Surgery: Exam 2 Flashcards

(138 cards)

1
Q

How does primary intention heal?

A

By the process of epithelialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What layers of skin are involved in primary intention?

A

Epidermis and dermis, w/o total penetration of dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do most sx wounds heal?

A

By primary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are used to close wounds which are closing via primary intention?

A

Sutures, staples, or adhesive tape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some examples when you would want a wound to heal by primary intention?

A

Well-repaired lacerations; healing after flap sx; sx incisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of wound healing would you want to pack gauze or use a drainage system?

A

Secondary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In what type of wound healing is the wound allowed to granulate?

A

Secondary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of wound heals slower, primary or secondary intention? Why?

A

Secondary intention bc there is drainage from infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Does secondary intention allow for minimal or broader scarring? Why?

A

Broader bc it is allowed to granulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of wound healing requires daily wound care?

A

Secondary intention=encourages wound debris removal to allow for granulation tissue formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some examples when you would want a wound to heal by secondary intention?

A

Skin tears; foot ulcerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some other names for tertiary intention?

A
  • Delayed primary closure (DPC on OR orders)

- Secondary suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is unique about tertiary intention wound healing?

A

The wound is purposely left open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When would a surgeon want a wound to heal by tertiary intention?

A

When a wound is contaminated=it’s able to be cleaned, debrided, and observed (typically 4-5d prior to closure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some examples when you would want a wound to heal by tertiary intention?

A
  • Healing of wounds by tissue grafts

- Wounds that result from incision and drainage of an abscess or other infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Use tissue GRAFTS instead of tissue substitutes

A

Use tissue GRAFTS instead of tissue substitutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What WBCs migrate to the wound in the first 24h in a wound healing via primary intention?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What processes/cells are occuring during days 3-7 in a wound healing via primary intention?

A
  • Mitosis
  • Granulation tissue formation
  • Macrophage and fibroblast migration
  • Angiogenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What factors/hormones are increased in tissue response to injury? Decreased?

A
Increased
  -ACTH
  -Cortisol
  -Aldosterone
  -Renin
  -Epi and NE
  -GH
  -Glucagon
Decreased
  -TSH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What occurs in the Early Phase of the metabolic response to injury?

A
  • Decr body cell mass
  • Vasoconstriction=so you don’t bleed out
  • Change in energy source
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What occurs in the Second Phase of the metabolic response to injury?

A
  • Water and salt diuresis
  • Incr appetite
  • Regain strength
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What occurs in the Third Phase of the metabolic response to injury?

A
  • Normal appetite

- Incr in physical activity, strength, and weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What occurs in the Fourth Phase of the metabolic response to injury?

A

-FAT GAIN PHASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the “newer view” of how skin/tissue heals (compared to the “traditional” inflammatory, repair, and remodeling stages)?

