Study guide Flashcards
(203 cards)
1
Q
Max ramp weight
A
82,750
2
Q
Max takeoff weight
A
82,500 lbs
3
Q
Max landing weight
A
73,500
4
Q
Zero fuel weight
A
70,000 lbs
5
Q
Min flight weight
A
45,000 lbs
6
Q
Max total air cargo compartment
A
4375 lbs
7
Q
Max total fed cargo compartment
A
850 lbs
8
Q
Max center cargo
A
850lbs
9
Q
Max pressure refueling
A
Total : 19,594 lbs
Mains : 7492 lbs
Center: 4610
10
Q
Max gravity refueling
A
Total:14,810
Mains : 7405
Center: NA
11
Q
What is the wingspan
A
76.3 feet
12
Q
What is the height of the tail?
A
24.1 ft
13
Q
What is minimum surface width for a 180 degree turn?
A
126.5
14
Q
Length?
A
118.11 feet
15
Q
Width of horizontal stabilizer?
A
28.4 feet
16
Q
Main to Main
A
13.6 feet
17
Q
Vmo
A
335 kias
18
Q
MMO
A
.85 Mach
19
Q
MMO during RVSM
A
.82 Mach
20
Q
Flap extension speeds
A
1- 230 kias 8- 230 kias 20- 220 kias 30- 185 kias 45- 170 KIAS
21
Q
Max landing gear extension
A
220 kias
22
Q
Max landing gear retraction
A
200 KIAS
23
Q
Max landing gear extension
A
220 KIAS
24
Q
Max turbulence penetration speed
A
280 KIAS/ .75 Mach which ever is slower
25
Max windshield wiper speed
250 KIAS
26
Max operating altitude
41,000 ft
27
Max airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing
8,000 ft
28
Max tire speed
195 KGS
29
Max altitude for extending flaps
15,000 MSL
30
What type of floatation equipment for passengers?
Seat cushions
31
What type of floatation equipment for flight attendants?
Life vests near their jumpseat
32
How many life vests in the flight deck?
3 one under CA and FO seat. One next to jump seat
33
Where do you find the minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch?
CFM chapter 4 cockpit safety inspection
34
Where are crew smoke goggles?
Either part of the mask or under the mask
35
Where are the 2 flight deck flashlights?
One behind each seat
36
What is the power for the emergency lighting system?
How long do they last
5 battery packs
Approximately 10 minutes
37
Where are the smoke detectors located
1 in fwd lav
1 in aft lav
2 in aft cargo compartment
3 in forward cargo compartment
38
What conditions would cause takeoff configuration warning?
```
Parking brake on
Autopilot on
Spoilers extended
Stab trim out of green range
Flaps not 8 or 20 degrees
Aileron trim not in green
Rudder trim not in green
```
39
Where is main battery?
Nose compartment
40
Where is APU battery?
Aft equipment bay
41
In MAG mode how long does it take the AHRS to initiate?
30 to 70 seconds
42
What is indicated if the green blowout disc is blown? What pressure does it happen?
Excessive pressure has occurred. 2800 psi
43
In DG mode how long does the AHRS system take to initialize?
10 to 11 minutes
44
Which source does the captain’s flight instruments receive pitot/static from?
#1 pitot static system on left side of the nose
45
What source do the FO’s flight instruments receive pitot/static from?
Pitot/static system #2. Pitot/static tubes on right side of the nose.
46
From which source does the ISI receive pitot/static from?
The standby pitot tube under captains side window and 2 alternate static ports on left and right side.
47
Definition of TAT?
The temperature of the air corrected for compressibility and friction caused by high speed.
48
In flight which pitot tubes are heated?
All are fully heated regardless of switch position
49
Is there a LOC and GS indication on the standby altitude indicator?
Yes referencing NAV 1
50
When and where will the radio altimeter appear?
0 to 2500 AGL indicated in green below the altitude tape
51
What does the speed trend vector indicate?
Predicted airspeed in 10 seconds if no changes are made
52
When and where will the Mach readout appear?
Appears when acceleration through .45 Mach. Disappears when decelerating through Mach .40. Appears above the airspeed tape.
53
What does the green line on the speed tape indicate?
1.27 vs based on current configuration. Not accurate at high altitudes
54
What happens when TOGA is pushed on the ground?
TO lateral mode
TO vertical mode
FMS aligns the aircraft at the end of the runway indicated on legs page.
Autopilot disengages
55
What does TO lateral mode do?
