Study Questions Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
How are the control surfaces mechanically operated?
A
Through a manual (unassisted) linkage ( standard bellcrank, push/pull rod, cable, pulley)
2
Q
What type of trim tabs do the ailerons incorporate and where are the tabs located?
A
Trailing edge of left aileron. Electrically operated by an actuator consisting of a 28 VDC electric motor. On 47 the right trim tab is mechanically geared to the left trim tab.
3
Q
How is elevator trim accomplished?
A
Electric trim motor. Moveable horizontal stabilizer.
4
Q
How is rudder trim accomplished?
A
Electric trim control. Located on PCL.
5
Q
Min prop clearance for nose tire inflated/deflated?
A
Inflated: 12.5 IN
Deflated: 1.9 IN
6
Q
Min turn radius?
A
33ft 6 in
7
Q
Steering range for nose gear?
A
With rudder 12 degrees. With brakes, 60 degrees.
8
Q
How are flaps operated?
A
Controllable electric selector operating an electric motor, 0, 15, 30, 40.
9
Q
What kind of flaps?
A
Fowler-type.
10
Q
What will cause red flap CAWS to annunciations?
A
Flap asymmetry of 5 degrees, twist of 2 degrees, flexible shaft failure.
11
Q
What type of gear? How is shock absorbed?
A
Tricycle retractable, hydraulically controlled and operated. Gear held in retracted position by hydraulic pressure. Lose pressure, gear will fall. Shock is absorbed through pistons in landing gear.
12
Q
What kind of brakes?
A
Hydraulically actuated single disc brake on onboard side of each wheel. Separate from aircraft hydraulic system. Whoever applied most pressure will control brakes between the two pilots.
13
Q
What kind of engine (model, turbine type, Hp)?
A
The engine is a Pratt and Whitney PT6A-67B. It is a lightweight, reverse-flow, free turbine, a compressor section having four axial stages and one centrifugal stage impeller, an annular reverse–flow combustion chamber. The engine is rated at 1600 SHP and is flat rated at 1200 shaft horsepower. Supplemental thrust in generated by engine exhaust (jet thrust) accounts for about 6% of total engine power.
14
Q
How many fuel nozzles and when do they operate?
A
There are 14 duplex type nozzles, with each nozzle incorporating a primary and secondary valve. During engine start the primary flow begins as soon as there is fuel pressure with the secondary flow kicking in above approximately 45% Ng. Without the secondary flow, the engine may hang at 40-45% NGduring start. For operations from normal idle through max power, all 14 nozzles function with fuel coming from both the primary and secondary valves.
15
Q
What is the maximum NG?
A
104% NG
16
Q
What speed does the power turbine turn?
A
29,894 RPM, 100% NF
17
Q
How is the power turbine speed reduced to propeller rotation speed?
A
The power turbine drives the propeller speed through a Reduction gearbox (RGB) at the front of the engine
18
Q
When is selection of Beta or reverse range prohibited?
A
During flight and anytime the engine is shutdown. The PCL is mechanically–linked to propeller hub and will bend and break with no oil lubrication.
19
Q
What is the minimum oil level for operation?
A
4 quarts low as indicated on the dipstick
20
Q
What is the normal oil level to operate?
A
2 quarts below max hot
21
Q
What critical element exists with regard to the oil dipstick (other than measuring oil level)?
A
The dipstick tube is a pressurized part of the oil system, so not properly securing the dipstick will result in oil loss and possible bearing/engine seizure.
22
Q
Can engine oil brands be mixed?
A
No; the oil type which is the BP 2380 Green Can.
23
Q
What is the oil capacity?
A
Total oil capacity is 14.5 US quarts
24
Q
When do you check the oil?
A
MAX HOT (10mins after shutdown) MAX COLD (12hrs after shutdown)
25
What is the one memory item need for an ENG FIRE CAWS alert?
PULL the ECS SHUT OFF handle
26
What percentage of the engine intake air is used for combustion and what for cooling?
Approx. 20% of intake air is used for combustion, 80% for cooling.
27
How does the Air Induction System work?
The engine air inlet is located at the front of the engine under of the propeller spinner. Ram air entering the inlet flows through ducting and an inertial separator system and then enters the engine through a circular plenum chamber where it is directed to the compressor by guide vanes. The compressor air inlet incorporates a screen which will prevent entry of large articles, but does not filter the inlet air.
28
What is the inertial separator and when is it used?