A
  1. Vascular and inflammatory stage
  2. Re-epithelialization
  3. Granulation tissue formation
  4. Fibroplasia and matrix formation
  5. Wound contraction
  6. Neovascularization
  7. Matrix and collagen remodeling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the role of fibronectin?
- Crosslinks w/ fibrin to provide matrix for cell adhesion and migration - Early component of ECM - Binds collagen and interacts w/ GAGs - Chemotactant for MACs, fibroblasts, endothelial, and epidermal cells - Promotes phagocytosis - Forms a component of the fibronexus - Forms scaffolding for collagen deposition
26
What is wound contraction?
Centripetal movement of the edges of a full thickness wound in order to facilitate closure of the defect
27
Wound is wound healing at its max?
~15d after wound creation-->important when removing sutures=removed at day 14 bc that's when healing is at its max
28
What makes the fibronexus?
Intimate association btwn the membranes of the myofibroblasts, intracellular actin microfilaments, and extracellular fibronectin fibers
29
What is the most common cause(s) for prolonged wound healing?
- Prolonged inflam phase | - Incr toxins and damaging proteases in wound compete for O2 and nutrients
30
What is the #1 rule about wounds?
Make sure it's CLEAN!
31
What are some local factors that affect wound healing?
-Vascularity -Infection -Pressure- Hematoma formation -Sx technique -Foreign body rxn -Topical meds -Dresings
32
What's imp regarding sx technique and wound healing?
You want to sew, NOT strengulate (suture technique)
33
Why is hematoma formation bad in wound healing?
- Means there's excess bleeding=media for bacteria to grow - Can incr tension on the incision * *Manage your deadspace!**
34
T or F, you can use ANY suture technique on ANY patient?
FALSE! Suture choice matters and differs from pt to pt bc each pt will respond differently to foreign bodies (like sutures)
35
What causes tissue ischemia in wound healing?
- Foreign bodies - Infection - Strangulation of tissue (from sutures)
36
Why is local ischemia BAD news?
- Decreases cell proliferation - Decr resistance to infection - Decr collagen production * *RESPECT BLOOD FLOW**
37
What are the ideal types of dressings used for wound healing?
Dressings that are semi-occlusive to occlusive=optimize humidity and cell migration **It's really MORE than just a dressing**
38
Deficiency in Vit A does what to wound healing?
Slows re-epithelialization, decr collagen synthesis, and ultimately incr infection
39
What "trace elements" are important for particular enzymes needed for wound healing?
- Zinc=DNA, RNA polymerases...deficiency=impaired immune response, decr protein and collagen synthesis, and interference w/ Vit A transport - Copper - Iron - Manganese
40
What two classes of drugs are esp important factors that affect wound healing?
- Glucocorticoids=directly inhibit wound healing | - Anticoags=Incr chance of hematoma formation
41
Catgut is an example of what type of suture?
Natural, absorbable suture
42
Polyglactin (vicryl) is what type of suture?
Synthetic, absorbable suture
43
Polyglycolic acid (dexon) is what type of suture?
Synthetic, absorbable suture
44
Polyglyconate is what type of suture?
Synthetic absorbable suture
45
Silk linen is what type of suture?
Natural, NON-absorbable suture
46
Polyamide (nylon) is what type of suture?
Synthetic, NON-absorbable suture
47
Polyester (dacron) is what type of suture?
Synthetic, NON-abosrbable suture
48
Polypropylene (prolene) is what type of suture?
Synthetic, NON-abosrbable suture
49
What synthetic, non-absorbable suture accommodates swelling?
Polyamide or nylon
50
What synthetic, non-absorbable suture has an antimicrobial component?
Polypropylene or prolene
51
When would you use vicryl sutures?
When closing up SQ and deep tissues
52
After 2 weeks, how strong is the surgical wound compared to normal skin?
3-5% of the original strength
53
After 3 weeks, how strong is the surgical wound compared to normal skin?
20% of ultimate strength achieved
54
After 4 weeks, how strong is the surgical wound compared to normal skin?
50% of ultimate strength attained
55
What are some general uses of absorbable sutures?
- Used in SQ tissues - Eliminates dead space - Minimizes tension on wound edges - May "spit" if placed too superficially
56
If using Surgical Gut sutures, what is the strength of the wound after 1 week? 2 weeks?
- 60% lost | - 100% lost
57
How are Surgical Gut sutures absorbed?
Proteolytic enzymatic degradation
58
How are Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) sutures absorbed?
Hydrolysis
59
If using Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) sutures, what is the strength of the wound after 2 week?
65% of tensile strength remains
60
What factors are important in deciding on a type of suture?
- Location of wound - Static and dynamic tension on the wound - Presence of infection - Potential for edema - Cost of suture material
