Summer 14 Final Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

What is the lowest potency corticosteroid?

A

hydrocortisone 1% is lowest potency

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2
Q

What is the immune response modifier used for topically for basal cell carcinoma?

A

imiquimod

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3
Q

What is the topical treatment for skin cancer that is a pyrimidine antimetabolite?

A

5-fluorouracil

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4
Q

Which treatment for acne is keratolytic? Which is OTC? What is the level of acne it is used for?

A

benzoyl peroxide
benzoyl peroxide
mild or mod-severe w/ abx

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5
Q

What is used for severe acne? What type of drug is it? What is special about using it?

A

accutane and anti androgens (spironolactone)
retinoid
need to sign ipledge before taking

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6
Q

What type of drug is tazarotene? What is it used for?

A

retinoid

psoriasis and acne

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7
Q

Which abx are used in acne?

A

tetracycline (minocycline)

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8
Q

Which level severity are anti androgens used for in acne? Example of one?

A

severe- spironolactone

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9
Q

What type of drug that is used for psoriasis is a topical VitD3 analog?

A

calcipotriol

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10
Q

What is cyclosporine used for and what type of drug is it?

A

psoriasis

immunomodulator- calciurein inhibitor

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11
Q

What is etanercept used for and what type of drug is it?

A

psoriasis

BMR- TNF inhibitor

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12
Q

Which severity of psoriasis are topical agents used for?

A

mild to moderate

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13
Q

What bacteria do erysipilas and impetigo have in common?

A

strep pyogenes

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14
Q

How do you treat CA MRSA?

A

doxycycline, bactrim, or clindamycin

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15
Q

How can you treat folliculitis?

A

benzyl peroxide

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16
Q

How can you treat erysipelas?

A

erythromycin

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17
Q

What is muprocin used for? What does it cover? What is retapamulin used for? What does it cover?

A

impetigo
gram + and MRSA
only MSSA (staph a and strep pyogenes)

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18
Q

What causes gas gangrene? How do you treat?

A

clostridium spp.

clindamycin or penicillin

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19
Q

How do you treat cellulitis?

A

clindamycin

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20
Q

What is an OTC treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A

clotrimazole

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21
Q

What drug can you use for onychomycosis? Which drug has a narrow spectrum of action and high relapse rate?

A

terbinatine

griseofulvin

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22
Q

Which is the prodrug- valacyclovir or acyclovir?

A

valacyclovir

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23
Q

If the patient has vomiting and a migraine, what drug should you make sure to include?

A

antiemetic (metoclopramide, chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine)

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24
Q

What drug should you also use if you are using ergot for migraine?