The Inertial separator system is used to prevent intake of FOD (foreign objects)/ice. Used during all taxi operations, precipitation, and when in visible moisture at temps below 10° C.
29
How does the inertial separator work?
Intake air is forced to take a hard turn before entering the compressor section. When the inertial separator is opened, the momentum of the objects causes them to not make the turn with the air, and they pass straight through the inertial separator channel out the side of the engine cowling.
30
What are the elements of the compressor bleed system (with regard to compressor surge
control), and how does the system operate?
Compressor bleed valve system operates between 86-92% Ng to prevent the axial compressor from overloading the centrifugal compressor at low RPM (the axial compressor is much more efficient at lower RPMs). The valve is located between the second and third axial stage (P2.5). P3 (3rd stage axial) air is conditioned (depressurized) into Px, which acts against the bypass valve to close the spring loaded valve as engine speed (and P3 pressure) increases. The spring loaded valve opens when engine speed comes below 92%, until it is fully opened at 86%. Also, some of the heated P2.5 air that is ducted out of the compressor section can be routed to the cabin and defroster for climate control during ground operations.
31
What is the path of fuel through the fuel system?
Main Tanks - Transfer Jet Pump - Collector Tank[boost pump] - delivery jet pump - maintenance shutoff valve - fuel filter (bypass) - air separator - low pressure switch - cabin firewall shutoff - engine driven low pressure pump (bypass) - fuel/oil heat exchanger - engine driven high pressure pump - filter (bypass) - FCU [PCL, MOR, Condition lever] - Fuel Flow Transducer - Fuel Flow divider (dump valve/EPA can) - 14 duplex nozzles.
32
What will happen if the ejector fuel pump fails?
When low fuel pressure is sensed (below 2.0 psi) and the Boost Pump switch is in the NORM position; the electric (fuel) boost pump will automatically engage (the FUEL PRESS annunciator will illuminate).
33
How is freezing of water in the fuel prevented?
By an oil to fuel heat exchanger, which routes hot oil into the exchanger via a heat sensing mechanical bypass valve.
34
What will occur if there is a blockage in the fuel filter?
A red button will extend above the top of the fuel filter facing the bay door, indicating the filter is being bypassed. This has a preset to open at a pressure of 8 PSI. Maintenance will reset the button once the issue is resolved.
35
What happens to the excess fuel in the system when the fuel condition lever is moved to cutoff?
Both the primary and secondary fuel distribution manifolds close, and the P3 air forces the fuel into the combustion chamber where it is burned off.
36
What are the electrical sources?
A 24VDC, 24V / 42 amp-hour lead acid battery; 28VDC, 300--amp starter/generator; 115 amp standby alternator.
37
Where and how is ITT measured?
ITT is measured between the power and compressor turbines with a resistance thermocouple ITT sensor. (T-5)
38
At what measured tank level do the FUEL LOW lights come on?
When the respective tank runs to below approximately 20 gallons. 2 per tank, low point of the main tanks, and the high point of the collector tank
39
What are the starter time limits?
Sequence, 60 seconds off, sequence, 60 seconds off, then sequence followed by 30 minutes off.
40
What minimum battery voltage is required for a battery start, and a GPU start?
24 volts for battery (fully charged battery), and 1000 amps with GPU.
41
What is the approximate Ng for engine start?
Stabilized at or above 13% Ng
42
What is the function of the FCU (Fuel control unit)?
The FCU determines the correct fuel schedule to produce desired engine power in response to the Power Control Level (PCL) and Condition lever movement during normal operations, or MANUAL OVERRIDE (MOR) lever movement during emergency operations.
43
What does a red annunciator lamp indicate?
A hazardous condition requiring immediate corrective action
44
What does a yellow lamp indicate?
A cautionary condition exists which requires either attention or action as able
45
What does a green lamp indicate?
A normal or safe condition or operation of equipment
46
What does the DAY/NIGHT switch do?
It connects the variable intensity dimming for all the Green and some of the Amber annunciator lights to the ENG INST rheostat when operated in the NIGHT setting.
47
What doors are annunciated as open with a DOOR WARNING light?
The passenger and cargo doors only
48
What do the turbine guide vanes do?
They ensure that the exhaust gasses impinge the turbine blades at the optimal angle in order to capture the maximum amount of energy.
49
What is the normal engine rpm/Ng speed?