61
What is the smallest suture?
7-0. Podiatric surgeons typically use 4.0-2.0 sutures
62
How long are plantar sutures left in?
At least 3 weeks
63
What is important when performing simple interrupted sutures?
Making sure you EVERT the skin edges
64
When would you use the horizontal mattress suture technique?
In longer wounds or calcaneal/ankle fractures
65
When would you use the vertical mattress suture technique?
When a pt has a deep wound; many variations and forms a straight line (far-far, near-near throw)
66
What is the goal of retention sutures?
Take tension off skin edges and provide deeper and wider support to the healing incision
67
What type of suture technique: - is technically demanding - leaves relatively no scar if done correctly - has a high rate of dehiscence if done correctly - is good foe elective surgeries
Subcuticular suturing
68
What are the pro's to using staples?
- Fast and easy - Allow for swelling - Easy to evert skin edges
69
What are the con's to using staples?
- Leave track marks | - Painful to remove
70
What is a keloid scar?
Overabundance of scar tissue formation due to collagen deposition that extends BEYOND original incision site
71
What is a hypertrophic scar?
Overabundance of scar tissue formation due to collagen deposition that DOES NOT extend beyond original incision site
72
What are the treatments for keloid/hypertrophic scars?
- Cortisone injections | - Scar revision
73
In regards to cortisone injections, what is the preferred drug?
Kenalog 40mg=injected directly into scar and away from healthy tissue-->decreases the level of collagenase inhibitors and increases collagen deposition
74
What is important in scar revision?
The length of the scar MUST BE 3X the width so you can bring the skin back together
75
In what stage of skin graft healing will you see a fibrin layer between the graft and host?
Plasmatic stage
76
In what stage of skin graft healing will you see revascularization of the graft?
Inosculation stage
77
In what stage of skin graft healing will you see a pinkish hue?
Inosculation stage
78
In what stage of skin graft healing will you see CT reorganize and regulate vascular and lymphatic flow?
Re-organization stage
79
What stage occur simultaneously w/ the re-organization stage of skin graft healing?
Re-innervation stage (may req 1-2 years to complete)
80
What are some post-op complications of skin grafting?
- Seroma formation (transudative fluid) - Hematoma formation (blood pooling) - Graft does not incorporate - Graft necrosis
81
What is the most common cause for graft failure? Second most common?
- Seroma or hematoma formation | - Infection
82
What are the 6 foot and ankle angiosomes?
- Medial calcaneal artery - Lateral plantar artery - Medial plantar artery - Lateral calcaneal artery - Anterior tibial artery - Dorsalis pedis
83
What type of skin flap gets its blood supply from the cutaneous dermal-subdermal plexus?
Cutaneous flaps
84
What type of skin flap gets its blood supply from a cutaneous artery?
Arterial flaps
85
A Limberg flap is used when the defect is of what shape?
Rhomboidal shape
86
What is the primary indication of a Z-plasty skin flap?
When you want to lengthen an existing structure (i.e., skin on a rigidly contracted hammer toe)
87
In a Z-plasty skin flap, the greater the angle the...
Greater the length gained (and vice versa)
88
What is a V-Y plasty used?
When you want to lengthen
89
In a V-Y skin plasty, the apex is proximal or distal?
Proximal
90
What is the primary source of blood supply to the skin?
Fasciocutaneous arteries
91
What arteries provide a blood supply to the skin?
Cutaneous, musculocutaneous, and fasciocutaneous arteries
92
What determines the success of a local cutaneous flap?
The presence of an artery at the base of the flap
93
Intrinsic muscle flaps of the foot are what type?
Type II- dominant vascular pedicle and minor vascular pedicle
94
A dorsalis pedis flap is an example of what type of flap?
Fasciocutaneous Flap
95
What is the degree of difficulty of skin flaps/restoration, from simple to complex?
Direct closure-->Grafts-->Local flaps-->Distant flaps-->Tissue transfer
96
What causes a neuropraxia?
Severe contusion to a nerve
97
With a neuropraxia, what happens to conductivity?
Transmission along the nerve is altered by DECREASED conductivity
98
What causes axontmesis?
Crushing injury to a nerve-->Wallerian degeneration
99
What is the worse nerve injury and what characterizes it?
Neurotmesis-->complete severence of a nerve which leads to irreversible damage (i.e., the nerve will NOT recover, but the pt might)
100
Relative to the site of injury to a nerve, where do you see swelling occur?
DISTAL to the injury
101
What are the functions of a Schwann cell?
- Promote nerve repair - Proliferation - Secretion of trophic factors and cytokines - Phagocytose myelin debris - Support of regeneration only lasts for 1-2 months
