Supplemental Study Guide Review Questions Flashcards
(162 cards)
1
Q
What does the AMS provide?
A
ECS (heating & cooling) Engine start Pressurization Engine and Wing Anti-Ice Water pressure Hot air leak detection
2
Q
The pressurization system consists of:
A
Cabin outflow valve Static pressure port Negative pressure relief valve Positive pressure relief valve Cabin pressure controller
3
Q
What provides air for the AMS?
A
Engine bleeds
APU bleed
External pneumatic source
4
Q
What is external pneumatic air used for?
A
ECS on the ground
Engine start on the ground
5
Q
Where is the external ground source panel located?
A
Lower fairing between the wings
6
Q
What is the primary use for APU bleed air?
A
ECS on the ground
Engine starting on the ground
Asssit with engine start airborne (
7
Q
How many bleed regulation valves are in each engine?
A
2 (1 high stage bleed valve and 1 engine bleed valve)
8
Q
Where is bleed air tapped from the engine?
A
6th and 10th stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)
System alternates between valves to regulate an adequate and safe pressure
9
Q
How would an APU or Engine bleed button show a detected leak?
A
An amber light illuminates on the button
10
Q
What does the Overheat Detection System (ODS) observe?
A
Engine bleeds, packs (air conditioning ducts)
APU bleed
Plumbing for the wing and engine anti-icing system
Trim air (rear cabin temperature control on certain Delta aircraft)
11
Q
How many ECS packs are on the aircraft? What provides air for the pack?
A
2 independent packs (left and right)
Each engine provides bleed air to its respective pack
12
Q
Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?
A
Yes, up to FL310
13
Q
What is the maximum altitude for single pack operation?
A
31,000 ft
14
Q
Where do the packs distribute air to?
A
Pack 1 - Flight deck/Cabin
Pack 2 - Cabin
15
Q
Can a single bleed source power both packs?
A
Yes, through the crossfeed valve
16
Q
How many recirculation fans recirulate air back into the cabin and flight deck?
A
2
17
Q
Which cargo bay(s) have ventilation fans?
A
Forward
18
Q
What cargo compartment(s) may we transport live animals? Why?
A
Forward
It has air circulation
19
Q
Pushing out the RECIRC button turns off?
A
Both recirculation fans
20
Q
What keeps the 3 avionic E-BAYS cool?
A
FWD & MID E-BAY (3 fans each pull air from cabin to bay)
AFT E-BAY (Natural airflow from cabin to bay)
21
Q
The AFT E-BAY has no fans but is it cooled?
A
Yes, from air flowing from PAX cabin and is expelled toward the recirculation bay
22
Q
Where does the CPC get Landing Field Elevation (LFE)?
A
FMS or manual control on pressurization panel
23
Q
Can the APU bleed be used for the anti-ice system?
A
No
24
Q
What happens when the XBLEED button on the panel is pushed out?
A
It manually closes the crossbleed valve
25
The DUMP switch is used for?
Emergency evacuation
Fast cabin depressurization
Smoke evacuation
26
What happens when the DUMP button is pressed?
Sets the ECS packs and recirculation fans to OFF
Controls the outflow valve to maintain the cabin altitude rate of climb at 2000ft/min up to 12,400 ft
When the cabin altitude reaches 12,400 ft it commands the outflow valve full closed
27
Will the DUMP button work when the pressurization switch is in the manual mode?
NO, it only works in AUTO mode
28
Does the DUMP button work in Manual mode?
NO, only in AUTO mode but packs and recirc fans will shut down
29
Why does the DUMP button have a red-raised border around it?
So you can find it in low visibility conditions in the flight deck
30
The Outflow valve can be modulates ____ or ____?
automatically or manually
31
The MAN mode position allows manual control of:
Outflow valve
32
In the Manual mode, will the cabin depressurize on landing?
No
33
What are the DOWN/UP positions used for on the CABIN ALT selector knob?
Manually closes/opens the outflow valve to decrease/increase cabin altitude
34
What is the LFE CTRL selector position on the pressurization MODE selector knob used for?
Allows manual input of the landing field elevation
35
Is the pressurization system still in the AUTO mode when LFE is entered manually?
Yes
36
What color is the LFE on the EICAS?
Green - FMS input
| Cyan - Manual input (an M will be in front of LFE)
37
Where does the CPCS get cruise flight level and landing elevation?
FMS before takeoff or CPCS calculates using ambient pressure
| LFE may be manually inputted
38
How does the FA know if the temperature setting knob allows control over temperature?