1200 rpm at the propeller and 101.6% or 33,000 rpm in the gas generator
50
How does the FCU (through power control manipulation) control fuel flow?
FCU-Power levers act upon a pneumatic bellows which only increase or decrease the amount of fuel flow at a given rate (prevents runaway in the fuel supply delta for the turbine engine). P3 air acts upon the Ng governor (which conditions the P3 air to Py pressure) and the bellows to increase (or decrease) fuel flow as the power setting is altered, allowing P3 pressure to change, changing Py and pressure on the bellows.
51
How does the Manual Override Lever operate?
In the event of a pneumatic FCU failure the MOR is used to mechanically control the fuel supply to the engine. Be careful with the lever, as it can overstress the engine if power changes are made to rapidly.
52
If you accidentally move the condition lever to cutoff when on the ground, what action should
you take?
Do not attempt to reintroduce fuel as this could lead to an engine overheat. You should dry motor the engine to cool it down prior to attempting a normal start.
53
Why is rotation of the propeller not desirable after the engine is shut down?
It can cause injury, and oil pressure is supplied via the gas generator, so insufficient lubrication of the power section occurs with the engine shut down.
54
What does the condition lever do?
It controls the minimum Ng % when the power lever is in the idle position, by mechanical linkage to a control rod located within the FCU.
55
What is the normal operating (green) range of Propeller RPM?
1200-1700 RPM
56
What is the prop deice cycle?
Only two opposing propeller blades at one time, heating lasting about 45 seconds or 90 seconds
57
What can happen if the bleed heat air is left on during an engine start?
A hot start and/or High ITT and/or High Fuel Flow
58
What is the minimum amp GPU to be used for engine start?
1000 amps
59
What is P3 air used for (other than to the FCU and Compressor Bleed Air Valve)?
P3 air is used to provide suction to vacuum gauges, pressurize the deice boots, and heat the cabin in the air.
60
What is the first indication when the prop transfers from Beta to reverse range?
As you transition from Beta to reverse you will hear/see a power increase
61
Describe the different governors controlling propeller RPM.
The primary governor regulates the supply of engine oil to the pitch
change mechanism within the prop hub. The governor is shaft-driven via the bevel gear fitted to the propeller shaft and is thus sensitive to changes in prop rotational speed (Np).
Nf Governing section/Fuel Topping Governing, limits the fuel flow using the FCU. Using an airbleed lever, a Py bleed orifice and lever, and a reset arm.
Propeller Overspeed Condition when Np exceeds 1700PRM, oil beings to be forced back through the bore of the governor back into the reduction gearbox sump.
62
What is the oil capacity?
14.5 quart capacity—normal range is within 2 quarts of max hot within 10 minutes of shut down.
63
How many igniters are in the engine and what is the NORM position for them?
Two igniters controlled by an ignition switch on the left side panel. NORM arms the igniters to turn on during the start cycle.
64
What is the maximum fuel imbalance for flight?
178 lbs. 3 LCD bars
65
Approximately how many gallons of Jet A in 100 pounds?
15 gallons per 100 pounds of fuel, or 6.7 lbs./gal.
66
What does the fuel boost switch operate?
The fuel boost pump switch operates the electric auxiliary boost pump located in the Collector Tanks
67
Describe the lubrication system.
The oil system is a closed loop, dry sump with a single pressure element system that provides cooling and lubrication to engine bearings and the accessory gearbox. The oil system also provides heating to the fuel, as well as oil to the torque limiter and meter. Oil cooling is fully automatic, with the oil/fuel heat exchanger located between the reduction gearbox and the oil tank, along with a ram air oil cooler by the prop spinner and nose gear flap.
68
How does the Chip Detector operate?
A magnetic open circuit is located in the reduction gearbox and accessory gearbox oil assemblies. If metal particles in the oil close the circuit, a warning will be annunciated. Land ASAP
69
When should a start be aborted due to an overheat condition?
Ng 104%, 1700RPM, 1000 ITT
70
What will happen if the amperage available does not meet the amps being drawn?
If you overdraw amps the voltage will decrease—equipment can handle this down to a certain level (approximately 18V).
71
Describe the different electrical annunciations and what they indicate.
GEN 1 OFF light for a main generator failure, and GEN 2 ON indicates the alternator is covering all or part of the load. When on battery power (or when the voltage dips below 24.5 volts) the VOLTAGE LOW annunciator illuminates (almost always indicates electrical load is off the battery).
