Supervision of Police Personnel Flashcards
(212 cards)
1
Q
Tests involving speed and precision have revealed that the performance of people who have a drinking problem is considerably reduced in the ___________ of alcoholism
A
early stages
2
Q
Three reasons why problem drinking was not addressed earlier
A
First, the supervisors may not recognize the symptoms of deviant drinking in the early stages because they have not been trained to do so.
Second, if they do recognize them, they may not care to make an issue of the problem and thereby tacitly allow it to develop into a major one. They often justify this failure because they choose to classify the employee as a “person who drinks socially” rather than a person who has a drinking problem bordering on alcoholism.
Last, supervisors may often resist the idea of being forced to take disciplinary action because of fear of repercussions from the social group.
3
Q
The most prominent problems associated with problem drinking
A
employees’ preoccupation with alcohol
the self-deception “games” they play in denying a problem or justifying drinking
Guilt feelings (reflected in many ways)
memory lapses,
and the anxiety and depression they often experience.
4
Q
Many of the individual’s early stage symptoms of problem drinking go unnoticed by even closest associates. It is believed by some that the best clue to what is developing is
A
recurring memory blackout.
5
Q
three defense mechanisms: for problem drinking
A
Denial, wherein they deny using alcohol or claims that they can take it or leave it alone;
Rationalization, wherein they deny the existence of any problem;
Projection, wherein they project the blame for their problem (if they admit they have one) onto other people or things, such as work pressures, difficulties with a significant other or partner, or financial difficulties.14 Individuals rationalize “taking a belt” to settle themselves down after a particularly stressful day, they may make excuses for their recurrent hangovers, or they often claim that some other chronic health problem is the cause, often misquoting their doctor.
6
Q
(Problem Drinking) In fact, the most significant hurdle to overcome in the whole corrective cycle is
A
bringing them to a realization that they have a problem and need someone to help them resolve it.
7
Q
three basic ingredients in effective counseling. (drinking Problem Chapter 8)
A
Being attentive to what is said,
looking at the problem from the employee’s point of view,
and establishing a comfortable relationship during the session
8
Q
The important objective of professional counseling is not only to get people with a drinking problem to give up drinking, but also to lead them to the realization that they can never be
A
a moderate drinker, and that they can never again use alcohol.
9
Q
As previously described, there are two occasions when the supervisors are obligated to become involved in subordinates’ personal affairs
A
when employees ask for help
when the problem has affected the subordinates’ performance.
10
Q
Excessive job stress, or that resulting from personal frustration and inadequate coping skills, is referred to as
A
“Burnout” This psychological condition is also referred to as BOSS (burnout stress syndrome).
11
Q
Suicide warning signs of which all supervisors should be aware include the following:
A
Depression
Previous suicide attempt
Increase in use of alcoholic beverages
Overly aggressive or violent behavior
Any changes in mood or behavior that are out of the ordinary
Changes in work habits
Behavioral clues of suicidal thoughts
Anger or irritability
Concern expressed by family/friends/colleagues
12
Q
Posttraumatic stress disorder is often reflected by feelings of
A
isolation, flashbacks, sleeplessness, anxiety, and a loss of work interest, causing deterioration in performance.
13
Q
The Psychological Services Section of the International Association of Chiefs of Police defines a Psychological Fitness For Duty Evaluation (FFDE) as a formal, specialized examination of an employee by a qualified medical professional that results from:
A
(1) objective evidence that the employee may be unable to safely or effectively perform a defined job and
(2) a reasonable basis for believing that the cause may be attributable to a psychological condition or impairment.”
14
Q
Such studies have consistently shown that employee dissatisfaction and grievances arise from factors that can be broadly categorized into four areas:
A
the work environment;
harsh, abusive, tyrannical, or inept supervision;
misunderstandings about policies and procedures of the organization;
and management failures of various types
15
Q
Crank and Caldero have identified __________ as the primary source of stress for police officers.
A
organizational practices
16
Q
Poor supervisory practices account for a large share of dissatisfaction and negative feelings of employees, some of which include: 8 FUHDEUEE
A
Failure to give recognition to employees when they believe they have earned it
Use of inappropriate language by the supervisor
Harsh arbitrary methods in dealing with subordinates
Display of favoritism
Existence of dual standards of conduct
Unfairness of supervisors in the application of rules to subordinates
Excessive supervision
Existence of cliques—and all of the bad connotations usually associated with these issues, whether or not the supervisor is part of the problem—are commonly cited as causes of employee dissatisfaction with their leaders
17
Q
Management Failures
A
Rules of Conduct
Rule Enforcement
Due Process Violations
18
Q
Rules of conduct, greatest concern was that such rules and regulations placed undue restrictions on their personal rights
A
they were opposed to controls governing their off-duty employment,
their hairstyles or mustaches or beards,
their criticism of the organization,
and their places of residence
19
Q
Rules of conduct, Personnel who had strongest feelings about department rules and regulations relating to
A
operation of vehicles, courtesy to the public,
use of physical force, use of firearms,
and other general departmental restrictions on conduct and performance perceived these as interferences with their ability to do good police work
20
Q
Rules of conduct, strongest opinions about organizational controls of
A
of their moral conduct, personal debts,
off-duty use of alcohol,
and the like, believed these matters to be an invasion of their right to privacy and none of the department’s business.