An ENABLED LED turns on when Pilot selects ATTND position
39
What does a white striped bar mean?
Indicates a non normal position
40
What emergency equipment is located on the flight deck (8)
```
Crash Axe
Escape Rope (2)
Fliashlight (2)
Oxygen Masks (3)
Life Vests (3)
Halon Fire Extinguisher
PBE
Heat Resistant Gloves
```
41
What lights does the annunciator test button not check?
Fire lights, GPU button, and parking brake ON light
42
How long will the emergency lights last once illuminated?
Approximately 10 minutes
43
How are the emergency lights powered?
Four dedicated Emergency Lights Power Units (ELPU) with internal batteries
44
When will the emergency lights automatically illuminate?
Provided the switch is ARMED, when the airplane loses electrical power
45
What are 3 ways the emergency lights can be turned on or automatically illuminate?
Electrical emergency, FA panel, or flight deck EMER LT switch
46
When will the reinforced flight dfeck door latch automaticall open?
30 sec after the EMERG ENTRY pushbutton is pressed if the INHIB pushbutton is not pressed
47
What happens if the flight crew pushes the INHIB button
Inhibits the EMERG ENTRY command from the flight deck door control panel in the passenger cabin for 500 seconds (8 min 20 sec)
48
Press and holding the cabin EMER ENTRY button for a short time iniates what?
EMER entry into the flight deck sequence starts
49
What is the purpose of the internal door handle vent flap?
Relieves residual cabin pressure prior to opening the door
50
What happens if a Pilot selects EMER on the audio panel?
A triple HI/LO chime sounds
51
What indication(s) are present to confirm whether or not the escape slides are armed or disarmed?
Armed - Red ARMED appears above the respective door handle
| Disarmed - Green DISARMED appears
52
What pressurizes the potable water storage tank?
Engine or APU bleed air
53
How many displays and instruments are on during initial aircraft power-up?
```
DUs 2,3
IESS
Clock
MCDU 2
CCD 1
Audio Control Panels
Compass backlight
Guidance panel
```
54
What is the width of the E170/175
85'4"
| 175 enhanced wingtip - 93'11"
55
If not turned on in the MCDU when does the DVDR Flight data recording automatically operate?
First engine start
56
How many DVDRs are installed?
2
| 1 FWD and 1 AFT
57
Can the CVR be erased?
Yes, when the aircraft is on the ground and the parking brake is set
58
How many PBEs do we have?
4
59
What is the APU used for?
Electrical and Bleed Air
60
What monitors and controls the APU?
Its own dedicated FADEC
61
How are the batteries used for APU start?
BATT 2 powers APU START bus
| BATT 1 powers the FADEC and EICAS for monitoring
62
What is the fuel source for the APU?
Right fuel tank
| Left fuel tank through crossfeed valve
63
What fuel pump is used for APU start? (3)
Batteries 'ON' only - DC fuel pump
AC powered aircraft - AC fuel pump 2
Right engine running - Ejector fuel pump
64
When does the APU electrical and pneumatic loading become available?
3 sec after the APU speed reaches 95%
65
Will the APU shutdown automatically if the APU fails to start within the normal start cycle time period?
Yes
66
What does moving the APU selector know to OFF do?
Initiates normal APU shutdown
1 minute cool down followed by a spooldown period
Pneumatics removed immediately
Electrical power removed after 1 minute cool down
67
Can the APU electrical power be used during the cooldown period?
Yes
68
If you need the APU 50 seconds into shutdown is there a way to get its use back?
Yes, just turn the APU master switch back to ON
69
Can the APU shutdown be cancelled?
Yes, move APU MASTER switch to ON before 1 minute cool down is complete
70
How can the APU be shutdown immediately?
APU EMER STOP button
| No 1 min cool down period
71
When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur?
Ground - All conditions
| Flight - Overspeed, Underspeed, FADEC critical fault
72
When do we get the red bar on the APU EMER STOP button?
An APU fire is detected
73
What happens when the APU EMER STOP button is pushed?
The APU fuel shutoff valve closes and the APU will shut down with no cooling period. A white stripe illuminates on the button
74
Does the cool down period apply to the EMER STOP button to the APU?
NO
75
What is the maximum altitude for operation of the APU bleed?
15,000 feet
76
What is the maximum altitude for APU operation?
33,000 feet
77
What is the maximum altitude for APU start?
30,000 feet
78
Up to what altitude may the APU assist in engine start?
21,000 feet
79
In normal operations on the ground, which tank does the APU burn from?
Right tank
80
How many networks make up the electrical system on the aircraft? Why?
