differ when the aircraft is on the ground versus in flight?
Yes
236
With 4 engine driven generators on, will the left and right electrical networks be interconnected or isolated?
Isolated
237
How many minutes of power can both batteries provide for essential loads in case of failure of all generators in flight?
40
238
The engine driven generators will come on line when the engine speed reaches what N2?
56.4% N2
239
Which electrical network does Generators #1 and #3 provide power to?
Left Network
240
Can the APU generator can be used to replace any failed engine driven generator?
Yes
241
Which electrical network does the APU is normally connect in parallel to?
Right Network
242
With only 2 engine driven generators providing power to the electrical system, which electrical buses are deengergized?
The SHED BUSES
243
Does OVRD position of SHED BUSES Selector Knob function if the aircraft is in flight?
No
244
What temperature will cause a BATT 1(2) OVTEMP warning message to be displayed on the EICAS?
70 C
245
What is the purpose of the Backup Battery?
To provide stabilized power for the GCU’s protective function in case
of short circuit or near zero system voltage
246
During an APU start, which electrical bus provides power to the APU starter generator?
The Central DC Bus
247
Which battery provides power for an APU start?
Battery #2
248
During an APU start, which battery is isolated from the load buses
Battery #1
249
When is the APU starter generator available to provide power to the electrical system?
7 seconds after achieving 95% RPM
250
What amount of load on an engine driven generator will cause a GEN 1(2, 3, 4) OVLD caution message to display on the EICAS?
400 amps
251
What are the functions of the Central DC Bus?
- To connect the APU generator or the GPU to the load buses
- To provide bus interconnections in case of generator failure or engine
shutdown
252
How is the Ground Service Bus energized?
- GPU connected
| - Batteries and GEN’s disconnected
253
What happens with the guarded Essential Power Button is pressed?
Batteries are directly connected to the Essential Busses regardless of any
other command from the EDL
254
What does an “ELEC ESS XFR FAIL” warning message on the EICAS indicate?
Automatic transfer to the electrical emergency configuration has failed
255
What does an “ELEC EMERG ABNORM” caution message on the EICAS indicate?
Improper transfer to the electrical emergency condition has occurred
256
What model engine powers the Embraer 145? Embraer 140?
- Embraer 145- Rolls-Royce AE3007A1
| - Embraer 140 - Rolls-Royce AE3007A1/3
257
How many stages does the Axial Flow Compressor have?
14 stages
258
Name the engine and airplane accessories that are driven by the Accessory Gearbox.
- Hydraulic pump
- Electrical Generators
- Air Turbine Starter
- Permanent Magnet Alternator - Oil pump
- Fuel Pump and Metering Unit
259
What controls the Fuel Pump and Metering Unit?
Engine FADEC
260
What controls the Compressor Variable Geometry and what provides the means to move the guide vanes?
- FADEC
| - FPMU fuel pressure
261
What is the engine oil tank capacity?
12 quarts
262
At what oil quantity will the oil level indication on the MFD T/O page turn amber?
5 quarts or below
263
What is the primary electrical power source for the Engine Control and Ignition Systems?
The PMA
264
At what engine speed will the PMA provide power to both of the engine FADECs? What about the Ignition system?
- 50% N2
| - 10% N2
265
With the Ignition Selector knob in AUTO and the aircraft on the ground, at what N2 will the FADEC activate the associated ignition channel? What about the ON position?
- AUTO 14% N2
| - ON 10% N2
266
If the Ignition Selector knob is set to OFF and the associated engine is running, will the FADEC command the Engine Fuel Metering Valve to close?
No
267
Each FADEC is connected to one of the two FADECs on the opposite engine via a data bus, which functions are implemented with this communication?
- Thrust reverse interlock.
| - Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System
268
With FADEC software version B9.4.1 installed, when will the FADEC automatically alternate?
- After engine start
| - If the FADEC is unable to control the engine
269
In an Embraer 140 with ALT T/O-1 thrust selected, what thrust mode will the ATTCS reset the thrust mode to in the event of an engine failure? What if T/O was selected for takeoff and an engine failure occurred?
- ALT T/O-1 to T/O-1
| - T/O to TO RSV
270
What thrust mode will automatically be selected when the landing gear transitions from up to down and locked below 15,000 ft. in an Embraer 145? What about the Embraer 140?
- Embraer 145- T/O-1
| - Embraer 140- T/O
271
How many locking systems are incorporated in the thrust reversers to avoid inadvertent in fight deployment?
3
272
Which shutoff valves are closed when an Engine Fire Handle is pulled?