21
Q
A property interest
A
tenured employees have legitimate claims to their jobs as conferred by statute, contract, or existing rules or understandings.
22
Q
Employees’ liberty interests are
A
involved if the employer’s action in dismissing them significantly damages their reputation or standing in the community or stigmatizes them to such a degree that they are unable to take advantage of future employment opportunities.
23
Q
Cleveland Board of Education v. Loudermill
A
tenured public employees are entitled, under due process, to oral or written notice of the charges against them and an opportunity to tell their side of the story before they are terminated.
24
Q
Generally, courts have ruled that employees cannot be penalized for their acts unless it can be proved that their conduct was related to their performance of duty and
A
that it impaired their efficiency, seriously interfered with the operational efficiency of the organization,
or interfered with the maintenance of good order within the organization,
or it was common knowledge that the particular conduct was prohibited.
25
Contractual Violations and Grievances, steps
first step, the supervisor or the employee representative receives the complaint;
second step, in which the complaint is referred to an intermediate level of management for resolution.
third step, should disagreement continue, the grievance is transmitted to the top level of management within the organization.
fourth step—voluntary arbitration.
26
____________ main purposes are to facilitate coordination of effort, develop self-control and character, and foster orderliness and efficiency.
Discipline
27
The ability to maintain a high level of _______ is probably the single most important characteristic of a strong leader.
discipline
28
The New Jersey Attorney General’s Office recommends that police agencies consider using certain data in an early intervention system to help identify the officers who cause problems:
Motor vehicle stop data
Search and seizure data
Internal complaints, regardless of outcome
Civil actions filed, regardless of outcome
Incidents of force usage, including firearms discharges and use of less lethal non-deadly force
Claims of duty-related injury
Arrests for resisting arrest
Arrests for assault on a law enforcement officer
Criminal investigations or complaints made against the officer
Incidents of arrested persons injured
Vehicular pursuits
Vehicular accidents
Cases rejected or dismissed by the prosecutor
Evidence suppressed by the court
29
This characteristic is perhaps the greatest deterrent to further misbehavior.
Certainty
30
________ is a state of mind reflecting the degree to which an individual has confidence in the members of the group and in the organization, believes in its objectives, and desires to accomplish them.
Morale
31
____________ involves the existence of a sense of common endeavor and responsibility within the group. It embodies devotion to the group enterprise, cooperation among its members, and pride in its accomplishments.
Esprit de corps
32
Under the doctrine of respondeat superior
a public entity is liable for the wrongful acts or omissions of its employees who are acting within the scope of their employment
33
vicarious liability
“Liability that a supervisory party (employer) bears for the actionable conduct of a subordinate or associate (employee) because of the relationship between the two parties.”
34
Employees were formerly liable by themselves for both compensatory and exemplary damages, and they are still liable for ________ damages. In some jurisdictions, the public agency that employs them is liable along with them for _______ damages.
exemplary (Punishment damages)
compensatory (payment for medical and loss)
35
Allegations are being raised with increasing frequency that the improper use of force by the officer was a proximate result of lack of training and/or supervision to a degree that constitutes “____________” or “___________” of the supervisor and/or the employing agency to the plaintiff’s rights
gross negligence
deliberate indifference
36
Under the theory of _______, a supervisor and/or agency might also be liable for “________” to the retention of an employee who is known to be or should have been known to be unfit for the job.
negligent retention
indifference (“deliberate indifference”)
37
There are three especially dangerous periods during a hostage crisis.
The first is the initial 15–45 minutes when confusion and panic are likely to be greatest.
The second is during the surrender of hostage takers, when hair-trigger emotions, ambivalence, and lack of coordination among hostage takers and crisis team members can cause an otherwise successful resolution to go bad.
Finally, tactical assault (“going in”) to rescue the hostages carries the highest casualty rate.
38
The FBI’s hostage negotiation unit developed a model negotiation strategy, the Behavioral Change Stairway Model. It’s one which any first responder or superior officer can use if necessary. It includes the following five steps:
*Active Listening
*Empathy
*Rapport
*Influence
*Behavioral Change
39
Negotiable demands include
Food,
drinks,
cigarettes,
and environmental controls, such as heat, air conditioning, electricity, plumbing, blankets, and so on.
40
Nonnegotiable demands include
illegal drugs,
weapons,
release of friends or relatives in prison,
or exchange of hostages.
41
“Gray area” demands that may depend on the special circumstances and judgment of the negotiating team include
alcohol,
money,
media access,
transportation,
or freedom.
42
When a decision is made to force entry into the suspect’s position, plans previously formulated should be put into operation. Depending on the type of structure to be entered, an entry team consisting of _____________ should be dressed in protective armor and masks and be equipped with a pry bar, sledgehammer or battering ram, gas gun, gas cartridges and grenades, smoke grenades, and concussion devices.