A

anti-emetic d/t side effect of nausea—> use antemetic 15 min before ergot

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25
When are ergots contraindicated?
MI pts, uncontrolled HTN | w/in 24 hours of triptans
26
When are triptans contraindicated?
ischeimc heart disease, uncontrolled HTN, cerebrovascular disease with macrolides
27
Which drugs are used for prophylaxis treatment of migraines?
petasites, propanolol, and riboflavin
28
Which drug is used as prophylaxis for cluster headaches?
verapamil
29
Which drug is used for OD of opioids?
naloxone
30
What is one sx everyone on opioids experiences?
constipation
31
Which drugs that are used for seizures can auto induce?
carbamezapine, oxycarbamezapine
32
What is a common side effect with carbamezapine?
hyponatremia
33
What is a common side effect with lamotrigene?
rash
34
Which drug is for absence seizures?
Ethosuximide
35
Which drug is used is neonates for seizures?
phenobarbitals
36
Which drugs are ok to use in hepatic failure patients?
gabapentin and levetiracetam
37
Which drug is bad in hepatic failure patients?
phenytoin
38
Which drug is used in acute attacks of MS?
methylprednisone
39
Which is the preferred treatment for MS?
interferon B (improve mortality)
40
What is a side effect of interferon beta?
flu like symptoms
41
What is a side effect of glatiramer?
eosinophilia
42
Which is an oral drug for MS?
fingolimod
43
What is a side effect of leukoencephalopathy?
natalizumab
44
What is a side effect of mitoxatrone?
cardiotoxicit
45
Which is a drug for MS that is a GABA-B analog and is used for mm relaxation?x
baclofen
46
What drug can be used for neuropathic pain in MS?
gabapentin
47
Which drug for Parkinson’s can increase compulsions? What type of drug is it?
bromocriptine | ergot (DA agonist)
48
What effect do COX 2 inhibitors have on PGI2? What effect do they have on TXA2?
decrease PGI2 | no effect on TXA2
49
What effect do COX 2 inhibitors have on GI and inflammation?
anti-inflammatory w/ minimal risk to GI
50
Which is cardioprotective- aspirin or ibuprofen?
aspirin is
51
What is a complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage? Which drug can prevent this?
DCI | nimodipine
52
What is the dosing for t-PA?
0.9 mg/kg over 1 hour with a 10% bolus in the first 1 min. (max dose is 90mg)
53
What are the absolute exclusion criteria for giving t-PA?
hx of intracerebral hemorrhage | improving symptoms
54
What are the relative exclusion criteria for giving t-PA?
age >80 years taking oral anti-coags hx of DMT2 and prior ischemic stroke
55
Which drug can you give if there is an aspirin allergy? if they have a-fib but no coumadin?
plavix (aggrenox has aspirin in it) | pradexa or rivoaroxaban or apixaban
56
When do you give statins?
all the time no matter the LDL level
57
What is the point of permissive HTN?
allow transient cerebral brain perfusion
58
When do you give SSRIs?
first line in late onset depression
59
What two drugs together can cause serotonin syndrome?
zoloft (any SSRI) and mirtazapine (tetracyclic) | but don’t discontinue mirtazapine if starting zoloft unless side effect that is dose dependent
60
Which anti-depressant is for neuropathic pain and sedation?
TCA
61
Which drug is good for smoking cessation?
wellbutrin
62
Which drug is good for loss of appetite?
mitrazapine
63
Which drug causes a HTN crisis if eaten with tyramine rich foods?
MAO-I
64
Which drug is good fro agitation and positive psychotic symptoms?
quetiapine
65
Which drugs are first generations v second generations AP?
first: haloperidol and chlorpromazine second: olazapine, risperidone, quetiapine, ziprasidone, clonzapine\
66
Which drugs cause hyperprolactinemia?
first generations, risperidone, (switch to aripiprazole or ziprasidone)
67
Which drugs cause a new onset DMT2?
olanzapine, clozapine, risperidone, quetiapine
68
Which drug causes neutropenia?
clonzapine
69
What do you need to keep an eye on with lithium for bipolar?
decreased thyroid hormone synthesis
70
What drug could increase lithium levels when combined?
NSAIDs
71
Which drugs decrease the risk for metabolic syndrome?
risperidone, ziprasidone, aripiprazole
72
What is the benzo MOA? Can they be used in seizure prevention?
increase GABA binding | yes
73
What are the safe benzos for liver failure?
Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam
74
Which benzos are short acting, intermediate acting, and long acting?
short: midazolam, tiazolom intermediate: alprazolam, clonazepam, LOT long: chlorodiazepoxide, diazepem, florazepam
75
long: chlorodiazepoxide, diazepem, florazepam | What is the MOA of amphetamines for ADHD?
increase catecholamines (DA, epi)
76
Which drug is for ADHD that is not a stimulant?
atomoxetine
77
How can you treat PTSD? Which drugs to avoid?
SSRI like sertraline or paroxetine | benzos
78
What is an OTC drug for insomnia?
melatonin
79
Which type of patients should you avoid using benzos in for sleep disorders? What is the time frame for using benzos?
pregnancy, sleep apnea | short term
80
Which is a prodrug for narcolepsy that has a faster onset of action and less chance for side effects?
lisdexamfetamine
81
What is a stimulant used for narcolepsy that treats EDS?
modafinil
82
What is A1C goal?
<7%
83
What is the goal for blood glucose on med floor? ICU? outpatient?
140 180 130
84
When would you prefer the use of insulin over oral therapy?
when blood glucose is over 500
85
What is the first choice drug for outpatient?
metformin
86
What is a side effect of that drug? MOA? When is it contraindicated?
GI discomfort increase sensitivity to insulin if serum creatinine is greater than 1.4 in females and 1.5 in males
87
What is a second line drug? Side effect? How much does it reduce A1C?
sulfonylureas hypoglycemia, weight gain, hyponatremia 1.5-2%
88
What effect does insulin have on K? What are the side effects of insulin?
causes K to go into the cell | hypoglycemia, weight gain, lipodystrophy
89
Which drug worsens gastroparesis?
liraglutide
90
Which drugs can be used in type I diabetes?
pramlintide and insulin
91
What is the MOA of exenatide? What is its main side effect?
GLP-1 agonist—> increases insulin secretion | nausea
92
Which drug interferes with bactrim?
repaglinide and nateglinide
93
Which drug causes the retention of fluids (like in CHF you would want to avoid it)?
TZDs- pioglitazone and rosipglitazone
94
What is the MOA of TZDs?
PPAR gamma receptor
95
How much do TZDs lower A1C by?
1.5%
96
Which drug decreases triglycerides?
pioglitazone
97
What type of drug is sitagliptin?
DP4- Inhibitor
98
Which drug is not used much d/t flatulence?
alpha glucosidase inhibitors (acarbose and miglitol)
99
What are the side effects of dapagliflozan?
UTI, vulvovaginal mycotic infections, hypovolemia
100
What are the steps for therapy according to the guidelines?
first metformin then insulin then other orals if still not working 3-6 months later
101
What should you adjust if a patient notice morning hyperglycemia?
bedtime basal dose
102
Which insulin is the closest to physiologic insulin?
long acting
103
When is PTU the preferred therapy?
first trimester of pregnancy
104
What is different between PTU and MMI?
MMU is 10x more potent b.c not bound to protein
105
Which is the preferred therapy for Grave’s disease treatment?
radioactive iodine
106
When is RAI contraindicated?
pregnancy
107
What is the preferred treatment for hypothyroidism? What interaction do you need to be aware of?
levothyroxine (T4) | Ca
108
What is the ratio of prednisone to dexamethasone?
prednisone (5 mg) to dexamethasone (0.75 mg)
109
How many days do you have to be taking steroids before you need to taper doses?
>5 days
110
Which drug is an anti-progesterone agent?
mifepristone
111
What drug would you use in the ICU (acutely) for decreasing steroids/cortisol?
etomidate
112
Which drug causes an increase in androgen? What are the side effects of that?
metyrapone | hirsutism and acne
113
Which drug is sedating and causes weight gain?
cryoproheptadine
114
Which drug is a GHR antagonist?
pegvisomat
115
What do you need to monitor with this drug?
LFTs
116
Which drug increases the risk of gallstones via inhibiting the release of CCK?
octreotide
117
Which drug is god for prolactinomas and GH?
cabergoline