2 independent networks
| Segregation and fault isolation
81
What components power the AC system?
```
2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
Inverter
Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
AC GPU receptacle
```
82
What components power the DC system?
2 NiCad batteries
3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU)
DC GPU receptacle
83
What is the AC electrical systems priority?
```
RAGO
On-Side (Respective IDG)
Inside (APU generator)
Outside (GPU if on the ground)
Cross-Side (Opposite IDG)
```
84
Which AC source has priority, the APU or GPU
APU has priority and will automatically switch when the APU is up and running
85
How can you tell that the APU generator has automatically taken over the electrical load?
AVAIL light on the GPU button, and the MFD electrical page shows green on APU icon
86
During "normal operation", will a failed IDG de-power the respective AC BUS?
No
| One IDG can power the entire electrical system
87
What are the two lights next to the IDGs?
Indicates which IDG must be disconnected
| Also associated with an EICAS message
88
When would the amber IDG oil indicator light illuminate?
High Oil Temperature, Low Oil Pressure (HOTLOP)
| Annunciation test button
89
What is the purpose of a TRU?
Convert AC to DC
90
What is the purpose of an Inverter?
Convert DC to AC
91
Can the APU fully replace a failed IDG?
Yes
92
What does it mean when the GPU switch says AVAIL?
Coltage/Amperage/Frequency are within limits
93
If the airplane is using the C GPU and the APU is started, what should the pilot be sure to do?
Deselect the AC GPU button so the power can be connected the next time it is used
94
What happens with BATT 1 selector ON or OFF?
ON: battery connected to the DC ESS BUS 1
OFF: battery powers HOT BATT BUS 1
95
What will charge BATT 1 and BATT2?
Any AC power source
96
In which BATT switch position are the HOT BATTERY BUSSES powered?
HOT BATTERY BUSSES are always powered regardless of the switch position
97
What is on HOT BATT BUS 1
```
Engine Fire Extinguisher 1A & 2A
Fuel Shutoff Valve 1
Hydraulic Shutoff Valve 1
Engine 1 OIl Level Indication
Courtesy/Service LIghts FWD
DC Ceiling Lights
```
98
What is on HOT BATT BUS 2
```
Engine Fire Extinguisher 1B & 2B
Fuel Shutoff Valve 2
Hydraulic Shutoff Valve 2
Engine 2 Oil Level Indication
Refueling Panel
Water & Waste System
CMC
```
99
Below what voltage would you have to call maintenance?
21 volts
100
Below what voltage must the batteries be charged?
22.0 volts.
| Ref SOP
101
How many batteries are required for APU start? How are they used?
2
BATT 2 powers the APU Start Bus
BATT 1 powers the APU FADEC & EICAS for monitoring
102
Is BATT 1 necessary to start the APU?
Yes
| BATT 1 powers the APU FADEC
103
Why does battery 1 have ON but no AUTO setting?
Battery 1 does not require automation during APU start
104
Why does battery 2 have an AUTO setting?
To allow it to power the APU START BUS
105
What is the minimum battery temperature for APU start?
-20*C on BATT 2
106
For APU start how would you bypass a cold battery ad what temperature is too cold?
DC GPU and <20*C
107
What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle?
For APU start is battery 2 temperature is
108
Can the DC GPU charge the batteries?
No
109
When will the RAT deploy?
Automatically deploys if AC BUSES are not powered
| Manually by Pilot (RAT manual deploy handle)
110
Is there an altitude restriction for operation of the RAT?
No
111
Will the RAT supply power immediately after automatic deployment?
No, there is an 8 sec delay during which time the batteries supply power
112
If you start an engine at the gate with the GPU, is the electrical system split? Why?
Yes
| IDG will power one side and GPU will power the other
113
What is available during an electrical emergency (batteries on during power-up)?
```
DU 2 and 3
Guidance Panel
CCD1
MCDU 2
Clock
IESS
Audio Control Panels
Compass backlight
```
114
Whenever the electrical load increases beyond the system limit what happens?
Load sheds galley and the right windshield heating
115
What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD?
Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight
116
Can the igniters be turned off during flight?
The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC disregards the command
117
What controls the engine?
FADEC
118
What controls engine starting and provides hung start, hot start, and no light off protection?
The FADEC
119
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
Only on the ground for a hot start, hung start, or no light-off
120
Is there protection for hot starts or hung starts during an in flight start?
No
121
How are engine thrust ratings controlled?
FADEC
122
What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach? When does it appear?