A cover team of at least ___________ should be selected and equipped with gas masks and other protective clothing. They and the officers of the entry team should be thoroughly briefed by the supervisor in the tactics to be used in the operation—precision in executing the established plan is vital to success.
three to five officers
two officers
43
Optimal size for an ad hoc team entry should be_______ officers.
four to five
44
LCAN report:
Location:
Conditions:
Actions:
Needs:
45
Mental preparation will assist officers with ____________ and dealing with the chaos of the active shooting event.
speed of movement
46
Things that caused an incident remained a relatively minor one or developed into one of major proportions. (Civil disorder)
availability of good field intelligence,
the accuracy of the evaluation of the initial incident,
the effectiveness of the operational plan selected to deal with it,
the speed with which personnel responded,
and the decisiveness of their actions
47
This strategy of ___________ to ensure success should be the basic concept of civil disorder control.
striking swiftly with adequate force
48
A key element to successful response to a chemical, biological, or radiological incident is the ___________________ and ______________.
rapid identification of the hazard
immediate control over all responding units
49
Missing children
The extent of the effort devoted to such incidents ordinarily is dependent on ________________ and __________________
the age of the child
the circumstances.
50
The NTAS consists of two types of advisories:
Bulletins and Alerts.
51
NTAS __________ permit the Secretary of DHS to communicate critical terrorism information that, while not necessarily indicative of a specific threat against the United States, can reach homeland security partners or the public quickly, thereby allowing recipients to implement necessary protective measures.
Bulletins
52
When there is specific, credible information about a terrorist threat against the United States, the DHS will share an NTAS _____ with the American public when circumstances warrant doing so.
Alert
53
The Alert may take one of two forms: _________, if law enforcement has credible threat information, but only general information about timing and target such that it is reasonable to recommend implementation of protective measures to thwart or mitigate against an attack, or __________, if the threat is believed to be credible, specific, and impending, in the very near term.27
Elevated
Imminent
54
An investigative detention is not an arrest; however, the courts have held that a lack of brevity in these situations can and will convert the situation to a de facto arrest (____________, 470 U.S. 675, 1985).
U.S. v. Sharpe
55
Next, we will review the authority to detain occupants during the execution of a warrant. All officers should know that a warrant to search a premise for evidence does authorize an officer to detain the occupants for a reasonable amount of time while a proper search is conducted (_________, 452 U.S. 692, 1981).
Michigan v. Summers
Officers may take all reasonable safety measures during the execution of a search warrant. Those present may be lawfully detained and handcuffed if necessary, to ensure officer safety.
56
Sources of information that may support reasonable suspicion come from (1)____________, (2) _________, and (3) __________. Citizen informers have been recognized by the courts as generally reliable sources of information. Courts have held that information from known criminal informers must be corroborated for their reliability and veracity (Illinois v. Gates, 462 U.S. 213, 1983)
citizen informers
confidential informants
anonymous tipsters
57
In a later case, the Court held that an officer may seize an object if, in the course of a weapons frisk, “plain touch” reveals the presence of the object, and the officer has probable cause to believe it is contraband (__________, 508 U.S. 366, 1993).
Minnesota v. Dickerson
58
The U.S. Supreme Court declared that an officer making a traffic stop may also order passengers to get out of the car pending completion of the stop (______________, 519 U.S. 408, 415, 1997).
Maryland v. Wilson
59
Rather than continuing to adhere to the ___________ (378 U.S. 108, 1964), the Court held that the information provided in a search warrant affidavit should be analyzed with regard to the totality of the circumstances (_________; 462 U.S. 213, 1983).
two-pronged test established in Aguilar v. Texas
Illinois v. Gates
60
The U.S. Supreme Court held that a Fourth Amendment seizure requires some sort of _______________ to an assertion of authority (California v. Hodari D, 499 U.S. 621, 1991).
physical force with lawful authority, or submission
61
The Court in ____________ noted that the test of whether a seizure violates the Fourth Amendment is based on whether a reasonable person would have concluded that the police had restrained his or her liberty, and that he or she was not free to leave.
Chesternut
62
In __________, 118 S. Ct. 1708, 1720-21 (1998), the U.S. Supreme Court held that the appropriate standard in assessing a section 1983 claim in the context of a police pursuit is the “_________” standard.
County of Sacramento v. Lewis
shocks the conscience
63
There is ___constitutional right to counsel for an identification that takes place before the accused is indicted or formally charged (Kirby v. Illinois, 406 U.S. 682, 1972).
no
64
The Supreme Court of the United States (SCOTUS) has also determined that an alert from a properly trained canine constitutes sufficient grounds to determine ______________ to search (Florida v. ________, 568 U.S. 237, 2013).
probable cause Florida v. Harris
65
In___________, the Court recognized that the mission of the vehicle stop determines its allowable duration and the authority for the stop ends when the mission has been accomplished.
