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Intro to Imaging Sciences and Patient Care > Study Guide Exam 3 > Flashcards

Study Guide Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Cathode

A

Negative

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2
Q

Anode

A

Positive

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3
Q

What is diagnostic yield?

A

Diagnostic Yield is the amount of clinically useful information on a certain diagnostic image

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4
Q

What is diagnostic efficacy?

A

Diagnostic Efficacy is the accuracy of the amount of information on a medical image.

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5
Q

What is automatic exposure control?

A

the x-ray machine terminates an x-ray exposure when it detects enough radiation in the AEC cells, which has improved the consistency of image quality.

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6
Q

What is manual collimation?

A

manually set the imaging field around the part of interest

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7
Q

What is automatic collimation?

A

when the machine automatically detects the size of the image receptor and collimates to a size not larger than the image receptor AKA positive beam limitation

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8
Q

What are the 2 types of X-ray tube support systems?

A

overhead and floor mounted

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9
Q

Features of a radiographic table

A

Radiographic tables usually have a 4-way floating table top and is highly radiolucent, there is also tilting radiograph tables that do not have variable height capabilities

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10
Q

what is x-ray production?

A

: As you “rotor”/prep/boost the tube (press the exposure switch half way down), you are prepping the x-ray tube to make an exposure. What happens is the anode (positive side) starts to spin at a high rate while the cathode (negative side) heats up to the selected milliamperage (mA) and electrons boil off. When the exposure switch is pressed all the way down, a large potential difference (kVp) is applied across both poles of the x-ray tube, causing the electrons to travel from cathode to anode at high speed, producing an x-ray when the electrons hit the target on the anode. Don’t “rotor” too much/too long it can damage the X-ray tube

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11
Q

Fluoroscopic tables

A

capable of static radiographic imaging as well as live, real time imaging. Complete system consists of an R/F table, image receptor, x-ray generator and control, ceiling mounted x-ray tube and video display monitor.

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12
Q

LIH

A

Last Image Hold: The radiologist can save the picture on the screen as an image
instead of re-radiating a patient (like a screenshot on your phone)

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13
Q

An X-ray tube that has positive and negative sides are called what?

A

a diode

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14
Q

The elastic of a girl’s sock shows on the image, if you submit the image anyways what would happen?

A

it detracts from diagnostic effect

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15
Q

To improve the flexibility of a radiographic system, engineers designed a system that do what?

A

they move independently of one another

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16
Q

Chest x-rays are conveniently performed with what?

A

An upright cassette holder or bucky

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17
Q

What is another term for a collimator?

A

Positive beam limitations

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18
Q

What can damage do the x-ray tube effect?

A

Repeat boosting on the table

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19
Q

What is the barrier on a radiographic/fluoroscopic system?

A

A flat panel detector/ input intensifier

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20
Q

Fluoroscopy of a fractured hip is accomplished with what?

A

A C-arm

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21
Q

mages done by a CT scanner is what plane of the body?

A

The axial plane

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22
Q

Nuclear medicine is unique in its ability to detect what?

A

Tissue profusion and metabolic activities

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23
Q

In sonography, as sound frequency increases what happens to the depth?

A

It decreases

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24
Q

What zone is the actual MRI room in?

A

Zone 4

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25
Q

Sources of radiation

A

natural/background and human-made/artificial

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26
Q

What is ALARA?

A

AS LOW AS REASONABLY POSSIBLE

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26
Q

WB effective dose

A

annual: 50 mSv (5 rem)
cumulative: age x 1 mSv

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27
Q

Pregnancy dose limits

A

monthly: 0.5 mSv (0.05 rem)
total: 5 mSv

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28
Q

How do we monitor occupational dose?

A

OSL dosimeter

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29
Q

Radiosensitivity of cells

A

cells are more sensitive during active division, when they are more primitive in structure and/or have a high rate of mitosis

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29
Q

What is indirect action?

A

Because cells are approximately 80% water, indirect action occurs when water molecules are ionized. This action produces chemical changes (free radicals) within the cell that alter the internal environment, injuring the cell, and can result in eventual cell death. With x-radiation and gamma radiation, the vast majority of cellular damage results from indirect hits.

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30
Q

Acute Radiation Syndrome stages

A
  1. Prodromal stage
  2. Latent Stage
  3. Manifest Illness
  4. Recovery
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31
Q

OSL dosimeters

A

Optically Stimulated Luminescence to determine an individual’s exposure, the aluminum oxide material inside the badge is stimulated by a laser light, the material will become luminescent (emit a light, get it? Optically stimulated luminescence?) proportional to the exposure level

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31
Q

X-ray Beam Filter
Remember that the x-ray beam from the tube is heterogeneous (different energy levels).

A

An aluminum filter is used to block/absorb low-energy photons from reaching the patient. Low energy photons would not penetrate the patient so the patient would just absorb those photons, thereby increasing the patient’s entrance skin dose)

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32
Q

Which radiation monitor can provide a near-immediate reading of occupational doses?