72
In the event of a double generator failure, how long can the battery(ies) supply power?
20 minutes for loads under 60 amps, 30 minutes for loads under 50 amps. Double for aircraft with two batteries.
73
What happens to the starter generator as Ng accelerates?
Starter cutoff occurs at 50%. If becomes a generator once you turn the generator switch on.
74
Describe the Volt/Ammeter gauge selections and indications.
There is a separate Volt/Ammeter for each generator located on the EIS. The battery volt/ammeter is located on the overhead panel.
75
What indication exists if the nose gear tow limits were exceeded?
Shear pin block on the nose gear will break if the tow exceeds tow limit angle.
76
What flight instruments are Pitot--Static driven?
Airspeed Indicators, altimeters and vertical speed indicators.
77
What flight instruments are Gyroscopic driven?
Electronic attitude directional indicators and the horizontal situation indicators.
78
What concern is there with moisture contamination in the static system?
There are dual static ports on each side of the rear empennage; the pilot and copilot side gauges are cross-plumbed to one from each plate. If one side is blocked, it will take data from the other side. Pitot static system-static port is located on the rear empennage—watch for moisture entering the static port—use pitot heat anytime you are in visible moisture. (IMC, rain or clouds)
79
What is the basic engine failure procedure?
In an emergency: (ABC) Airspeed – Best Glide
Best place to land (navigate) Checklists (troubleshoot)
----Basic checklist: (FBI)
1) Boost pumps is selected on
2) Ignition on (before Ng drops below 50%)
3) Exercise power lever
if none of these works utilize MOR
if none of these restores power, Idle/feather/cutoff.
80
What is the initial response to an engine fire annunciation?
PCL to minimum acceptable according to flight situation, ECS Emergency shutoff-PULL, O2 Masks-ON
81
What redundancy exists for the engine driven fuel pump?
There is no redundancy for an engine driven fuel pump failure—the auxiliary pump does not put out enough PSI
82
Other than for a failure of the generator, what else may a GENERATOR OFF annunciation indicate?
The generator may be off due to the start switch being inadvertently engaged.
83
What is required to operate Part 135 in a terminal area IFR?
Need communications, weather, and approved approach procedure to operate part 135 terminal IFR.
84
When can you go IFR to an airport without a dedicated weather reporting station?
When there is an approved FAA Weather Observer present at the airport.
85
What approach procedure is not allowed for Boutique Airlines?
NDB and Contact approaches are not approved.
86
What three requirements are there to proceed to a landing from an IAP?
3 things to land----normal descent to an approach, flight visibility, and runway environment in sight
87
When must you file an alternate on a 135 flight plan?
Per 135.223, if the destination ceiling is less than 1,500’ above the lowest circling MDA approach (into Albuquerque that would be 2,000’AGL). If no circling approach, ceiling less than 1,500 above lowest published minimums or 2,000’ above field elevation whichever is higher and visibility less than 3SM or 2SM more than the lowest visibility minimums whichever is greater.
88
What does C055 of the op spec define?
It prescribes the alternate weather minimums needed to list an airport as an alternate. 200/1/2SM, 400/1SM rule
89
What are the minimums to list a VFR (no published IAP) airport as required on an IFR flight plan?
You cannot file a VFR airport as an alternate because you are required in C055 to apply ceiling and visibility to applicable approach minimums, and VFR (no IAP) airports have no minimums to add the values to.
90
What takeoff requirements apply to IFR flight?
Standard takeoff minimums apply to single engine airplanes (1 SM reported). If minimums are standard for the airport, then you can use the lowest authorized CAT I minimum for the airport. Touchdown zone RVR (for RVR reporting) is controlling for the minimum visibilities if reported. If nonstandard takeoff minimum is greater than standard (1SM), then the nonstandard minimum is controlling.
91
When do you need an alternate to the takeoff airport?
If the visibility required for takeoff is lower than lowest approach minimums you are not allowed to depart.
92
What is the procedure for a go-around from a circling approach?
If you go around on a circling approach you do not have to execute the missed approach as long as it is not due to loss of airport—you can remain in the pattern and try again.
93
What is required for IFR operations into a Class G airport?
Requires CTAF or equivalent, approved source of weather, and an IAP
94
What action may a pilot take with regards to (M) MEL items?
For MEL deferral items that are (M) items (indicates maintenance item), you can accomplish the deferral action only in compliance with op specs and with verbal clearance by the DOM or ADOM.