Rodriguez
66
Chimel v. California
search incident to arrest
When a lawful arrest is made, it is reasonable for an officer based on concerns for officer safety and the preservation of evidence to contemporaneously with the arrest (1) search the person arrested and (2) search areas into which the person arrested might reach and retrieve weapons or destroy evidence,
not the whole house though
67
Another area that all supervisors and managers should be familiar with is the search of electronic devices. Further limitations have been placed on searches of these devices (________ 573 U.S. _________, 2014)
Riley v. California
68
The Court emphasized two reasons why searching the digital information contained on a cellular phone is more intrusive and complex than a simple search and seizure of an ordinary physical object.
First, the digital data does not present any of the risks the Chimel case sought to address, such as officer safety and destruction of evidence.
Second, the Court emphasized the heightened privacy interests at stake when dealing with digital information stored on cellular phones, noting the substantive differences between digital data and physical objects
69
In U.S. v. Jones, 132 S. Ct. 945, 2012, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that
the installation of a Global Positioning System (GPS) tracking device on a person’s car constituted a search under the meaning of the Fourth Amendment, and a warrant is required before law enforcement can install such a device on someone’s vehicle.
70
“The Fourth Amendment protects people, not places,” wrote Justice Potter Stewart for the Court in ____________. A concurring opinion by John Marshall Harlan introduced the idea of a “reasonable” expectation of privacy of Fourth Amendment protection
Katz v. U.S
reasonable expectation of privacy” and the exclusionary rule, which prohibits evidence obtained in an illegal search and seizure from being used in a court of law
71
In _________ the Court declined to extend the “third-party doctrine”—a doctrine where information disclosed to a third party carries no reasonable expectation of privacy—to cell-site location information, which suggests even greater privacy concerns than GPS tracking does
Carpenter V. U.S
72
The automobile exception to the warrant requirement was created from a holding in ___________ where the Court held that vehicles may be searched without a warrant if the officer who is conducting the search has probable cause to believe that the vehicle contains contraband.
Carroll v. United States
73
Once a police officer has __________ to believe there is contraband in a vehicle, they may remove the vehicle from the scene to the station house in order to conduct a search, without thereby being required to obtain a warrant (__________, 458 U.S. 259, 1982).
probable cause
Michigan v. Thomas
74
In __________ 463 U.S. 1032 (1983), the U.S. Supreme Court held that the limited search of the passenger compartment of an automobile where weapons may be hidden is permissible if the officer has ___________ that the suspect is dangerous and may gain control of a weapon during the police encounter.
Michigan v. Long
reasonable suspicion
75
In Arizona v. Gant 556 U.S. 332 (2009), the Court held that the Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution requires law enforcement officers to demonstrate an _____________, or _____________________________, in order to justify a warrantless vehicular search incident to arrest, conducted after the vehicle’s recent occupants have been arrested and secured.
actual and continuing threat to their safety posed by a person arrested
a need to preserve evidence related to the crime of arrest from tampering by the person arrested
76
The equation is simple: ________plus ________equals Miranda
Custody (C)
Interrogation (I)
77
Police custody is generally accepted as anytime the police deprive a person of __________________.
their freedom of movement in a significant way
78
There are several exceptions to Miranda. For the purposes of this text we will focus on four main exceptions:
(1) routine booking exception,
(2) routine traffic stops for traffic violations exception,
(3) unsolicited statements (excited utterance), and
(4) the public safety exception.
79
Although the public safety exception was born out of the decision in __________, we saw it used in a high-profile case during the questioning of the Boston Marathon bombing suspect.
NY v. Quarles
80
The SCOTUS found that the proceedings of the juvenile court failed to comply with the Constitution. Specifically, the Court held that the proceedings for juveniles had to comply with the requirements of the Fifth, Sixth, and Fourteenth Amendments. These requirements included
adequate notice of charges,
notification of both the child and the parents as to the juvenile’s right to counsel,
opportunity for confrontation of witnesses and their cross-examination at the hearings, and
adequate safeguards against self-incrimination (In Re Gault, 387, US 1, 1967).
81
Hot Pursuit The bottom line is if a suspect commits a crime (a felony offense) in a public place, they cannot frustrate an arrest by retreating inside a private residence (Santana V. U.S)
Welsh v. Wisconsin added what
In Welsh, officers had reason to believe that the driver of a vehicle involved in an accident was intoxicated and left the scene prior to the arrival of the police
The Supreme Court held that the warrantless entry into the residence was unlawful, because the need to arrest for a non-jailable traffic offense did not amount to an exigent circumstance. Although Welsh did not involve an entry pursuant to a hot pursuit, there is language in the opinion that suggests that the Court would be reluctant to uphold a hot-pursuit entry to arrest someone for a relatively minor offense
82
On the federal level, under the authority of _______________________ 412 U.S. 218 (1973), during a lawful traffic stop, officers may ask for consent to search the person and vehicle, even though there may be no suspicion of criminality. This may differ in your state, as your state supreme court is free to be more restrictive on police personnel than the U.S. Supreme Court.
