Subtask: 10.1.27 Recite Aircraft Memory Items

Question 1

Give an example of a threat that has a dedicated memory item but does not
trigger an EICAS message?

Answer 1

Fumes
 ENG Abnormal Start
 Flight control jam/malfunction
 Trim runaway

Question 2

What is meant by the term non-annunciated?

Answer 2

Procedures which are not related to an EICAS message but rather to
a condition present in the airplane.

Question 3

List four of the seven conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the
start.

Answer 3

 No positive oil pressure within 10 seconds after N2 speed starts to
increase,
 No N1 before starter cutout (50%N2).
 No ITT within 30 seconds after initiation of fuel flow
 ITT exceeds start limit(815deg C-HOT)
 Oil pressure stabilizes below engine limits
 N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed(hung start)
 An intermittent electrical pneumatic or start malfunction occurs
before the starter disengagement.
(SOPM CH 4, ENGINE START ABNORMAL ENGINE START INDICATION)

Question 4

What is always the priority in any emergency? When should checklists be
called for?

Answer 4

 Flying the airplane is always the priority in any emergency.
Checklists should only be called by the PF after the flight path is
under control, critical phases of flight (takeoff and landing) have
ended and all memory items have been accomplished.
[ERJ QRH INTRO – CHECKLIST OPERATION]

Question 5

Describe the MEAN acronym as defined in the ERJ SOPM.

Answer 5

 The priority for handling an emergency/abnormal situation M.E.A.N
[ERJ SOPM CH 5 – EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PROTOCOL]

Question 6

Are all emergency procedures that an ERJ crew must commit to memory
found on the QRC?

Answer 6

 NO
o Rejected takeoff
o Windshear
o EGPWS Escape
o TCAS
o Etc.

Question 7

Describe the actions and callouts of a Rejected Takeoff.

Answer 7

 See [SOPM CH 4 – REJECTED TAKEOFF – ACTIONS and CALLOUTS]

(FO)
“* Monitor airplane
deceleration status
* Verify reverse thrust
* Cancel any aural warnings
* Call out:
“80 KNOTS”
* Advise ATC”

Question 8

Why are some EICAS messages inhibited during takeoff including nearly all
CAUTION MESSAGES?

Answer 8

 To prevent from being a nuisance
[AOM VOL 2 Warning System – EICAS MESSAGES INHIBITION]

Question 9

Does the SOPM direct crews to reject a takeoff for caution messages?

Answer 9

 NO – “If we have an ENGINE FAILURE OR EMERGENCY prior to V1
we will execute a rejected takeoff procedure…”
[ERJ SOPM CH 3]

Question 10

With the EICAS presentation, why are Aural Warnings necessary?

Answer 10

 Aural Warnings are used when pilots need immediate knowledge
without having to look at a visual display or indicator.
[AOM VOL 2 Warning System – AURAL WARNING]

Question 11

What is significant about a Voice Message, i.e. SINKRATE, TRAFFIC, et

Answer 11

 Voice messages are generated whenever a potentially dangerous
condition exists.
[AOM VOL 2 Warning Systems – VOICE MESSAGES]

Question 12

Speaking of Voice Messages - what item(s) trigger a Takeoff Configuration
Warning when thrust is applied?

Answer 12

 Flaps not in takeoff position
 Flaps position is not in agreement with the flaps position selected in
the FMS takeoff page 2/2.
 Parking brakes are applied
 Pitch trim is out of green range
 Any spoiler panel deployed
[AOM VOL 2 Warning Systems – VOICE MESSAGES]

Question 13

What are some contributing factors as to why pilots attempt takeoffs with only one engine running?

Answer 13

 Contributing Factors:
o ATC late runway / clearance changes.
o Operational pressure. Pilots indicated they needed to slow
down to catch the single engine configuration error.
o Ineffective application of before takeoff configuration
check(list).
o Rapidly changing weather.
o Complex SID related distractions.
 Root Cause(s) – SkyWest Safety Department:
o Ineffective checklist discipline and the failure to recognize
threats related to technology / distractions and effectively
apply TEM.

Question 14

After the completion of a rejected takeoff when can the airplane exit the runway?

Answer 14

 The airplane remains on the runway until it is absolutely clear that
an emergency evacuation is not necessary and the entire scenario
analyzed.
[ERJ SOPM CH 4 – RTO]

Question 15

Describe a Windshear Warning’s actions and callouts.

Answer 15

Windshear escape maneuver due to EGPWS announcement
When a windshear warning is encountered:
* Advance thrust levers to MAX and press the TOGA button;
* Follow flight director guidance;
* Do not change flaps or landing gear configuration until out of the windshear condition and
terrain clearance assured;
* Reduce thrust to climb power, retract landing gear and slats/flaps when the airplane is out of
the windshear condition.
NOTE: PM states “CLIMBING” or “DESCENDING” based upon VSI indication until the
aircraft has returned to a safe airspeed and altitude.
When the Caution/Warning WSHEAR indicator on the PFD disappears, the PM states
“WINDSHEAR WARNING GONE” or “WINDSHEAR CAUTION GONE.”
When the radar altimeter indicates less than 1,000 ft AGL and the airplane is descending, the
PM calls “DESCENDING (___)” based upon the RA value observed.
For example:
“DESCENDING 700,” “DESCENDING 600.”
Windshear escape maneuver without EGPWS announcement

Question 16

How will selecting LLVL WIND SHR in ACARS affect performance?