102
In a nerve injury, what cells are first to the site?
Neutrophils=phagocytose debris, modulate recruitment, activate other lymphocytes, and apoptose
103
In a nerve injury, what cells appear after ~1 week?
Macrophages=remove myelin debris; stay in axon for days to moths and return to circulation or die by apoptosis
104
In a nerve injury, what cells peak around 14-28 days?
T lymphocytes=help by supporting cellular and humoral immunity
105
Tapping along a nerve and producing "distal coursing pain" is what?
Tinnel's sign
106
Tapping along a nerve and producing "proximal coursing pain" is what?
Valleaux's sign
107
What is the specific plasma marker for skeletal muscle damage?
Skeletal troponin I
108
How to blood vessels respond to injury?
Stimulation of smooth muscle cell growth and associated matrix synthesis that thickens the TUNICA INTIMA forming a neointima
109
What are the stages of blood vessel healing?
- Inflammation - Fibroblastic - Remodeling * *Essentially the same as all other tissues
110
What occurs when blood vessels are in a state of hypoxia?
Local ischemia-->increase in VEGF which binds to cognate receptor tyrosine kinases-->new blood vessels are created (angiogenesis)
111
What are the signs ("6 P's") of vascular injury?
- Paleness - Palor - Pokliothermia - Polar - Pulseless - Pain
112
What is Buerger's test?
It's a special maneuver to test vascularity in the LE. It's the angle at which the leg is raised before it becomes pale...if a pt has infection, redness will NOT go away; if they have vascular problems, redness WILL go away
113
What's the name of "special maneuver(s)" to test the vascularity of the LE?
- Buerger's test | - The Brodie-Trendelenberg test
114
How is the Brodie-Trendelenberg test carried out?
- Elevate leg to 90 degrees - TQ around high thigh to occlude great saphenous v - Have pt stand - Evaluate the filling of the veins
115
A difference in ___ mmHg indicates pathology of the immediate PROXIMAL segment
>30 mmHg
116
What is the Gold Standard for diagnosing a DVT?
Venogram=direct visualization of the veins
117
What are the major differences btwn an arterial and venous hemorrhage?
``` Arterial -Pulsatile flow -Bright red blood Venous -Oozing -Red to dark red blood ```
118
What type of transfusion product is good for massive hemorrhages?
Whole blood
119
What does whole blood NOT have in it?
No platelets, nor Factors V, VIII, or XI
120
What is significant about Packed RBCs (PRBC)?
It gives you oxygen-carrying capacity w/o the added issue of more volume
121
What is the disadvantage to using Packed RBCs?
Anticoagulation (no platelets)
122
What is the minimum acceptable platelet level for elective surgery?
50,000 cells/microliter (ideally you want >100,000)
123
What is the typical dose for platelets during a transfusion?
6-10 units=300-400mls
124
1 unit of PRBCs=how many mls?
300 (+/- 50mls)
125
1 unit of whole blood=how many mls?
450 (+/- 50mls)
126
What are the advantages to using plasma + soluble detergent?
- Inactivates lipid coated viruses - Relatively inert - Consistent coagulation factors
127
When is plasma + soluble detergent indicated?
- Coumadin reversal - Coagulation factor deficiency - Multiple coagulation defects
128
When is cryoprecipitate indicated?
- Factor VIII/XIII deficiency | - Von Willebrand disease
129
What are the most common complications to all blood transfusions?
1. Infection (viral>>bacterial)=Hep C&B, HIV, CMV/EBV | 2. Transfusion reaction
130
What are the most common complications a/w RBC transfusions
1. Hypocalcemia/citrate toxicity 2. Hyperkalemia/acidosis 3. Hypokalemia/alkalosis 4. Hypothermia 5. Hemosiderosis 6. Pulmonary dysfunction 7. Hemorrhage
131
What is a way to avoid bacterial infections related to blood transfusions?
NOT leaving the transfusion pack outside of the refrigerator for >30mins
132
What blood type is the "universal donor"?
Type O (40%)
133
What blood type is the "universal recipient"?
Type AB
134
What is the most common acute hemolytic transfusion reaction? How is it characterized?
- Category 1 | - Characterized by pruritis
135
How is a Category 2 hemolytic transfusion reaction characterized?
Agitation, palpitation, HA, increased HR, DOE
136
What are the examples of delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
- Graft vs. Host disease (IC pts) - Alloimmunization (pregnancy, multiparity, h/o prior transfusions) - Anaphylactoid reactions (IgA deficiency)
137
What meds/fluid will be given to a pt experiencing delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
- IVF w/ NS/LR - Epi (0.05-0.1ml to prevent bronchospasm) - Antihistamine - Corticosteroids - HCO3 prn
138
How would you minimize the risk of non-hemolytic transfusion reactions?
- Slow the rate of transfusion - Use minimal volume expanding products - Diurese between each unit (i.e., Furosemide)