On the ground generates a wing level command. After takeoff, generates a heading hold command with a 5 degree bank limit using the heading existing at takeoff.
56
What does TO vertical mode do?
Generates an optimized pitch up altitude for takeoff
57
What happens when TOGA is pushed in flight?
GA lateral mode
GA vertical mode.
Missed approach is depicted on MFD.
Autopilot disconnects
58
What does lateral mode do?
Same as TO and follows heading flown when TOGA was pushed
59
What does GA vertical mode do?
Generates a 10 degree pitch up altitude
60
During precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by what altitude?
80ft. AGL
61
During single engine precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by?
110 ft AGL
62
When will autopilot automatically disconnect?
```
AP disc button pushed
AP ENG button on FCP
AP Disc switch bar pushed down
Stick shaker
TOGA button pushed
STAB trim manually operated
Wind shear warning, after 2 seconds
Excessive altitude
One or both FCCs fail
Both yaw dampers disc or fail
```
63
Max load on APU generator?
40 KVA
64
Max altitude for starting APU?
37,000 ft
65
Max altitude for APU operation?
41,000 ft
66
Max altitude for APU bleed extraction?
25,000 ft
67
Max speed with APU door open?
220 unless APU is running
68
What voltage is required before starting the APU?
22volts on both batteries
69
What does the main battery power during APU start?
APU ECU
70
What does APU battery power during APU start?
Cranking of the 28 vdc start motor
71
When will the AVAIL switch light illuminate?
99% RPM plus 2seconds
72
What is the 900 power plant number
CF34-8C5
73
What is the thrust rating without APR/ with APR?
13,560 lbs / 14,750 lbs
74
What is the max altitude for a windmill start?
21,000 ft MSL
75
Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power
2%
76
How much thrust from core air
20%
77
How much thrust from bypass air
80%
78
How many stages of compression?
10 stage axial flow compressor
79
What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box?
```
Engine driven fuel pump
IDG
Air turbine starter
Hydraulic pump
Oil pump
FADEC alternator
```
80
What is engine bleed air used for?
Air conditioning, pressurization, wing and cowl de-ice, and engine start
81
What stages of bleed air are used?
Normally 6th stage, 10th stage used when high demand. HPV valve opens
82
How many igniters on each engine?
2 A and B
83
What is the air pressure requirement provided by the operating engine to initiate a cross bleed start?
42 PSI to a max of 80% N2
84
When will APR arm on takeoff?
Engine speed within 8% of scheduled takeoff power, normal or flex
85
When will the APR system activate?
Thrust levers in TOGA, normal or flex scheduled, and N1’s differ by 15% or greater, or when thrust levers in max power detent
86
What occurs when the APR system activates?
The FADEC commands an increase in N1
87
What indication will we have of APR activation
Green APR icon on operating engine n1 gauge
88
If engine fails during go around will the APR system activate?
Yes
89
What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers?
Hydraulics
L reverser uses #1
R reverser uses #2
90
How are thrust levers deployed
Thrust levers must be at idle, the reverse thrust levers are raised by engaging the thrust reverse release triggers. A solenoid lock stops reverse thrust lever movement while the reversers deploy. Once deployed the lock releases and n1 may be increased by raising the reverse thrust levers
91
What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment?
The translating cowls move aft. The bypass air is redirected through cascade vanes which redirect the air forward.
92
What indications will be seen with normal thrust reverser deployment.
Green REV icon on N1 gauges
93
What happens when a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys?
The FADEC commands the thrust to idle on the effected engine
94
What are the indications of an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment?
Amber REV icon on N1 gauge and REV UNLOCKED caution light
95
When will the starter cut out on engine start?
50% N2
96
What are the engine starter cranking limits?
1st and 2nd attempt: 90 seconds on- 10 seconds off.
| 3rd thru 5th attempt 90 seconds on - 5 minutes off.
97
What are the dry motoring limits?
1st attempt - 90 sec on 5 minutes off
| 2nd thru 5th attempt - 30 seconds on 5 minutes off
98
What are the APU starter limits?
No more than 3 start attempts in one hour, 2 minute delay required between start attempts.
99
Min oil temperature for start?
-40 C
100
Max continuous oil temperature?
155 C
101
Max permissible oil temperature?
163 C 15 minutes max
102
Max oil consumption
.05 gallons/hr
103
Where do we check the oil quantity?
EICAS menu page
104
When should the oil capacity be checked?
