Study guide Flashcards

(97 cards)

1
Q

True or false: in vaccination, both antibody and T cell responses seem to depend on the innate immune system.

A

True

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2
Q

Immunity aquired through passive immunotherapy is best described by what statement?

A

Transfer of antibodies formed by immune individual or animal

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3
Q

What are examples of a transfer of antibodies from an immune individual?

A

breast milk to baby
placenta to fetus
injection of antisera (horse or human)

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4
Q

Does vaccination always ensure immunity?

A

No

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5
Q

What must occur in order to develop immunity?

A

B cells and T cells against the pathogen must develop

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6
Q

What is immunization?

A

the process of eliciting a long-lived state of protective immunity against a disease-causing pathogen

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7
Q

In active immunization how can effectiveness be checked?

A

checking antibody titers

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8
Q

In order to produce memory kiiller T cells with a vaccine, what must be true?

A

the infected cell must present antigen on MHC I

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9
Q

In order to produce a memory helper T cell, what must be true?

A

antigen presenting protein must present an antigen on MHC II

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10
Q

In order to produce a memory B cell, what must be true?

A

antigen coming to a secondary lymph organ via lymph or blood

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11
Q

Most vaccines are believed to confer protection through what mechanism?

A

neutralizing complement

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12
Q

Adjuvants may trigger autoimmune responses, but won’t lead to autoimmune diseases. True or False?

A

false

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13
Q

What are the classifications of vaccines?

A

subunit
toxoid
CHO
conjugate

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14
Q

What is the most common adjuvent in human vaccines?

A

aluminum

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15
Q

What are non-infectious vaccines designed to do?

A

not to infect the host

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16
Q

What happens when a non-infectious vaccine is introduced into the body?

A

B cells make antibodies that bind to the toxin and weaken the real attack

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17
Q

Tetanus vaccine is an example of what kind of vaccine?

A

toxoid

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18
Q

Transfer of preformed antibodies from mother to fetus can confer what type of immunity?

A

passive

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19
Q

Recovery from a disease always leads to immunity.

A

false

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20
Q

Why doesn’t getting a disease mean you’re immune to it?

A

because some pathogens can mutate rapidly or they can cause a persistent or latent infection

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21
Q

What is an example of a pathogen that can become latent that we went over in class?

A

HIV

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22
Q

What are the examples of non-infectious vaccines?

A

Diptheria and Tetanus

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23
Q

Which cytokine is anti-inflammatory?

A

IL-10

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24
Q

Describe how a carrier vaccine works

A

introduce a single gene from a pathogenic microbe into a virus that doesn’t cause disease
the carrier infects the host’s antigen presenting proteins
the pathogenic microbe protein fragments are presented on MHC I molecules