Schneckloth v. Bustamonte
83
In 2013, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled in ______________ that states may collect and analyze DNA from people after an arrest.12 The 2013 ruling validated DNA collection laws prior to conviction in 29 states. While Justice Anthony Kennedy agreed DNA swabs constituted a search under the Fourth Amendment, he argued it was not unreasonable because a suspect’s criminal history is a crucial part of their identity. DNA could help unveil that history.
Maryland v. King
84
In 2005, _______________, 547 U.S. 843 established that the Fourth Amendment does not prohibit police from conducting a warrantless search of a person on parole, even when there is no suspicion of criminal wrongdoing. Being on parole is basis enough.
Samson v. California
85
in ______________, 827 F2d 1108 (1987). There, the Court held that a warrantless search of the home of a person on probation did not violate the Fourth Amendment.
Griffin v. Wisconsin
86
In 2001, a unanimous court in_________________, 534 U.S. 112 ruled that the warrantless search of an individual on probation was supported by reasonable suspicion and authorized as a condition of parole. The Court then concluded that based on ordinary Fourth Amendment analysis, reasonable suspicion is constitutionally sufficient to render a warrant requirement unnecessary.
United States v. Knights
87
The U.S. Supreme Court held that municipalities may be liable for inadequate training of employees, but only when “____________________” to the constitutional rights of the people with whom the employees will interact (City of Canton, Ohio v. Harris, 489 U.S. 378, 1989)
the failure to train amounts to deliberate indifference
88
The Court held that ____________ Liability only existed when the constitutional infringement was the direct result of an official policy.
Monell
89
The Court’s interest in protecting our nation’s law enforcement officers is displayed in decisions that recognize and support a qualified immunity for officers who must defend themselves in lawsuits arising out of life-or-death situations. In ______________, the U.S. Supreme Court recognized the need for an objective qualified immunity defense to protect public officials, including law enforcement officers, from frivolous lawsuits that flow from their necessary official actions.
Harlow v. Fitzgerald
90
In ___________, 472 U.S. 511 (1985), the Court observed that unless lawsuit allegations involve a claimed violation of clearly established constitutional rights, the defendant pleading qualified immunity is entitled to dismissal before the commencement of discovery. The Court made clear that the qualified immunity defense is an immunity from suit, rather than a mere defense to liability; and it is effectively lost if a case is erroneously permitted to go to trial.
Mitchell v. Forsyth
91
According to the U.S. Department of Labor, eligible employees are entitled to 12 workweeks of leave in a 12-month period for
1. the birth of a child, and to care for the newborn child within one year of birth;
2. the placement with the employee of a child for adoption or foster care, and to care for the newly placed child within one year of placement;
3. to care for the employee’s spouse, child, or parent (but not a parent “in-law”) who has a serious health condition;
4. a serious health condition that makes the employee unable to perform the essential functions of their job;
5. any qualifying exigency arising out of the fact that the employee’s spouse, son, daughter, or parent is a covered military member on “covered active duty”; or
6. As well as 26 workweeks of leave during a single 12-month period to care for a covered service member with a serious injury or illness, if the eligible employee is the service member’s spouse, son, daughter, parent, or next of kin (military caregiver leave).
92
United States v. Windsor
In 2015, the Department of Labor announced the final rule to revise the definition of spouse under the FMLA. The definition of spouse was amended so that eligible employees in legal same-sex marriages will be able to take FMLA leave to care for their spouse or family member, regardless of where they live.
93
The case of _______________ stated that the First Amendment provides the public a “right to record — photograph, film, or audio record — police officers conducting official police activity in public areas
Fields v. City of Philadelphia
94
In modern administrative terminology, __________ denotes the process of directing and controlling people and things so that organizational objectives can be accomplished.
management
95
__________, as part of the management process, refers to the act of overseeing people.
Supervision
96
Guidelines for Successfully Making the Transition from Officer to Supervisor
Educate yourself for your new position
Look, listen, and learn about your new work environment
Show a genuine interest in and concern for your employees
Communicate regularly with your employees
Lead by example
Support management’s policies and decisions
Ask for guidance and direction when you need it
Treat people fairly and with respect
Do the right thing
Enjoy the benefits the position brings
97
The major portion of the supervisor’s job may be categorized into three broad areas:
leading, directing, and controlling individuals and groups that are formally or informally arranged.
98
POSDCORB is made up of the initials and stands for the following activities
Planning, which is working out in broad outline the things that need to be done and the methods for doing them to accomplish the purpose set for the enterprise;
Organizing, which is the establishment of the formal structure of authority through which work subdivisions are arranged, defined, and coordinated for the defined objective;
Staffing, which is the whole personnel function of bringing in and training the staff and maintaining favorable conditions for work;
Directing, which is the continuous task of taking decisions and embodying them in specific and general orders and instructions and serving as the leader of the enterprise;
Coordinating, which is the all-important duty of interrelating the various parts of the work;
Reporting, which is keeping those who the executive is responsible for informed as to what is going on, and includes keeping themselves and the subordinates informed through records, research, and inspection;
Budgeting, which is all that goes on in the form of fiscal planning, accounting, and control.