Answer 16

 T/O 1, Optimized Flap setting.
[ERJ SOPM CH 4 – WINDSHEAR]

Question 17

Describe the EGPWS Escape procedure actions and callouts.

Answer 17

[ERJ SOPM CH 4 APPROACH – EGPWS]
(PF)
* Disengage the autopilot
* Simultaneously advance thrust
levers to MAX position and set
pitch 20° to maintain pitch on PLI,
respecting stick shaker and buffet
* Retract spoilers (when required)
* Maintain present airplane
configuration (gear/flaps) until
terrain separation is achieved
* Climb to the MSA or MORA
* Clear of terrain, resume level flight
* Retract gear and flaps (when
required)
* Engage autopilot
* Resume normal speed
(PM)
* Verify all required actions have
been performed
* Communicate with ATC
* Turn FSTN BELTS ON
* Scan for visual reference
* Call out radar altimeter
indications
* Read MFD terrain indications to
check obstacle height, guides
for the best course of action,
and indicates when

Question 18

I Describe the pitch target/presentation on the PFD during the EGPWS
Escape.

Answer 18

 [ERJ SOPM CH 4 APPROACH – EGPWS]
NOTE: Ensure the crew distinguishes between Airplane Symbol and
Flight Path Angle.

Question 19

On the Terrain Awareness Display what does a Solid Red color indicate?

Answer 19

 Approximately 30 seconds from impact.
[AOM VOL 2 Warning System]

Question 20

What do High Density Yellow Dots indicate?

Answer 20

Terrain is 1,000’ to 2,000’ above the airplane.

Question 21

What are the PFs actions during a Resolution Advisory (RA)?

Answer 21

 [ERJ SOPM CH 4 – RA]
o AUTOPILOT DISCONNECT
o AUTOTHROTTLE DISCONNECT
o PITCH FLY-TO ZONE
o THRUST AS REQUIRED

Question 22

I What is an “Upset”?

Answer 22

 [ERJ SOPM CH 5 – UPSET]
o Unintentionally exceeding the parameters normally
experienced in line operations or training.
 Pitch greater than 25 degrees nose up;
 Pitch greater than 10 degrees nose down;
 Bank greater than 45 degrees or
 Airspeed inappropriate for the conditions.

Question 23

What is the Upset recovery procedure?

Answer 23

 [ERJ SOPM CH 5 – UPSET RECOVERY]
o Recognize and confirm
o Disconnect
o Push, Roll, Thrust, Stabilize

Question 24

During engine start, you suspect a hung start. What is the memory item?

Answer 24

 AFFECTED ENGINE: START / STOP SELECTOR
……………………………….STOP (AOM 2-40), Perform ( QRH NAP 1-6)

Question 25

In the initial climb, you experience a sudden uncontrollable pitch up
tendency and you suspect a trim runaway. What action would you take?

Answer 25

• A/P DISC BUTTON …………………………….PRESS AND HOLD
• PITCH TRIM SYS 1 & 2 CUTOUT BUTTONS……….. PUSH IN

(SOPM Attachment 2), (QRH NAP1-15).

Question 26

The excessive pitch up tendency has been alleviated but to help compensate for a more coordinated flight utilize the YAW trim, you can see it moving quickly to the left.

What memory item is required to stop it?

Answer 26

• AP TRIM DISC BUTTON ……………………………..PRESS AND HOLD
  (SOPM Attachment 2), (QRH NAP1-16)

Question 27

While climbing out 15,000 ft. you receive a (CAB ALT HI) EICAS message,
what is your response?

Answer 27

• OXYGEN MASKS…………………………………………………… DON 100%
• CREW COMMUNICATION…………………… ESTABLISH
  (SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH 2-1)

Question 28

While descending, the flight attendants’ call with the EMER button, they
state that a first class passenger’s laptop is emitting smoke. You see no
active smoke in the cockpit. What is the best course of action?

Answer 28

• OXYGEN MASKS………………………………………… DON, 100%
• CREW COMMUNICATION…………………………….. ESTABLISH
  QRC(SOPM Attachment 2), Perform ( QRH S1-3)

Question 29

Shortly thereafter you see active smoke coming from under the cockpit door.
What, if anything changes in regards to your required procedures?

Answer 29

• OXYGEN MASKS. ………………………………………. DON, EMER
• CREW COMMUNICATION…………………………….. ESTABLISH
• PRESSURIZATION DUMP…………………………………. PUSH IN
  (SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH S1-2)

Question 30

As you declare the emergency with ATC to get vectors back to the airport, you receive an EICAS message (BATT 1 OVERTEMP). What is the memory item?

Answer 30

o ASSOCIATED BATTERY………………………………………….. OFF
Verify using QRC(SOPM Attachment 2) , followed by (QRH EAP 5-1)

Question 31

While turning final, the control column (pitch) appears to be jammed, what should you do?

Answer 31

o ELEVATOR DISCONNECT HANDLE……………………….. PULL
(SOPM Attachment 2), Perform (QRH NAP1-12).

Question 32

You now have pitch authority, but is appears you have no ROLL authority as a result. What now?

Answer 32

o AILERON DISCONNECT HANDLE………………………….. PULL
(SOPM Attachment 2), Perform (QRH NAP1-13)

Question 33

You’ve finally made it to short final, the landing is assured, and crash fire and rescue is waiting for you mid field. Once on the runway you can no longer maintain the centerline with the rudders, what action may be required to maintain on the runway?

Answer 33

o STEER DISC SWITCH ……………………………PRESS Steer the airplane
using differential braking and rudder.
(SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH1-16)