Study These Flashcards
(102 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following ranks, rate, grades, or positions do not need further approval to have a DG created?
A
E7-E10, GS12-GS15, CWO2-4, SES, 03-010, Unit CO, Unit XO, OIC and XPO
2
Q
what does auto attendant assume if a caller does not enter a response for the menu block?
A
It assumes that they are use a rotary phone
3
Q
What type of sanitization is destroy?
A
Renders target data infeasible by state of the art laboratory and cannot use media for storage
4
Q
Mens bulk hair may not exceed how many inches?
A
1 1/2 inches
5
Q
what is an application?
A
An application is a set of functions( such as announcements, menus, and transfers) that determine the way Avaya call Pilot treats a call
6
Q
what raid uses mirror and duplicated one drive to another drive and used for fault tolerance?
A
Raid 1
7
Q
All label of telecommunications components shall be in accordance with?
A
ANSI/TIA-606 series
8
Q
what us 1 RU?
A
1.75 inches
9
Q
when does a standard user account get disabled?
A
45 days
10
Q
How do you remotely install an image?
A
Orion-D
11
Q
What is am emergency build pushed by SCCM?
A
MAN
12
Q
What image pushed from SCCM requires user interaction?
A
RAD
13
Q
Patch cable color for dirty net?
A
pink
14
Q
Patch cable color for medical(not connected to CGOne)?
A
Orange
15
Q
Patch cable color for special circuits?
A
Green
16
Q
Patch cable color for public address?
A
Gray
17
Q
What load do you need to be in to perform a backup?
A
LD 43
18
Q
What load do you need to be in to configure D-channel?
A
LD 17 to verify? LD22
19
Q
Patch cable for voice (non-voip)?
A
White
20
Q
Patch cable color for JWICS?
A
Yellow
21
Q
What load do you need to be in to configure D-channel?
A
LD 73
22
Q
Patch cable for SIPRNet?
A
Red
23
Q
What is the color of patch cable for CGOne?
A
Blue
24
Q
What windows command opens the network connection window?
A
ncpa.cpl
25
What load do you need to be in to configure trunk data block?
LD 14
26
What is required for shore-side classified connection?
LC Keyed and Color-coded
27
What is a Block?
a block represents a specific function in an application
28
What defines the magnetic field necessary to reduce a magnetically saturated magnetization to zero?
Coercivity
29
What shoudl copper patch panels be limit to?
48 Ports
30
When creating a new application what must you assign it?
A unique file name and ID
31
What should be considered the primary solution over copper for new campuses?
Fiber to the desk (FTTD)
32
What is the default selection for both security and distribution groups?
Global
33
What happens if a caller enters a response during the menu block but not during the thru-dial block?
It follows the path for no response output
34
What is the initial amount of time for TAD account is good for?
30 days
35
What type of fiber connections are supported?
SC or ST duplex connector for shore-side Unclassified installations
36
Who approves TAD accounts?
CG-651
| office of cybersecurity policy
37
A minor Fiber cable pathway consists of how many cables?
7 individual cables or less
38
What is the total length allowed for all patch cords and jumpers?
10m (33ft)
39
What is the minimum amount of work area outlets(WAO)?
Minimum of two 4-pair cables
40
What does clear sanitization do?
Applies logical techniques to sanitize data, rewriting with new value, or reset device to factory reset
41
What two types of accounts are there?
Generic and Functional Accounts
42
What is the max allowable characters for distribution group?
50
43
What is the RJ-45 568A pin-pair position?
Pair1: pins 4&5 BL/WBL, Pair2: Pins 3&6 WO/O, Pair 3 Pins 1&2 WG/G, Pair 4 7&8 WBR/BR
44
What is the Cryptographic Erase (CE)?
Leverages the encryption of target data be enabling sanitization of the targets data encryption key
45
Where is all Cat5e cabling terminated at?
Data cabinet/Telecommunications closet using Cat5e, 110 type Insulation displacement Contact (IDC) to 8 position T568-A
46
What is the only system that is allowed to have braided cabled punched down to a 66 block?
Speaker cable associated with a standardized PA installation
47
What is the uniform of the day?
Service Dress Blues (SDB) or Tropical Blue
48
How many days does a user have to complete the federal cyber awareness challenge after their command has been notified?
10 business days
49
What load do you need to be in to configure route data block?
LD 16
50
How big can a Man's tie tack be?
No more more than 3/4 inches in diameter
51
What is the minimum permissions do you need to publish printers to Active Directory?
Tier 2
52
What degree does the coupled connector sit?
45
53
What Load do you need to be in to configure Digital outlook?
LD 17 to verify? LD 22
54
What load do you need to be in to install a phone?
LD 20
55
What fiber color should not be terminated at the patch panel?
Slate and White strands
56
What are 3 components of Commvault?
Commserve, MediaAgent, idataAgent
57
What is the Coast Guard wiring standard?
568-A
58
What is the target time frame for an account creation?
72 hours
59
What is the minimum amount of time you must maintain an AIS form on file?
24 months
60
What does the Field Service Division(FSD) lead?