Minimum N1 for bleed requirements in incing conditions
| Configured for landing when anti-ice is ON
123
How is the N1 limit indicated on the EICAS?
Red tickmark on the N1 gauge
124
What sources are available for engine starting?
APU
Ground Source (huffer cart or air bottle)
Opposite engine (crossbleed start)
Windmill start
125
Where is external air for an air start connected? Will the crew have an indication when external air is connected?
Lower section of the wing fairing area
| Duct pressure is shown on the MFD STATUS page
126
What happens after 3 overspeed detection events within 30 sec?
FADEC will not relight the engine
127
What does WML mean on the engine indication?
Windmilling engine
| FADEC has detected a flame-out and the autorelight system is actuating the restart the engine
128
Where can the crew check engine oil quantity?
MFD Status page
129
What is ATTCS?
Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System
130
What does ATTCS do?
Provides max thrust reserve (RSV) according to current rate previously selected via the MCDU on the T/O Dataset page
131
What will trigger an ATTCS event?
N1 difference > 15% between engines
Engine failure during takeoff or go-around
Windshear detection
132
How can the Pilot command RSV power?
By moving the thrust levers to MAX position whenever the ATTCS is armed
133
When is thrust reverse available?
weight-on-wheels (ground use only)
134
Thrust reverser must be stowed below what airspeed?
60 KIAS
135
What position must the thrust levers be in to enable the thrust reverser trigger?
Idle
136
If the thrust lever is placed in the MAX REV position and then releases, it does what?
It is spring loaded back to the MIN REV position
137
What happens if a thrust reverse inadvertently deploys?
FADEC limits respective engine thrust to IDLE
138
Can you deploy the thrust reverser on an engine that has failed on the landing roll?
Yes, up to 30 sec following the failure, then it is locked out
139
What is a Flexible Thrust Takeoff?
Reduced thrust takeoff on assumed temperature
140
What is the maximum flex allowed?
25% reduction
141
If you input a flex of 34 that change it to 39, how will it affect your N1 target?
It will drop your N1 target
142
Use of reduced takeoff thrust procedures is not allowed on?
Runways contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice and are not allowed on wet runways unless suitable performance accountability is made for the increased stopping distance on the wet runway surface
143
Can you FLEX with windshear advisories in effect?
No
144
FLEX takeoffs are prohibited when?
Runway is contaminated
Windshear advisories are in effect and/or windshear is suspected
Runway performance does not allow for FLEX power
145
If you turn the START/STOP to STOP in flight, will the engine shutdown?
Not until the Thrust Lever is at IDLE
146
What happens to the bleed pressure during a crossbleed start?
Bleed pressure will drop and does not require the thrust lever to be adjusted to maintain pressure
147
What aircraft systems have fire detection and protection?
Engine
APU
Cargo compartments
Lavatories
148
The flight deck fire test tests which systems?
Engine fire
APU fire
Cargo smoke detection system
(DOES NOT TEST LAV)
149
What happens if you hold the fire test button for more than 10 sec?
APU will shut down
150
Are the flight deck and cabin protected from fire?
Yes
Flight deck - 1 hand held fire extinguisher
Cabin - 4 hand held fire extinguishers
151
Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine?
Yes
152
What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?
Closes the respective fuel SOV
Closes the respective engine hydraulic SOV
Closes the respective engine bleed SOV
Closes the X-BLEED SOV
153
Does pulling the engine fire handle discharge the bottle?
No
154
Will the Fire handle work without power on the aircraft?
Yes
| Fire Extinguisher, Hydraulic SOV, and Fuel SOV are on the HOT BATT BUS
155
Describe the engine and APU fire detection system.
Engine and APU monitored by two detector loops
156
What is an indication of an APU fire?
Fire Bell and Master Warning triple chime
Red stripe in the APU EMER STOP button
APU FIRE EICAS message
Master Warning Lights
157
Will the APU automatically shutdown on the ground for a fire? In flight for a fire?
On the ground - 10 sec after APU fire detection and the EMER STOP button has not been pressed
In flight - NO
158
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?
APU shuts off immediately without a 1 minute cooldown
APU fuel SOV closes
Red striped bar is replaced by the white striped bar, indicating the APU has shut down
APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates entirely red
159
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been dectected?
After 1 minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
160
What does it take for the APU fire extinguisher light to illuminate?
APU EMER STOP button has been pushed in when an APU fire has been detected
OR
60 sec after an APU fire has been detected and no PIlot action has occurred
161
When do we get the red bar on the APU EMER STOP button?
APU fire is detected
162
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question 20 (231 of 338)