99
Procedural plans
serving and processing arrest warrants, recording and processing crime or incident reports, and processing traffic citations
100
Operational plans
normal police activities. These are the plans that are guides to personnel in activities such as the deployment and distribution of personnel or the search for suspects or lost persons.
101
Auxiliary services plans
the recruitment of personnel or public and community relations activities
102
Policies
plans consisting of a set of broad principles that guide personnel in the accomplishment of general organizational objectives.
103
Rules and regulations
Plans providing specific guides to conduct and performance
104
The process of dividing work involves both ______ and _______.
analysis
synthesis
105
For best results, the ____________ and the ___________, as stated by Leon Alford, require assigning to each worker the fewest possible kinds of tasks or operations in order to improve the quality and increase the quantity of work, thereby giving the highest class of work to suit the worker’s natural abilities
principle of specialization
law of productivity
106
the _______________, which specifies that the head of an organization or unit within it should not find it necessary to act personally on each matter coming under their general jurisdiction.
exception principle
107
_____________ may be defined as the art of influencing, directing, guiding, and controlling others in such a way as to obtain their willing obedience, confidence, respect, and loyal cooperation in the accomplishment of an objective. It is the human factor that binds a group together and motivates it toward goals.
Leadership
108
Readiness Style 1
(telling)
which is high in task behavior but low in relationship behavior
109
Readiness Style 2
(selling)
which is high in task behavior and high in relationship behavior
110
Readiness Style 3
(participating)
which is low in task behavior and high in relationship behavior
111
Readiness Style 4
(delegating)
which is low in task behavior and low in relationship behavior
112
Elements of Leadership
Discipline
Ethics
Common Sense
Psychology
113
___________ involves the application of incentives, which encourages a certain positive pattern of behavior and attitude and contributes to the accomplishment of organizational objectives. Unless the employees agree with these objectives and believe they are attainable, they will not be able to commit to them. If they can’t, they won’t be motivated.
Motivation
114
Motivation through the process of __________ is unquestionably the most difficult yet the most powerful and lasting force in forming attitudes that will induce workers to make fuller use of their potential.
inspiration
115
Ideally, every leader should possess the following traits:
F.E.A.M.I.T.F.V.C.M. → "Fearless Eagles Aim Magnificently In The Vast Clear Morning."
Friendliness, sincerity, affection for others, and personal warmth
Enthusiasm for the job and all it entails
Ambition
Energy and vitality
Moral and physical integrity
Intelligence
Technical skill
Faith
Verbal aptitude
Courtesy
Modesty
In addition, characteristics of self-control, dependability, empathy for others (short of sentimentalism), good judgment, originality, versatility, and adaptability are usually found in the most successful leaders.
116
Success in supervision _________ be achieved solely by copying the style of other successful supervisors.
cannot
117
The objective of ___________ should be the greatest production in the shortest possible time with the minimum energy and the maximum satisfaction for the producers.
good human relations
118
Industrial psychologist Dr. David Jones reports that many newly appointed leaders fail because of ______________________________________________.
an inability to establish and maintain effective relationships with others, particularly those in subordinate roles
Successful leaders build personal, positive, and professional relationships with those they work with.
119
“_________ is the breakfast of champions.”
Feedback
120
Ideally, order giving involves the complex process of communicating ideas in such a manner that the recipients interpret what they hear in the way the communicator intends. Each order is susceptible to three interpretations:
what persons actually say,
what they think they have said,
and what the recipient thinks was said.
121
_________ is much more effective than _____________ in obtaining acceptance by those workers affected.
Persuasion
coercion
122
Most orders should be framed as __________
requests.
123
Implied or suggested directives can be employed to good effect with the ____________ who readily assumes responsibility for a task
reliable employee
124
The decision-making process involves several steps. 6 stepts
First, there must be an awareness that a real problem exists.
Second, facts must be obtained.
Third, when sufficient data have been collected, they must be evaluated and analyzed.
Fourth, alternative approaches leading to a logical conclusion should be decided on, and probable consequences of each should be weighed.
Fifth, a decision must be selected from the alternative solutions.
Sixth, the decision must then be communicated to those who must carry it out.
Appropriate follow-up should take place so that results of the decision may be checked and evaluated.
125
_________ is perhaps the most common failing of inexperienced supervisors
Oversupervision
126
Generation Z: born between
Born between 1995 and 2010
127
born within the technological age, war on terror, and in an age of multiculturalism.
Generation Z
128
excellent multitaskers, as well as having the ability to process information very quickly
Generation Z
129
seek uniqueness, global in their thinking
Generation Z
130
seem to be constantly looking for their next best opportunity
Generation Z
131
changing jobs at a rate that is 134 percent higher than in previous years—much faster than their colleagues
Generation Z
132
81 percent of Generation ____ who are planning to change jobs are searching for roles that better align with their interests and values, and 76 percent of respondents are seeking more opportunities to learn and practice new skills
Generation Z
133
Generation Y: Born between
1981 and 1996
134
his generation is extremely technologically savvy, have a casual attitude toward employers, and seek a fun and flexible working style.