A

pocket dosimiter

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33
Q

Radiation from the sun is what?

A

Natural background radiation

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34
Q

Base limits of radiation workers is what?

A

Occupational dose

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35
Q

Nausea is associated with what?

A

Prenominal period

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36
Q

What is the Geiger Muller counter?

A

A Geiger counter, also known as the Geiger-Muller tube, is an inexpensive and useful instrument used to quickly detect and measure radiation.

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36
Q

What are the different interactions of radiations? (Compton, etc.)

A

Classic Coherent Scattering, Photoelectric Interactions, Compton Scattering, Pair Production, Photodisintegration

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37
Q

what is pharmacology

A

Science concerned with the origin, nature, effects and uses of drugs.

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38
Q

What is Pharmacokinetics?

A
  1. Absorption
  2. Distribution
  3. Metabolism
  4. Excretion
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39
Q

Generic Name

A

Name given to a drug when it becomes commercially available

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40
Q

Chemical Name

A

identifies the chemical structure of a drug

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40
Q

Trade Name:

A

Name given by a particular manufacturer to a drug

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41
Q

What is a contraindication?

A

A contraindication is a reason or circumstance in which a drug or procedure should not be used because it could be harmful

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42
Q

what are analgesics?

A

relieve pain and inflammation

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42
Q

What is a laxative?

A

Laxatives treat constipation by softening hard stools or stimulating your bowels to get moving

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43
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

used to treat bacterial infections

44
Q

What are antiemetics?

A

ease nausea and vomiting

45
Q

What are anticholinergics?

A

blocking the action of acetylcholine, anticholinergics prevent impulses from the parasympathetic nervous system from reaching smooth muscle and causing contractions, cramps or spasms.

46
Q

What are anesthetics?

A

put you asleep and keep you from feeling pain during procedures

47
Q

What are antiplatelet? s (what is a complication of taking these?)

A

decrease platelet aggregation

48
Q

What are antihistamines?

A

ease the pain of allergic reactions

48
Q

What are thrombolytics?

A

break up and dissolve blood clots

49
Q

What are antineoplastics?

A

used to treat cancer

50
Q

What does Nitroglycerin do?

A

Relieves chest pains

50
Q

What does Metformin do?

A

Maintains high blood sugar

50
Q

What is a PDR?

A

Physician’s Desk Reference

50
Q

What is Heparin used for and how is it administered?

A

It is a blood thinner that stops your blood from clotting. Absorbed through IV or injections

51
Q

Different methods of drug administration

A
  1. Topical
  2. Inhalation
  3. Oral
  4. Injection
  5. Rectal
  6. Sublingual
  7. parenteral
51
Q

What is a diuretic? What does it do?

A

Helps reduce fluid build up in the body

52
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

A substance that acts against and stops a reaction

53
Q

What is infiltration?

A

the localized fluid into a tissue

54
Q

What is extravasation?

A

a complication of a dislodged needle tip in an IV site both are often used interchangeably but know the difference.

55
Q

What is any characteristic that makes a drug undesirable called?

A

An indication

56
Q

Metformin is treatment for?

A

Type 2 diabetes

56
Q

What is the PDR?

A

Physician’s Desk Reference

56
Q

What drug is used for hypothyroidism?

A

Levothyroxine

57
Q

How are tablets oral and polymer coating absorbed?

A

Through the mucosal lining of the small bowel

57
Q

Patient Rights of Drug Administration

A
  1. Right drug
  2. Right amount
  3. Right patient
  4. Right time
  5. Right route
58
Q

Parenteral Administration

A

-ID: intradermal
-IM: intramuscular
-IV: intravenous
-SubQ: subcutaneous

59
Q

Parts of a Syringe

A

The tip, the barrel, the plunger

59
Q

IV Contrast injections

A

-where would we prefer to inject? Directly into the vein/ arm
-rapid or delayed reaction? Very rapid absorption
-needle size? Dependent upon drug viscosity, injection site, and injection method. 18-20g

59
Q

Needle gauge vs. Diameter

A

The higher the gauge, the smaller the diameter.

59
Q

ID

A

infectious disease

60
Q

IM

A

Intramuscular

60
Q

IV

A

Intravenous

60
Q

PRN

A

As needed

61
Q

STAT

A

immediately

62
Q

BID

A

twice a day

63
Q

What is the difference between an ampule and vial?

A

Ampoules are smaller and used to hold single-dose medicines, whereas vials tend to be larger

63
Q

What are the 5 rules of drugs?

A
  1. record the name of the drug
  2. record the route of administration
  3. record the amount of the drug administered
  4. record the date and time of administration
  5. record the patients interaction to the drug administered
64
Q

Injection given relies on what?

A

Parenteral right of administration

65
Q

f you accidentally poke yourself with a needle what do you do?

A

flood the area with water, clean with soap and water, and report the incident.

66
Q

What is a butterfly needle and what is it used for?

A

Used for blood drawing and is a winged infusion set—also known as “butterfly” or “scalp vein” set—is a device specialized for venipuncture:

67
Q

Purpose of Contrast Media?