- Hydraulic
- Fuel
- Bleed Air
- Engine air inlet ice protection
273
How long must you wait if it is necessary to repeat the Fire Detection Test?
6 seconds
274
What happens when the Fire Detection Test Button is held for more than 10 seconds while the APU is running?
The APU will shutdown
275
What happens when the guarded APU EXTG Button is pressed?
- Discharges the APU fire extinguisher bottle
- Sends a stop request to the APU FADEC
- Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve
276
Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?
Yes
277
If the Fire Detection System on Engine #1 has failed, what EICAS message will be presented?
ENG 1 FIRE DET FAIL
278
What part of the Lavatory is protected by the single fire extinguisher?
The lavatory waste container
279
Where is the Lavatory Smoke Detector Panel located?
Forward galley wall
280
How many smoke detectors are there in the baggage compartment?
2
281
What conditions will cause the guarded Baggage Fire Extinguishing Button to illuminate?
- Smoke detected in the compartment
- Low pressure within a baggage fire extinguisher bottle
- During a fire detection test
- After pressing the “BAGG EXTG” button, or - Baggage compartment fan relay fault
282
What indications are present while performing a Fire Detection Test?
- Aural fire bell
- Both Fire Handles and the BAGG EXTG button illuminate
- All Master Warning and Caution lights illuminate
- EICAS messages- ENG 1-2 FIRE, APU FIRE, BAGG SMOKE, ENG 1-2 FIRE
DET FAIL, and APU FIRE DET FAIL
283
What conditions must be met for the Speed Brakes to open?
- Both TLA’s below 50°
| - Flaps at 0° or 9°
284
When does the Gust Lock indicator lights on the glareshield panel illuminate?
- During an unlocking cycle
- When a system failure occurs
- When it is pressed for test
285
Can the elevators, ailerons and rudder all be mechanically actuated?
Yes
286
How are the Flaps actuated?
Electrically
287
On which side of the elevator disconnect device is the autopilot elevator servo and the stick pusher servo located?
Left
288
How many control channels does the Horizontal Stabilizer Control Unit have?
2
289
When manually actuating the pitch trim, after how many seconds is it necessary to release the switch to its neutral position?
3 seconds
290
Which side is the roll trim actuator and the artificial feel unit located on the disconnection device?
Right
291
At what airspeed is Rudder System #1 is automatically shut off through the Rudder Electronic Circuit?
135 KIAS
292
What are the three conditions which must occur simultaneously in order for the Rudder Electronic Circuit to shut off both rudder hydraulic systems for Rudder Hardover Protection?
- Rudder deflected above 5°±1°
- Force above 130 lb. on the rudder pedal to counteract the rudder deflection
- Both engines running above 56.4% N2
293
If one of the electric motors in the Flap Power and Drive Unit fails, is the other motor capable of driving the flaps?
Yes
294
What conditions must be met for the Ground Spoilers to open?
- Aircraft on the ground
- Main landing gear wheels running above 25 knots
- Both TLA’s set below 30° or both engines N2 below 56.4%
295
Where does the Standby Airspeed, Standby Altimeter, and CPAM get static information from?
Pitot/Static tube 3
296
An amber “ADC 1” or “ADC 2” annunciation appears on the PFD when:
Only one ADC is supplying both sides
297
If the current rate of acceleration is maintained, the magenta Airspeed Trend Vector would represent the speed attained by the aircraft is how many seconds?
10 seconds
298
What color on the Low Airspeed Awareness scale represents stall speed, VS? 1.13 VS? 1.23 VS?
- VS- Red
- 1.13 VS- Yellow
- 1.23 VS- White
299
What color will the airspeed display be if the aircraft is at or exceeds VMO or MMO?
Red
300
How many knots between ADC 1 and 2 will cause the Airspeed Comparison Monitor to display on the PFDs?
5 KIAS
301
How much altitude difference between ADC 1 and 2 will cause the Altitude Comparison Monitor to display on the PFDs?
200 ft.
302
At what RA will the brown Low Altitude Awareness appear on the Altitude Tape?
550
303
If the current vertical speed is maintained, the magenta Altitude Trend Vector would represent the altitude attained by the aircraft in how many seconds?
6 seconds
304
If the FMS is already initialized, how do you find the database expiration date?
Press the DATA mode select key to access DATA 1/4 Page and then press the
NAV DATA line select key
305
What is the required Q value on the UNS-1K?
10 or less
306
What is the required ANP value on the UNS-1LW?
Less than or equal to the RNP
307
When is it required to verify the predictive RAIM when equipped with a UNS-1K?