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25
What types of cells are produced with a carrier vaccine?
memory B, memory helper T, memory killer T
26
When people are injected with crude versions of allergies, what eventually happens?
``` the B cells seem to class switch from IgE to another antibody class like IgG repeated injections may generate iTregs which produce cytokines that suppress IgE production ```
27
The yellow fever vaccine activates toll like receptors on killer T cells.
False
28
In an allergic response, the following cells contribute to the response in what order from slowest to fastest?
eosinophils, basophils, mast cells
29
Where are mast cells stationed when associating with immediate allergic reactions?
tissues
30
Where are basophils stationed when associating with immediage allergic response? How?
blood by signals given off by mast cells
31
What do basophils and mast cells bind to during an immediate allergic response? What results?
IgE, results in crosslinking of Fc receptors that causes degranulation
32
What do the Th cells do during an allergic response?
secrete IL-5 which can recruit many eosinophils from the bone marrow
33
Where are eosinophils located?
bone marrow
34
Contact with soil microbes early in life is thought to be associated with what?
Shift to Th-1 bias
35
What environmental factors can help shift to a Th-1 bias in children?
grow up on farms, older siblings, owning a dog, etc.
36
It has been observed that autoimmune diseases frequently follow what event?
infections
37
Why can infections lead to autoimmune diseases?
molecular mimicry
38
Why don't people get autoimmune diseases before the infection?
affinity of receptors is too low to trigger activation or | restricted traffic pattern of naive lymphocytes never brought them into contact
39
What is molecular mimicry?
lymphocytes have receptors that recognize their cognate antigen on the microbe, the receptor could cross react with a self antigen causing an autoimmune disease
40
What is associated with aluminum intake?
anemia, inflammation
41
How does aluminum lead to anemia?
aluminum disrupts iron homeostasis which causes free iron release this can lead to increased ROS and hepcidin decreased hepcidin leads to a decrease in GI iron intake and decreased GI iron release from cells this causes anemia
42
Which disease is most commonly vaccinated for in this day and age?
rotavirus
43
How can we prevent children from getting rotavirus?
reccommend they get breastfed and are not put in a day care until they are a little older
44
Is there a treatment for rotavirus?
no
45
What is the vaccine type for rotavirus?
infectious live vaccine
46
Is a stool test usually done when testing for rotavirus?
no
47
In HIV, what allows the virus to evade immune system defenses?
high mutation rate
48
What happens if there is a non-functional CD40 or CD40L?
B cells are unable to class switch and secrete mainly IgM
49
What disease can occur if there is a mutation that affects the formation and function of the thymus?
DiGeorge syndrome
50
What is SCIDs?
Severe Immunodeficiency Syndrome neither B or T cells function because of a defect in the protein that initiates gene splicing required to produce B cell receptors and T cell receptors
51
How is HIV-1 able to defeat the immune system?
it takes a viral enzyme (reverse transcriptase) and makes a copy of DNA that is inserted into the host DNA and it can sit there undetected by CTLs
52
How long does it take HIV-1 to invade?
5-10 days
53
Measles outbreaks have occurred in highly vaccinated populations.
true
54
What kind of immunity does vaccines create?
leaky herd immunity
55
The majority of individuals infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis will not develop an active TB infection in their lifetime
True
56
How is tuberculosis contracted?
airborne infection (microdroplets)
57
What should happen when mycobacterium tuberculosis is inhaled?
the organism is engulfed by alveolar macrophges into a phagosome which fuses to a lysozome to destory the organism
58
What is an example of an acute, potentially life-threatening complication of an infection that can lead to multiple organ failure?
Sepsis
59
When does sepsis occur?
when chemicals that are released into the bloodstream to fight the infection end up triggering inflammation throughout the body
60
What happens during septic shock?
blood pressure drops dramatically, which can lead to death
61
What is the treatment for sepsis?
antibiotics and lots of IV fluids early on improves survival rate
62
A single gene mutation can cause immunodeficiency. True or false?
True
63
Which immune cell has never been shown to have an antitumor effect?
Mast cells
64
Which immune cell has never been shown to have tumor promoting effects?
NK cells
65
What is it about the human immunodeficiency virus that allows it to successfully evade our immune system?
High mutation rate
66
If a particular genetic defect has never been observed in humans, what would you conclude?
it is lethal
67
What immune cells are quick acting, recognize divserse target structures, and in vitro have been shown to destroy some cancer cells?
macrophages, NK cells, Killer T cells (CTLs take time to act)
68
What is the function of RAG-2 protein?
Necessary to assemble both B and T cell receptors
69
In humans with cancer, higher lymphocyte counts associated with tumors are associated with longer survival.True or false?
true
70
What is a common cause of cancer?
mulitple mutations and a viral infection
71
What is an eample of a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
hemolytic anemia
72
What hypersensitivity has an inflamatory compnent and is associated with antibody-antigen immune complexes?
Type III
73
What is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity?
poison ivy, Chron's disease
74
What is an example of a type III hypersensitivity reaction
lupus erythematosus
75
What hypersensitivity is associated with IgE?
type I
76
What hypersensitivity is associated with IgG and IgM?
types II and III
77
What hypersensitivity is T cell mediated?
type IV
78
When stimulated, this nerve can shut down inflammation by inhibiting cytokine release from macrophges.
Vagus nerve
79
What is the cource of acetylcholine that binds to macrophges in the spleen, attenuating the cytokine release associated with inflammation?
Chat + T cells in the spleen
80
Most flus aren't caused by the influenza organism. True or false?
true
81
Vagal nerve stimulation improved survival in mice with peritonitis associated with perforation of intestines. True or False?
true
82
Animals deficient in what are exquisitely sensitive to inflammatory challenges because they overproduce cytokines?
vagal nerve activity | nicotinic receptors
83
An increase in heart rate variability is associated with what?
increased parasympathetic tone
84
Cell migration within secondary lymphoid organs is controlled in part by neural signals. True or false?
true
85
What does a genetic mutation disrupt that could lead to cancer?
proteins that repair mutated DNA, which could lead to a marked rise in accumulated mutations
86
Why have NK cells never been shown to have tumor promoting effects?
because as soon as the NK cell recognizes unusual surface molecules and low levels of MHC I, it kills it off before they can do anything
87
Where do most NK cells reside?
blood
88
Why does a type II hypersensitivity lead to hemolytic anemia?
antibodies can bind to carbs or proteins that are present on RBCs, this causes the RBC to be phagycytized and once the compliment is fixed, RBCs are lysed
89
Vagal nerve stimulation stimulates the release of what?
cytokines, eicosanoids, DAMPs, PAMPs
90
Heart rate variability is inversely correlated with the risk of what diseases?
cardiovascular disease, diabetes, hpertension, dyslipidemia
91
Increased heart rate variability is positively correlated with what?
longevity in cencer, better cognitive performance in Alzheimer's disease
92
What can macrophges secrete?
TNF, IL-1, IL-18, HMGB1
93
Once the efferent vagus nerve leaves the brain, what does it do?
synapses on the celiac ganglion
94
Where does the splenic neuron run from and to?
from the celiac ganglion to the spleen
95
What kind of neuron is the splenic neuron?
adrenergic
96
What is realeased form the splenic neuron and what does it do?
norepinephrine, stimulates T cells
97
What does the T cell use to activate the macrophge?
acetylcholine