A

help distinguish or “contrast” selected areas of the body from surrounding tissue

68
Q

contrast is classified as?

A

Negative or positive contrast agents

68
Q

What should you do if patient is wearing antishock garment?

A

Leave it on them if possible

68
Q

When can you remove a C-collar

A

never

69
Q

Common Recumbent Patient Positions

A
  1. Supine – flat on back
  2. Prone- on stomach
  3. Lateral- laying on either side
  4. Sims- leg up arm up
  5. Fowler- knees up, head up
69
Q

What is a pigg-o-stat in imaging?

A

A container you place an infant in with the arms to get a chest x-ray

70
Q

What is an inflatable air splint?

A

Used to immobilize a limb

71
Q

What is an Octo-stop and its purpose?

A

The patient can be rotated 360 degrees into 8 positions, it is limited to patients up to 1 year old

72
Q

Sheet restrains/mummification are used for what?

A

Immobilizing an infant

72
Q

Sever abdominal trauma patient with shock it is important to use a radiograph a patient with a what?

A

An antishock garment that they are already wearing

73
Q

Orthostatic Hypotension:

A

getting dizzy when you stand up too fast due to a sudden decrease in blood pressure

73
Q

What are the simple immobilization techniques?

A

Positioning sponges, sheets, sandbags. Velcro straps, cervical collars, sheet restraints tape, and spine boards

73
Q

How many people for cart to table lift?

A

Atleast 3

73
Q

Types of Transfers

A

wheelchair to table
standby assist
assisted standing pivot
two-person lift
hydraulic lift
cart/stretcher to table

73
Q

Base of Support, Center of Gravity:

A

spread your legs when you stand and keep objects you are lifting close to you

74
Q

How to properly lift patients: lift with your legs not your back!! Keep them close to you and place foot in front of theirs to keep them from sliding, go slow and communicate, pay attention and use patient’s strong side and let them do the work if they can

A

lift with your legs not your back!! Keep them close to you and place foot in front of theirs to keep them from sliding, go slow and communicate, pay attention and use patient’s strong side and let them do the work if they can

74
Q

Mobility vs. Stability muscles

A

mobility muscles are in your arms and legs

75
Q

which modality is most at risk for work related injuries?

A

Sonography

75
Q

work related injuries are mostly caused by?

A

Using the same muscles over and over again

76
Q

Know the rules for a 2 person lifts:

A

someone must call the transfer, controls timing of transfer, and synchronize the events.

76
Q

how can you prevent an injury?

A

Taking breaks and being cognizant of how you are working

77
Q

What is important when using a hydraulic lift to transfer a patient?

A

Return the patient with the sling under them.

77
Q

In a rolling motion transfer, what way should you roll the patient?

A

Towards you

77
Q

When transferring from a wheelchair to a table what is the number one rule?

A

Let the patient do as much of the work as possible if they can

77
Q

What is the ultrasound contrast lipoprotein metabolized by?

A

The liver

78
Q

What contrast is used for MRI?

A

Gadolinium

78
Q

What happens if you inject in an artery instead of a vein?

A

Delivery of certain medications via arterial access has led to clinically important sequelae, including paresthesias, severe pain, motor dysfunction, compartment syndrome, gangrene, and limb loss.

78
Q

How does contrast affect renal function?

A

it can stop it up and turn concrete if not drinking fluid

79
Q

ontrast Reactions?

A

Reactions vary in severity: Mild (eg, cough, itching, nasal congestion) Moderate (eg, dyspnea, wheezing, slight changes in pulse or blood pressure) Severe (eg, respiratory distress, arrhythmias such as bradycardia, seizures, shock, cardiopulmonary arrest)

80
Q

What is osmosis? How does it play a role in contrast?

A

It is the measure of the total numbure of particles in a solution per kilogram of water (osmolality). Ionic contrast are HOCM and Nonionic contrast is LOCM.

81
Q

what is the difference between single and double contrast?

A

In a single-contrast study, the colon is filled with barium. This outlines the intestine and shows large abnormalities. In a double-contrast or air-contrast study, the colon is first filled with barium, and then the barium is drained out. This leaves only a thin layer of barium on the wall of the colon.

82
Q

What does Nuclear Medicine use?- A specialty in radiology that uses radiopharmaceuticals to image nearly every part of the body. It doesn’t use dyes & there are virtually no side effects to any of the imaging agents.

A

A specialty in radiology that uses radiopharmaceuticals to image nearly every part of the body. It doesn’t use dyes & there are virtually no side effects to any of the imaging agents.

83
Q

What contrast is used for CT?

A

Iodinated intravenous contrast agents alter the CT image by increasing the density of enhanced structures. Organs, blood vessels, and so on, containing iodine attenuate a greater portion of the primary beam, thereby increasing their attenuation value.

83
Q

What are the five radiographic densities seen on radiographs?

A

air or gas, water, fat, mineral, and metal.

Intro to Imaging Sciences and Patient Care (1 decks)

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