When flying to an airport where GPS stand-alone is the only intended and
suitable approach
308
When using FMS guidance for conducting an instrument approach that does not include GPS or RNAV in the title, which pilot’s PFD must display conventional nav aid data?
Pilot Monitoring
309
How many electric fuel pumps are included and how many ejector pumps are included in one Fuel Tank?
- 3 electric fuel pumps
| - 1 ejector pump
310
What is the total useable fuel capacity at a fuel density of 6.71 lbs./gal.?
11,100 lbs.
311
What is the purpose of the ejector pump?
Ensure enough fuel is in the collector box under all conditions
312
If the fuel pressure provided by the selected fuel pump drops below 6.5 psi on the inlet side of the FPMU, what EICAS caution message will be presented and what happens with the remaining fuel pumps?
- E 1(2) FUEL LOW PRESS
- The remaining electrical driven pumps in the fuel tank will automatically come on
and cycle on and off concurrently, until the pilot selects one of them
313
What happens when LOW 2 is selected on Crossfeed Selector Knob
- Opens the crossfeed valve
| - The selected tank 2 fuel pump is turned off
314
What position must be selected on the Crossfeed Selector Knob during Takeoffs or Go Arounds?
OFF
315
At what fuel quantity will the “FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL” warning message be presented on the EICAS?
584 lbs.
316
At what fuel quantity will the Fuel Quantity Indication on the EICAS turn amber and boxed?
880 lbs.
317
If the “FUEL IMBALANCE’ caution message is presented on the EICAS, how can it be extinguished?
Use the fuel crossfeed to decrease the difference in fuel quantity to less than 100 lbs.
318
If the aircraft is shutdown with no electrical power applied, can the aircraft be refueled using the Refueling Panel?
Yes
319
How many total direct measuring sticks are available under the wings and collector tanks to directly measure fuel quantity on the Embraer 140 and 145?
6
320
How many hydraulic systems does the EMB-145/140 have?
Two independent systems.
321
What is the normal system pressure provided by the electric motor driven hydraulic pump?
2,900 psi
322
What is the normal system pressure provided by the engine driven hydraulic pump?
3,000 psi
323
With the Electric Hydraulic Pump Control Knob in AUTO, what system pressure will trigger the electric hydraulic pump to turn on, or below what associated N2 value would cause the electric hydraulic pump to turn on?
- 1600 psi
| - 56.4% N2
324
Will the landing gear extend normally if the #2 Hydraulic System fails?
Yes
325
What is the purpose of the Priority valve associated with the #1 Hydraulic System?
Prioritize hydraulic supply from system #1 to flight controls while landing gear is
actuated when system is powered only by the electric hydraulic pump.
326
What hydraulic fluid temperature will cause a “HYD SYS 1(2) OVHT” EICAS caution message to be presented?
90 C
327
What fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir will cause a “HYD 1(2) LO QTY” EICAS caution message to be presented?
Less than 1 liter
328
What happens when the guarded Hydraulic Engine Pump Shutoff button is pressed?
Closes the associated engine driven pump shutoff valve
329
What are the two ways to activate the Anti-icing system?
- Automatically
| - Manually- selecting ALL with the Ice Detection Override Knob
330
Which side of the Pneumatic System supplies bleed air to the horizontal stabilizer anti- icing subsystem?
The left side
331
What is name of the perforated tube that supplies the hot air to the leading edges of the wings and horizontal stabilizer?
Piccolo tube
332
With the Ice Detection Override Knob in the ENG position and the aircraft on the ground, when are the horizontal stabilizer and wing anti-icing subsystems automatically inhibited?
Wheel speed below 25 kts.
333
During a Pneumatic Ice Protection Test on the ground, how long can the Ice Detection Test Knob be held in test position 1 or 2?
15 seconds
334
Why can’t the APU bleed air provide anti-icing functionality?
The bleed air from the APU is not hot enough
335
What temperature does the Windshield Temperature Controller maintain while in Defog mode? What about Anti-ice mode?
- 26 C
| - 43 C
336
When are all electrically heated sensors except for the TAT’s heated?
One engine running above 56.4% N2
337
When are the TAT Probes heated?
- Thrust lever in the Thrust Set position
| - In Flight
338
After the Ice Detectors detect ice, how long does the icing signal remain active and what message is presented on the EICAS?
- 60 seconds
| - ICE CONDITION
339
How is the Landing Gear normally extended and retracted?
Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
340
Which button which allows the “LANDING GEAR” warning voice message to be cancelled with the Flap Selector Lever less than 22° and one TLA below 590?
The guarded Landing Gear Warning Cutout Button
341
How many weight-on-wheels proximity switches are installed in the Air/Ground Indication System?
