Surgery Flashcards
(219 cards)
What is a morton’s neuroma?
What symptoms does it usually present with?
treatment?
not a true neuroma! actually a mechanically-induced neuropathic degeneration that usually occurs in avid runners; sx include
- numbness and burning in the toes
- aching/burning that radiates from the distal forefoot to the 3rd/4th metatarsals
- when the 3rd/4th metatarsals are squeezed together, it reproduces the pain in the plantar surface and produces a clicking sensation (Mulder sign)
- sx worsened by walking on hard surfaces and wearing tight/high-heeled shoes
Treatment:
- metatarsal support (padded bilateral shoe inserts)
- surgical treatment if conservative management fails

What symptoms does a patient with morton’s neuroma usually present with?
treatment?
not a true neuroma! actually a mechanically induced neuropathic degeneration that usually occurs in avid runners; sx include
- numbness and burning in the toes
- aching/burning that radiates from the distal forefoot to the 3rd/4th metatarsals
- when the 3rd/4th metatarsals are squeezed together, it reproduces the pain in the plantar surface and produces a clicking sensation (Mulder sign)
- sx worsened by walking on hard surfaces and wearing tight/high-heeled shoes
Treatment:
- metatarsal support (padded shoe inserts)
- surgical treatment if conservative management fails

What symptoms do plantar fasciitis present with?
what is it usually caused by?
burning pain and point tenderness in the plantar aspect of the foot; worse with walking
common in runners with repeated microtrauma to the area

How do stress fractures usually pressent?
What are they normally caused by?
How are they usually diagnosed?
sharp and localized pain over a bony surface; made worse with palpation
caused by sudden increased in repeated tension/compression w/o adequate stress that eventually breaks the bone (avid runners/dancers or non-athletes who suddenly increase their activity)
diagnosed clinically, as x-rays are frequently normal but can sometimes reveal periosteal reaction in the site of the fracture
tarsal tunnel syndrome
what is it? how do patients usually present?
what is it usually caused by?
compression of the tibial nerve as it passes through the ankles under the flexor retinaculum -> burning/numbness/aching of the distal plantar surface of foot or toes +/- radiation to the calf
usually caused by ankle bone fractures

Tenosynovitis
what is it?
how do these patients usually present?
inflammation of the tendon and its synovial sheath, usually seen in the hand/wrist joints following a bite or puncture wound
pain/tenderness along a tendon sheath, esp with flexion + extension movements