Oversea's BCD's and ESD's
61
How wide can a man's tie bar be?
3/16 inches wide
62
What raid fills up one hard drive then moves to another after it is full?
Spanning
63
What raid uses parity to reload a hard drive that has failed?
Raid 5
64
What type of shore tie does the USCG use?
Belden's 9380, 18 gauge stranded 6 pair cable
65
What is the third plug used for on NSC's?
Voice Circuits
66
What must be done before callers can dial an application?
Add it to the SDN list and test it
67
What is the minimum permission you need for a group policy object creation/change?
Tier 4
68
What is the callpilots web address?
http://CPBX/cpmgr
69
What is the shore-side configuration?
4 dedicated copper C4&IT shore tie receptacles and 2 future fiber optic receptacles (Delphi Hermaphroditic 12-CH receptacles)
70
What pins are dedicated to CGone on a shore tie plug?
Pins 9-12
71
What component of CommVault is located at eash district?
MediaAgent
72
When does the standard user account get de-provisioned?
60 days
73
What is the minimum amount of spare pairs for backbone/riser cable?
50%
74
When does a standard account get deleted?
180 days
75
How many voice circuits are dedicated to a shore tie plug?
4 voice circuits, pins 1-8
76
What does the Enterprise Systems Infrastructure(EISI) manage?
Endpoints, workstations, servers, software, standard image, EU's, and system administrators
77
What type of shore tie plug does the USCG use?
Russel Stoll SKwP12XG
78
What raid expands the disk size?
Raid 0
79
What is the call pilot server built on?
Intelligent Peripheral Equipment(IPE) takes up slots of the option 11 cabinet or MG1010 chasis
80
What is automatic call distribution (ACD)?
Call server feature that receives incoming calls, places them in queues and the routes them to next available agent
81
What type of earrings can women wear?
4-6,, ball studs (1/8-1/4 inch)
82
What is the maximum pull tension of a 4-pair twisted cable?
Shall not exceed 110n/ 24.7lbs
83
What is the minimum inside bend radius of a 4-pair balanced twisted pair?
4 times cable diameter
84
What is the maximum length of a computer name in active directory?
15 characters
85
What is callpilot manager?
Web-based application used to connect to a callpilot server
86
Women's bulk hair may not exceed how many inches?
3 inches
87
What is the maximum spacing between J-hooks?
5 feet
88
What is the default mailbox number and passcode for callpilot manager?
Mailbox number 000000
| Passcode 123478
89
What two types of hardware platforms support the call pilot system?
Callpilot 600r server/ callpilot 1005r server
90
What slots can the callpilot 2 slot care be installed in?
Slots 1 through 9/0 or 10 not permitted
91
what PBX switches are the call pilot IPE circuits cards designed or?
Meridiam 1 PBX (CS1000E and CS1000M)
92
What do you do after all 3 cd's have been copied to the server harddrive?
Insert the boot disk
93
How many cables are considered a minor pathway?
16 individual 4-pair cables or less
94
What is the maximum supported weight of a J-Hook?
2.2 LBS
95
What should a Fiber Patch Panels be limited to?
72 Ports
96
What must you complete after you set the raid?
BIOS is configured
97
How many days after the initial account creation do you have to complete the federal cyber awareness challenge?
96 hours
98
What does the Enterprise Network Infrastructure (ENI) manage?
Networks, Switches, Firewalls, and Routers
99
Per TISCOMS published guidance all standard users are given what amount of exchange mailbox storage?
500MB
100
Risk Management assists commanders/leaders by??
a. Enhancing mission accomplishment.
b. Supporting risk assessment when analyzing and comparing courses of action. Providing assessment tools to support operations.
c. Enhancing decision-making skills based on a reasoned and repeatable process.
d. Providing improved confidence in unit capabilities. Adequate risk analysis provides a clearer picture of unit readiness.
e. Protecting personnel, materiel systems, and related support equipment while avoiding unnecessary risk.
f. Providing an adaptive process for continuous feedback through the planning, preparation, and execution phases of operations.
g. Identifying feasible and effective control measures where specific standards do not exist.
101
Risk Management does not?
a. Replace rational and sound decision making.
b. Inhibit the commander’s and leader’s flexibility, initiative, or accountability.
c. Remove risk altogether, or support a zero defect mindset.
d. Sanction or justify violating the law.
e. Remove the necessity for rehearsals, tactics, techniques, and procedures.
f. Override or supersede compliance with federally mandated Department of Defense (DoD), OSHA standards, federal environmental cleanup standards, military service standards/criteria, or any risk-based statutory and regulatory requirements that apply and dictate the outcome of such requirements. The specific military services do not have authority to grant exemptions and waivers for statutory and regulatory requirements that have risk related exposure elements or standards. All other waivers, variances, or change requests must be properly vetted through appropriate agencies for approval. In addition, the RM does not sanction or justify violations of any law.
102
The RM process consists of what 5 steps?
1. Identify Hazards
2. Assess Hazards
3. Develop controls and make decisions
4. Implement controls
5. Supervise & Evaluate