3 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
105
When should the Engine oil level be replenished?
15 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
106
Max refill without dry motoring? Oil
2 quarts
107
How is the oil cooled?
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
108
How is fuel moved from the center tank to main tanks?
Transfer ejector pumps
109
How is fuel moved from the main tanks to the collector tanks?
Scavenge ejectors ( gravity line used as a backup)
110
How is fuel moved from the collector tank to the engine driven fuel pump.
Main ejectors (backed up by boost pumps)
111
What is the function of the electric boost pumps?
To provide fuel for engine start and to back up the main ejectors.
112
What is the max fuel imbalance for takeoff/all other phases.
300 for takeoff
800 for all other phases
113
When will the fuel system automatically begin transferring fuel?
200 lb imbalance
114
When are the boost pumps automatically energized?
Low pressure from the main ejectors, if the pumps are armed.
115
Where is bulk fuel temperature taken?
Right main tank
116
What is the minimum bulk fuel temperature for takeoff?
-30 C
117
What is minimum bulk fuel temperature during flight?
Above -40 C
118
How is fuel heated?
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
119
Minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff
5 C
120
What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has more than 500 lbs of fuel?
Each tank must have more than 4400 lbs
121
Which bus powers the refuel/defilement panel and SOV’s
APU battery direct bus
122
Normal pressure difference is?
8.5 psi
123
Max pressure differential?
8.7 psi
124
Max pressure differential during taxi, takeoff, and landing?
.1 psi
125
Max negative pressure differential?
-.5 psi
126
During single pack operation, what is max altitude?
Fl 250
127
What does the DISPLAY COOL or ARINC COOL caution messages mean?
Low airflow behind the screens or within the avionics rack
128
How many pressurization controllers?
2, PC1 and PC2
129
When do the pressurization controllers swap?
WOW plus 3 minutes, or if one fails the other takes over, or push manual twice
130
In auto mode, what is the cabin rate of climb and descent?
500 fpm climb and 300 fpm decent
131
When in manual mode, what range is controlled by the MAN RATE knob?
50 fpm to 3000 fpm, +- 1,000 fpm
132
CABIN ALT caution message message means?
Cabin altitude between 8,500 and 10,000 ft.
133
CABIN ALT warning message means?
Cabin altitude greater than 10,000 ft.
134
When will the CPAM automatically deploy the pax oxygen masks?
Cabin altitude greater than 14,000 ft
135
When will CPAM turn on the Fasten seatbelt sign?
Cabin altitude greater than 10,000 ft with switches in the Auto position
136
What is the source of heating for wing and cowl anti ice?
6th or 10th stage bleed air
137
How many fire detection loops are installed on each engine?
2, dual loops in parallel
138
How many firex bottles available for an engine fire?
2
139
What type of Halon is in the engine firex bottles?
Halon 1301 pressurized with dry nitrogen
140
What occurs when the ENG FIRE PUSH switch light is pushed?
Fuel SOV’s close, Hydraulic SOV’s close, Bleed air SOV’s close, generator is taken offline and appropriate squibs are armed
141
Can we blow both bottles into one engine if necessary?
Yes
142
How many fire loops in APU?
2, dual loops mounted in parallel
143
How many firex bottles are available for an APU fire?
1
144
What occurs during an unattended APU fire on ground?
APU ECU shuts down APU and 5 seconds later the APU bottle will discharge automatically.
145
What occurs during an APU fire in flight
APU ECU shutdowns the APU but pilots have to discharge the bottle
146
How many firex bottles for cargo smoke?
2, one is a slow release lasting about 60 minutes and other is a quick release
147
Location of Main battery?
Nose compartment
148
Location of APU battery?
Aft equipment bay
149
Max engine generator load?
40 KVA
150
Max APU generator load?
40 KVA
151
Max TRU load?
120 amps
152
Max permissible time for ground operations with battery power only? Why?
5 minutes because cooling fans for ED1 and ED2 are AC powered
153
How many TRU’s?
4
154
Where are TRU’s located?
Nose compartment
155
Main battery is rated to?
17 ampere hour/24 volts
156
APU battery is rated to?
43 ampere hour/24 volts
157
How many generators?
4, 2 engine, APU, and ADG
158
Function of TRU’s
Convert 115 volts AC to 28 V DC
159
How are TRU’s cooled?
Individual fans
160
Which buses powered when battery master is on?
Main battery direct bus, APU battery direct bus, DC battery bus
161
What controls the DC tie contractors?