Generation Y
135
described as good multitaskers
Generation Y
136
as being both achievement- and team-oriented
Generation Y
137
changing attitudes toward what is considered socially acceptable in terms of police officer suitability
Generation Y
138
Generation X: Born between
1965 and 1980
139
this generation wants a balanced work–life schedule, including family time
Generation X
140
They appreciate mutual respect and open communication
Generation X
141
They are quickly assuming more and more leadership roles, and have been described as independent, resourceful, and self-sufficient.
Generation X
142
Baby Boomers: Born between
1946 and 1964
143
this generation is defined by a strong work ethic, being loyal employees, and climbing their way up the corporate ladder.
Baby Boomers
144
They also value face-to-face interaction.
Baby Boomers
145
Although some may not be adept in the computer age, their personal work experiences can aid in the learning process.
Baby Boomers
146
Traditionalists who are also known as the silent and greatest generation: Born before
1946
147
They did not grow up with today’s technology and some are uncomfortable with it.
Traditionalists
148
We often see them as volunteers in the police department or possibly as members of government that supervisors will interact with regularly.
Traditionalists
149
Gen _____ were raised on email, text messages, Facebook, and Twitter, while ______ know customer relationship management and other enterprise management tools. Take advantage of each group’s strengths and pair up older and younger workers to mentor each other.
Ys
Boomers
150
The most common acts that are alleged as a basis for charges of harassment include the following:
Unjust favoritism
Improper advances with sexual overtones, involving unwanted physical contact, improper verbal or body language
Rude or discourteous language
Deprivation of entitlements, such as in assignments, promotions, work conditions, or employee welfare
Unfair evaluations
Demotions
Deprivation of merit salary increases
Discharges
Salary reductions
Any acts that might be perceived as having created a hostile environment
151
There are many symptoms of leadership failure. The appearance of
selfishness, suspicion, envy, failure to give credit, hypercriticism, and arbitrariness will usually denote weaknesses, if not downright failure, of an individual as a leader.
152
Leadership fails more often because________
it is not provided when it is most needed than because the techniques are flawed
153
Burrow, Everard, and Kleindl report that the number one problem of management, and the number one complaint of workers, is _______________
communication difficulties
154
A supervisor may intend the meaning of a message through one set of filters (____________) and the subordinate may receive that same message through a different set of filters.
experiences and values
155
Barriers to Effective Communications, 13
Failure to Listen
Status Differences
Psychological Size
Noise
Language Barriers
Fear of Criticism
Jumping to Conclusions
Filtering
Individual Sentiments and Attitudes
Intentional Suppression or Manipulation of Communications
Complexity of Communications Channels
Overloading of Communications Channels
Overstructuring of Communications Channels
156
Psychological stress from the outside or inside, failure to listen actively, environmental distractors, and even abstractions can be considered _________ that hinder communication.
noises
157
noncommunicator
who says no more than they think the situation requires? Have they failed to say something that should be said? Are they a logical speaker troubled by anxieties or compulsiveness? Are they unconcerned with the impact their statements have on others?
158
Are they the undertalker
who often fails to communicate when communicating is indicated?
159
Are they the tiresome overtalker,
who often communicates well but does not know when to stop?
160
Are they a tangential speaker?
Do they fail to give direct response as expected, responding instead to irrelevant side issues?
161
Are they the so-called helpless speaker
full of self-pity and self-apology? Do they apologize for asking a subordinate to do something they are expected to do? If they do the latter, any respect their subordinates have for them will soon be eroded.
162
Written communications fail to achieve what is intended for three main reasons.
First, the writer, because of a lack of care or an inability to discriminate between fact and nonfact, confuses their communications by misinterpreting the data on which they are based.
Second, the writer fails to use the most specific and concrete words to make their meaning clear.
Third, the writer fails to support their conclusions with factual data.
163
The major functions of the interview are to
obtain information
to communicate or give information
to motivate employees for the purpose of improving cooperation, production, or performance
to help solve personal and group problems through the consultation process
and to appraise the past, present, or future situation of the employee
164
British psychologist _______ found in early studies that questions framed in negative terms had a tendency to elicit inaccurate responses more frequently than did positive questions because negatives are somewhat more suggestive and cause a lessening of caution in response and decreased reliability.
B. Muscio
165
In each interview, the person being interviewed should be the central figure at all times. This employee-centered characteristic requires that the supervisor suppress any tendency to be the dictator and actively engage in the “_________” role.
understanding listener
166
Employment of the active listening technique is often difficult for supervisors simply because they are not aware that the final objective of interviewing cannot be accomplished until the first objective of _________ has taken place.
listening and understanding
167
In order to gain real understanding, two things must exist:
a sincere desire on the part of the interviewer to gain a better understanding of others
a forthright approach to the interview designed to make such understanding possible
168
Whisenand and Ferguson describe detailed guidelines for helping employees with personal problems. If after________ thorough counseling sessions, however, the employee is not making progress, the supervisor should consider referring the person to a professional therapist.
two
169
This factor, often called the halo effect, simply implies that
persons look alike, one cannot accurately assume they will react alike.