5
342
What are the two backup methods to landing extension?
- Electrical Override System
| - Free Fall extension
343
What happens when the Landing Gear Free-fall Lever is pulled?
- De-pressurizes the landing gear hydraulic lines
| - Unlocks all three gear uplocks.
344
What does the anti-skid protection system provide?
- Maximum allowable braking effort for the runway surface in use - Minimum tire wear
- Optimizes braking distance
- Prevents skidding
345
Above what wheel speeds is Locked Wheel Protection activated?
30 kts.
346
What is the purpose of the Touchdown Protection?
Inhibits brake actuation before main wheel spin up during
| landing
347
How many emergency actuations does the dedicated accumulator associated with the Emergency/Parking Brake system provide? How many hours of parking brake actuation?
- 6 actuations
| - 24 hours
348
How can the nose wheel steering system be manually disengaged by the pilots?
The Steering Disengage Button behind either pilot’s control wheel
349
What is the maximum displacement of the nose wheel through the Steering Handwheel? Rudder Pedals? Together?
71, 5, 76
350
Which has priority if pressed simultaneously, the Steering Handwheel or the Steering Disengage Button?
The Steering Handwheel
351
How many Landing Lights are available?
3
352
How many Taxi Lights are available?
2
353
What electrical bus powers the Taxi Lights?
Shed Bus 2
354
With the Courtesy Lights Control knob in AUTO and the aircraft is powered down, will the Cockpit Dome light operate?
Yes
355
How many dedicated batteries power the emergency lights?
4
356
The Emergency Light Batteries are charged by what electrical bus?
Essential DC Bus 2
357
What triggers Emergency Light activation if they are in the ARM position and how long will they last?
- Electrical Emergency
| - Approximately 15 minutes
358
If the Emergency Lights are turned on with the Flight Attendant’s Control Panel, will the Cockpit Emergency Lighting Switch turn off the Emergency Lights?
No
359
What will be the voice message to the pilot that both Aural Warning Unit channels are operating normally during the power-up test?
“AURAL UNIT OK”
360
Which items does the Takeoff Configuration System check?
- Flaps not in takeoff position
- Parking brake applied
- Pitch trim out of the green range
- Any spoiler panel deployed
361
How is the Windshear Escape Guidance Mode “ROL-WSHR” activated if a windshear condition is detected?
- Pressing a Go-Around Button
- Thrust Levers set to MAX
- Automatically if already in a Takeoff or Go-Around mode
362
What are the three EICAS Message Levels and their associated colors?
- Warning – Red
- Caution – Amber
- Advisory – Blue
363
Which EICAS Message Level is always displayed on top of the list?
Warnings
364
What does a “CAS MSG” comparison label on the PFDs indicate?
The number of EICAS messages in each IC-600 is found to be different
365
What indications must be observed on the PFDs and MFDs during a TCAS Test? What will be the aural warning message after a successful TCAS test?
- PFD- VSIs show red and green arcs
- MFD- TCAS Display showing a hollow blue diamond, a solid blue diamond, a
solid amber circle, and a solid red square
- Aural- “TCAS TEST PASS”
366
All TAs are inhibited below what altitude?
500 ft.
367
How many Stick Shaker actuators are part of the Stall Protection System?
Two
368
How many Stick Pusher actuators are part of the Stall Protection System?
One
369
How many stall protection channels are part of the Stall Protection System?
Two
370
How many stall protection channels are required for Stick Pusher actuation?
Both channels
371
When does the Stall Protection Test Button illuminate?
- During an SPS test
- After an unsuccessful SPS test
- To indicate system has not been tested after aircraft establishes power
372
How can the “SPS/ICE SPEEDS” advisory message on the EICAS be extinguished?
Press the Stall Protection Test Button on the ground
373
What happens when one of the guarded Stall Protection Cutout Buttons is pressed?
- Disconnects the associated channel
| - Inhibits Stick Pusher actuation
374
What is the size of the Weather Radar antenna?
12 inches
375
How do you override the Forced Standby Mode?
Select an active radar mode and then press the STAB button 4 times in less than
3 seconds
376
How is the Weather Radar placed into Slave Mode and what does it do?
- Select one controller to OFF
| - Allows one Radar Control Panel to set the radar mode for both sides
377
What does the SECT button do?
Reduces the sector scan from 120 degrees to 60 degrees
378
Is the GAIN knob normally operated in the pushed in, calibrated gain mode or the pulled out, variable gain mode?
Calibrated
379
With Target Alert “TGT” mode active, what does a yellow “TGT” on the MFD indicate?
A potentially hazardous target lies directly in front and outside the selected radar
range