95
What requirement is there for briefing cards?
Make sure that each seat is supplied with an approved briefing card in good condition.
96
What is the status for equipment failures that are not covered in the MEL?
If broken equipment is not on an MEL, the airplane is grounded, and a ferry permit is required if the aircraft needs to be repositioned in order to get fixed.
97
If an MEL exists for the airplane, but the airplane is flown under part 91, can you fly the aircraft based upon the 91.205 equipment requirements?
No. If an MEL is supplied for aircraft operations, it supersedes 91.205.
98
When must an approach be stabilized with final flap settings?
Stabilized approach prior to 500’ HAA in VFR with final flap settings and stabilized power and flight path, 500’ or MDA for circling, and 1,000’ HAT for straight in IFR
99
What ops specs certify the electronic flight bag?
A046
100
What is the policy with regards to interruptions during checklists?
Start over unless you are certain of where you left off (i.e. you have your finger on the last item called out).
101
What are the duty time rules for flight under 135 for scheduled operations?
34 hours in any 7 consecutive days; 1200 and 120 per year/month.
Flight time(block time) is the time the aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose for flight, and flight occurs, to the time the aircraft stops at the ramp.
You cannot be scheduledfor more than 8 hours flight time in any given shift.
For less than 8 hours of flight time in the preceding 24 hours, you must have had 9 consecutive hours worth of rest.
For 8 to less than 9 hours flight in the last 24 hour period, you need 10 consecutive hours of rest. For more than 9 hours flight time, you need 11 consecutive hours of rest.
Make sure that you look at the regs and record your time off duty to ensure you can calculate the legalities. Watch out on the above for duty times (the flight restriction can be in compliance while the 24 hour rest period may not be).
102
When are you not required to brief passengers prior to a flight?
If you don’t pick up any additional passengers after a stop through flight, you don’t have to rebrief the passengers.
103
What is the cruise climb airspeed?
Cruise climb of 140 kts.
104
What is the holding airspeed and briefing requirements?
Hold at 150 KIAS, and PF should brief it.
105
What is the maximum tailwind component?
Max tailwind is 10 knots.
106
If parked for more than 1 hour, how should the aircraft be configured?
When parked for more than 1-hour flaps should be up and the prop should be anchored, O2 off, and Separator closed.
107
What mode should the MFD be run in during night and IMC?
During flight operations at night and in IMC run the MFD in terrain mode.
108
What rate should descents be planned for?
Plan descents for 1,500-3000 FPM.
109
What should be monitored on the number 2 radio?
Company frequency, except for obtaining ATIS, etc...
110
Do Part 91 ferry flights count towards crew times?
Yes and no. You can over-fly Part 91 flights as a crew, but you must include the flight to the required rest timetable before flying again under 135.
111
What are the altitude limitations for the KFC325 autopilot?
1000’ AGL
| 200’ AGL for precision approach with working radar altimeter
112
What visual reference do you need for a circle to landing maneuver?
You need the airport (not the runway) in sight to continue past the MAP. To descend below MDA you must have the landing runway environment in sight.
113
Vr
Flaps 15: 79/81
| Flaps 30: 73/75
114
Vso
64/66
115
Vs1
91/93
116
Vx
110
117
Vy
120
118
Va
10450: 163 (47)
9921: 158
5730: 120
119
VLe
236
120
VLo
177
121
Vfe
<15: 163
| >15: 130
122
Vref
Flaps 0: 118/120
Flaps 15: 98/100
Flaps 30: 89/91
Flaps 40: 84/86
123
Nne
236
124
Mmo
.48
125
Red line
236
126
Green arc
91/93-236
127
White arc
64/66-130
128
Residual icing and failure of the following:
Pneumatic boots: 134/140
AOA sensor: 108/111
Pitot-static heat: 108/111
129
Altitude limitations
Max operating: FL 300
Max op single pilot: FL250
Max operating VCCS: FL 250
- (company limit 6000 MSL)
130
Pressurization limitations
Normal cabin differential: 5.75 PSI
Safety valve operation: 6.35 PSI
Max cabin differential: 6.5 PSI
131
Fuel info
Total capacity: 406.8 gal
Usable: 402 gal
Max imbalance: 178 lbs (3 LCD)
132
Max weights:
Ramp: 9965/ 10495
Takeoff: 9921/ 10450
Landing: 9921
Zero fuel: 9039