DCPC DC power center
162
With the ADG deployed, what are the basis items that are powered?
AC essential bus, hydraulic pump 3b, flaps/slats, STAB trim channel 2
163
What is the ADG max load?
15 KVA
164
Normal hydraulic pressure
3000 psi
165
Hydraulic low pressure occurs at what pressure?
Less than 1800 psi
166
High hydraulic pressure occurs at?
3200 psi
167
What is normal hydraulic quantity?
45 to 85%
168
High hydraulic temperature occurs at what temp?
Greater than or equal to 96 C
169
The HYD HI TEMP caution indicates that hydraulic fluid is hot in what part of the system?
The reservoir
170
How many hydraulic pumps?
6 (3 full time, 3 part time)
171
When will hydraulic pressure relief occur?
Greater than or equal to 3750 psi
172
How is the main landing gear held in the up and down position?
Mechanical up and down locks
173
How is the nose gear help in the up and down position?
Over center mechanism
174
Which component monitors the position of the up locks, down locks, gear door position and wow sensors?
Proximity sensing electronic unit
175
Which component ensures that the gear handle cannot be moved to the up position on the ground?
Down lock solenoid
176
Which hydraulic system operates the inboard brakes?
#3
177
Which hydraulic system operates the outboard brakes?
#2
178
When does the Anti skid operate?
Wheel spin up equal or greater than 35 kits or WOW plus 5 seconds
179
Nose wheel steering limits
Steering on 80 degrees, rudder pedals 8 degrees
180
At what speed does anti skid stop working?
Wheel speed equal or less than 10 knots
181
When is cowl anti ice required to be on during ground operations?
OAT equal or less than 10 degrees C with visible moisture and on contaminated ramps, taxiways, or runways.
182
What is visible moisture?
Fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals
183
When is cowl anti ice required to be on during flight?
TAT is equal to or less than 10 degreesC in visible moisture ( except when SAT is equal to or less than -40C.). And when ICE is annunciated.
184
When is wing anti ice required to be on during ground ops?
OAT is equal to or less than 5 degrees C in visible moisture and on contaminated runways.
If type 2, 3, 4 deicing fluid applied, select wings on just prior to thrust increase for takeoff.
185
When is wing anti ice required to be on during flight?
TAT equal to or less than 10 degrees C in visible moisture, with airspeed less than 230 kias ( except when SAT equal to or less than 40 degrees C, or when ICE is illuminated.
186
What is a good ice detector test?
ICE caution message, the ICE switch light illuminated, ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message.
187
How are the ailerons, elevators, and rudder activated?
Yoke and rudder pedals operate a system of cables and pulleys that connect to pull and push rods at the flight control which operate a hydraulic power control unit which hydraulically actuates the control surface
188
What is the purpose of the multi function spoilers
To assist with roll control and serve as a spoiler in flight and on ground
189
How are MFS’s controlled when used for roll assistance?
The FO’s yoke position sends an electrical signal to the left MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs.
190
What is the flight deck indication of a jammed aileron cable?
Both yokes will be jammed
191
What happens after the ROLL DISC handle is pulled?
The aileron cable and pulley systems are disconnected through torque tubes. 20 seconds later, if the operable side has not been selected, the amber ROLL SEL switchlight illuminates.
192
What is the priority for STAB TRIM control?
Captain, first Officer, autopilot, MACH trim
193
What systems can operate the STAB TRIM
Ca’s trim switches, FO’s trim switches, autopilot and Mach trim.
194
How is stab trim operated?
The trim switches on the yoke operates two motors and a jack screw changing the horizontal stabilizer angle of incidence.
195
Is there any asymmetrical protection within the flaps?
Yes, if the flap segments disagree by more than 5 degrees the brakes are applied and the flaps will remain at the current position.
196
How many flap segments?
4 total, 2 each side
197
How are flaps operated?
Electrically
198
What controls yaw damper?
Flight control computer
199
How is yaw damper disengaged?
Disc button on center pedestal
200
How are flight controls gust locked?
Hydraulic fluid is trapped during shutdown
201
When ROLL DISC handle is pulled how is the operable side selected?
By pushing the ROL sel/plt rol switch light on the un jammed side.
202
What does selecting the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight accomplish?
Allows the pilot with the operable aileron to control the on side mfs panels
203
What is indication of aileron PCU runaway?
The aircraft begins an uncommanded roll and the PLT SEL switchlight on the side without the runaway illuminates because of the bungee breakout