170
_____ and _____ are emotions that are most often transferred from one person to another.
Anger
hostility
171
For purposes of full evaluation, the interviewer must inquire into those traits that are the best predictors of success—______________________________________ which cannot be measured well by other tests.
moral integrity,
ability to make decisions,
insight into problems of society,
approaches to dealing with people,
personal interests, poise, confidence, and temperament,
172
One of the most common pitfalls the interviewer falls into is to ____________________
assume that if the applicant fits a given pattern in one trait, then that person will follow the same pattern in other similar traits.
173
Similarly, deceptive subjects engage in a variety of physical activities to reduce the tension associated with lying, such as ______________________
leaning away from the interviewer when uncomfortable subjects come up, rubbing and wringing the hands, and bouncing legs.
174
Progress interviews can be used effectively to inform employees of their progress, to review their past performance, and to give constructive guidance concerning improvement required. The objective of the interview is to aid the employee to engage in __________.
self-appraisal
175
The interview that results in neither ______ nor ____________ for the employee is a wasted opportunity. It achieves nothing and should not have occurred in the first place.
satisfaction nor constructive guidance
176
the wish for security, based on fear, apprehensiveness, and avoidance;
Drives
177
for response, derived from love, friendship, and affection
Drives
177
the wish for recognition, gained from status, prestige, and social approval
Drives
178
new experiences, including curiosity, adventure, and the craving for excitement.
Drives
179
Some add the service motive as a fundamental
drive, but many disagree that this aspect of human behavior should be included as a drive
180
affection, acceptance, and security
Satisfactions
181
a sense of personal adequacy
Satisfactions
182
recognition as a personality
Satisfactions
183
an opportunity for accomplishment
Satisfactions
184
an opportunity for independence
Satisfactions
185
an opportunity to obtain new experiences;
Satisfactions
186
an opportunity to possess something or someone.
Satisfactions
187
feeling of security
Needs
188
sense of adequacy
Needs
189
sense of self-esteem
Needs
190
sense of social approval
Needs
191
A basic feeling of inadequacy and insecurity
inferiority complex
Training might help improve an individual’s proficiency and confidence.
192
“step taken by the individual in order to avoid meeting and solving some difficulty or present problem. It is an escape from reality,”
regressive behavior
193
“defense against anxiety by stopping the process of development.”
fixation
194
Situational barriers may consist of
unpopular rules or policies,
inadequate salaries,
or onerous situations that affect the individual.
195
Aggression has two main functions.
extraction of satisfaction from the outside world in the drive toward a goal that is blocked
the second involves a desire to hurt or destroy the source of the pain, those things or persons who are symbols of the barrier.
196
How to fix resignation
Individuals will not ordinarily be responsive to praise or criticism, so they must be approached patiently, given renewed hope and self-confidence, and helped with establishing new goals and interests. Sometimes this can be accomplished by giving them added responsibility and an understanding that someone has confidence in them. If their self-esteem is not reestablished, such individuals often become marginal producers
197
__________ practiced by supervisors is particularly damaging to the organization when they use it to relieve themselves of the necessity of seriously tackling problems that are likely to be frustrating.
Rationalization
197
This is perhaps one of the most common and one of the most insidious defense mechanisms because it usually cannot be dealt with subtly.
Rationalization
198
In order that supervisors may provide appropriate guidance and counsel to subordinates, they must be familiar with
he personnel rules, policies, and practices governing such aspects of the job as selection of personnel, promotional systems, assignment policies, termination procedures, sickness benefits, retirement plans, disciplinary procedures, merit ratings, leaves of absence, contractual agreements between employees and management, and vacation policies.
199
Procedural Plans relating to SOPs
Guides for personnel in arrest warrants
Recording and processing crime scene
Incident reports
Traffic citations
200
Tactical Plans
Widespread civil disorders
Unusual crime problems
Civil defense needs.
Major disasters
These are designed as guides.
Must be basic, flexible, and adaptable to modification.
201
Operational plans
Guidance and direction to personnel in normal police activities
Deployment and distribution of personnel
Search for suspects
Search for lost persons
202
Auxiliary service plans
Recruitment of personnel
Public and community relations activities
203
Policies
Plans consisting of broad principles.
Guide personnel in general organizations objectives.
Generally established by top management or unit supervisors.
Are stable and change little.
204
Rules and regulations
Plans providing specific guides to conduct and performance.
Parameters for acceptable conduct.
Control explicit behavior.
Are subject to more rapid change than policies.
205
Rules
May be made at any supervisory level to implement policy
206
Division of work
Organizations structures
Function performed
Area
Clientele
Purpose
207
General orders
Establish policy.
The broad rules describing general objectives or the organization.
Somewhat permanent
208
Special orders
Issued to establish procedures or rules and regulations.
To carry out policy.
Changed occasionally.
209
Operational orders
Procedures in a particular event
Only for duration of event
Operations orders for athletic events, parades, fairs and other similar may only require minimal change to keep current.
Some are only used for one event ever.
210
Formal orders
Relating to operation of particular unit.