elderly with multiple comorbidities presents with a hip fracture secondary to a fall. What is the next best step in management and why?
w/u for syncope - EKG, cardiac markers, CXR
surgery can be delayed for up to 72 hours to:
- address unstable medical comorbidities
- determine the etiology of his fall (which may be a possible syncope episode)
- assess preop risk prior to surgical intervention
how are femoral neck fractures classified and what are the risk associated with each?
intracapsular (femoral neck and head) - higher risk of avascular necrosis
extracapsular (intertrochanteric, subtrochancteric) - higher risk of implant devices (nails/rods)
pericardial tamponade
how does it present and what is the pathophysiology behind this? What can it lead to?
management?
hypotension that is unresponsive to IVF resuscitation
tachycardia
elevated JVD
acute bleed (>100-200cc blood) into a stiff pericardium (ø elasticity) results in a sudden increase in intrapericardial pressure that compresses the cardiac chambers, results in a compromised VR (elevated JVP) and CO (resulting in hypotension and compensatory sinus tachycardia)
can rapidly progress to pulseless electrical activity (PEA) with the ECG showing low voltage from the ensuing cardiac tamponade
emergent pericardiocentesis or surgical pericardiotomy to remove the blood and acutely reduce intrapericardial high pressure
pericardial tamponade
how does it usually present on a CXR?
normal cardiac silhouette due to the small amount of pericardial fluid
no evidence of tension pneumothorax
how do esophageal ruptures typically present?
severe retrosternal chest pain and mediastinal free air on CXR
prosthetic joint infection
when do these patients typically present?
what do the synovial fluid analysis usually show?
likely pathogen?
usually present months after surgery
synovial fluid - elevated WBC with PMN predominance
staph (usually s. epidermidis)
prosthetic joint infections
∆ btwn early- and delayed- onset of infection in terms of timing, presentation, and management?
early
- < 3 mo
- presents with wound drainage, erythema, swelling, +/- fever
- mgmt: removal/exchange of implant OR debridement and implant retention (keeping the implant)
delayed
- > 3 mo
- persistent joint pain, loosening of implant or sinus tract formation
- mgmt: removal/exchange of implant +/- debridement
there are two types (early vs delayed) of prosthetic joint infections. how do they differ in terms of pathogen?
early - s. aureus, GNR, anaerobes (SAG)
delayed - coag (-) staph, propionibacterium, enterococci (PECS)
Immediately after a prostetic joint replacement, your muscles will “<strong>SAG</strong>” because you are immobolized. After strength training, you will develop “<strong>PEC</strong>n<strong>S”</strong>
management for complicated diverticulitis with abscess formation?
CT-guided percutaneous drainage
surgery/laparotomy for drainage and debridement if standard treatment fails
acute diverticulitis
what are the two types and how do they present?
How are they managed?
uncomplicated - colonic diverticular inflammation resulting in LLQ pain, tenderness, fever, and leukocytosis. CT shows fat stranding + colonic wall thickening
- mgmt: bowel rest, oral abx, observation
complicated - diverticulitis with abscess, perforation, obstruction, or fistula formation;
- <3 cm - IV abx + obs; surgery if worsening symptoms
- >3 cm - CT-guided percutaneous drainage
- surgery for drainage and debridement only if drainage fails
when is surgery indicated for patients with acute diverticulitis?
- abscess - when CT-guided drainage does not control symptoms by the 5th day
- fistulas
- perforation with peritonitis
- obstruction
- recurrent attacks of diverticulitis
When is a tetanus immune globulin (TIG) ever indicated and why?
for dirty/severe wounds* in unimmunized, sub-immunized (<3 tetanus toxoid shots), or patients with ?immunization status, or those who are signficantly immunocompromised (HIV+)
(remember, TIG provides passive, temporary, but immediate immunity in these patients)
*dirty (contaminated with dirt, feces, saliva) or severe (puncture, avulsions, crush injuries, burns, frostbite) wounds are at higher risk for anaerobic growth environment favorable to Clostridium tetani
how does tetanus prophylaxis/management differ for dirty/major wounds in patients who have are fully immunized (> 3 tetanus doses) vs those who are unimmunized or sub-immunized (< 3 tetanus doses)?
fully immunized (> 3 tetanus doses) - tetanus toxoid vaccine if last booster given _>_5 years ago
unimmunized or sub-immunized (< 3 tetanus doses) - tetanus toxoid vaccine + tetanus immune globulin
how does tetanus prophylaxis/management differ for clean/minor wounds in patients who have are fully immunized (> 3 tetanus doses) vs those who are unimmunized or sub-immunized (< 3 tetanus doses)?
fully immunized (> 3 tetanus doses) - tetanus toxoid vaccine if last booster given >10 years ago
unimmunized or sub-immunized (< 3 tetanus doses) - tetanus toxoid vaccine
How does tetanus prophylaxis management differ in terms of clean/minor vs dirty/severe wounds in patients who are fully immunized (>3 tetanus doses)?
clean/minor - tetanus vaccine only if last dose >10 years ago
dirty/severe - tetanus vaccine only if last dose **>5 **years ago
How does tetanus prophylaxis management differ in terms of **clean/minor vs dirty/severe wounds **in patients who are unimmunized or sub-immunized (>3 tetanus doses)?
clean/minor - tetanus vaccine
dirty/severe - tetanus vaccine + TIG (tetanus immune globulin)
What is the equation for Aa gradient?
What is it a measure of?
What is a normal Aa gradient?
Aa = PAO2 - PaO2 = measure of O2 transfer from alveoli to blood
(PAO2 <strong>=</strong> FiO2 * (Patm - PH2O) - PaCO2/R <strong>=</strong> 0.21*(760-47) - PaCO2/0.8)
normal Aa is** <15**
T/F Aa gradient is normal in patients with reduced inspired O2 tension
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