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Equine Clinics > Surgery Practice Questions > Flashcards

Surgery Practice Questions Flashcards

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1
Q 
Which of the following suture materials is not appropriate for closure of subQ tissues?
A. Polypropylene
B. Polyglactin 910
C. Poliglecaprone (monocryl)
D. Polydiaxanone (PDS)
A

A - Polypropylene

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2
Q

Which tools will be most useful for localizing a subsolar abscess?
A. Hoof pick, hoof knife, hoof testers
B. hoof pick, rasp, radiographs
C. hoof knife, hoof testers, ultrasound
D. Clinch clutters, hoof testers, hoof pick

A

A. Hoof pick, hoof knife, hoof testers

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3
Q 
Which of the following is not an appropriate method of post-operative analgesia in a horse that has had a small intestinal resection and anastamosis?
A. IV acepromazine
B. CRI lidocaine
C. IV flunixin meglumie
D. CRI butorphanol
A

A. IV acepromazine

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4
Q

True/False: a small portion of the tracheal rings must be cut to provide adequate access for a tracheotomy tube

A

False

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5
Q 
Which of the following products is available and FDA approved for IV injection?
A. Polysulfated glycosaminoglycan
B. GLucosamine
C. Sodium hyaluronate
D. Chondroitan sulfate
A

C. Sodium hyaluronate

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6
Q 
Which of the following clinical conditions is most likely to cause lameness?
A. Ringbone
B. Sidebone
C. Thrush
D. White line disease
A

A. Ringbone

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7
Q 
Which of the following would be inappropriate for skin closure of laceration of dorsal aspect of the metacarpus?
A. Vertical mattress suture pattern
B. Use of a reverse cutting needle
C. 3-0 suture size
D. Use of prolene suture material
A

C. 3-0 suture size

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8
Q

The radial carpal bone articulates with which of the following?

A

2nd and 3rd carpal bones

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9
Q 
Which fracture is most likely to be open?
A. Compression vertebral fracture
B. Spiral femoral fracture
C. Long oblique radial fracture
D. Sagittal navicular bone fracture
A

C. long oblique radial fracture

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10
Q 
Which of the following wounds would you expect to heal in the shortest time period?
A. Heel bulb laceration
B. Facial laceration
C. Carpal laceration
D. Tracheal laceration
A

B. Facial laceration

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11
Q 
Which of the following joints is arthroscopy not performed in?
A. Carpometacarpal
B. Radiocarpal
C. Femoropatellar
D. Femorotibial
A

A. carpometacarpal

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12
Q

rank the suture materials from earliest to longest absorption: polydiaxanone, polyglactin 910, polyglecoaprone 25

A

Polyglecaprone 25, polyglactin 910, polydiaxanone

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13
Q

Rank suture materials from earliest to longest absorption: Vicryl, PDS, Monocryl

A

Monocryl, vicryl, PDS

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14
Q

The osteoclastic layer of the periosteum is the:

A

cambial layer

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15
Q

There are 3 parts associated with a bone sequestrum: the sequestrum and the cloaca and the involucrum. New bone formation on the parent bone surrounding the osteolytic zone can be defined as the ______.

A

involucrum

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16
Q

How should a fracture be treated for transport to an emergency facility?

A

robert jones bandage, plus a lateral splint long enough to reach to or above the withers or the rump

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17
Q

T/F: Robert jones bandages should never be used alone as external coaptation in horses.

A

True

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18
Q

The two most common pressure points associated with half-limb cast application in the horse:

A

dorsoproximal cannon bone and the back of the fetlock

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19
Q

Incisive bone fractures are best treated by:
A. Bone plates and screws
B. Treatment will not improve the long term results
C. intramedullary pinning
D. orthopedic wiring

A

orthopedic wiring

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20
Q 
The most common scapular fracture involves the:
A. Supraglenoid tubercle
B. glenoid tubercle
C. Scapular spin
D. Olecranon
A

A. Supraglenoid tubercle

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21
Q

Which muscles originate and attach to the supraglenoid tubercle?

A

Biceps brachii and coracobrachialis

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22
Q

C/S associated with a horse with a fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle include:

A

weight bearing and shortened cranial phase of stride; swelling over the point of the shoulder

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23
Q

What fractures are associated with the disruption of the triceps apparatus?

A

Olecranon and humerus

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24
Q 
What is the size limitations for repair of humeral or femoral fracture in a foal?
A. 250kg
B. 100kg
C. 600kg
D. 500kg
A

A. 250kg

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25
``` Which is the most common fracture of MC3 in race horse? A. Lateral condylar B. Oblique or midshaft C. Proximodorsal slab fracture D. Medial condylar ```
lateral condylar
26
fractures of the proximal palmar cortex of MC3 are commonly associated with the origin of the:
suspensory ligament
27
``` Bucked shins most commonly occur in what type of horse: A. 8 y/o hunter/jumper B. 12 y/o race horse C. 3 y/o western pleasure horse D. 2 y/o race horse ```
D. 2 y/o race horse
28
``` What is the limiting factor in prognosis of the distal splint bone fracture? A. digital tendon sheath problems B. DDF tendinitis C. Suspensory desmitis D. SF tendinitis ```
C. suspensory desmitis
29
``` What is the most critical structure to evaluate in order to determine the prognosis after proximal sesamoid bone fracture? A. Suspensory ligament B. DDFT C. SDFT D. CHeck ligament ```
A. suspensory ligament
30
What is the most likely etiology of a fracture of the distal 1/3 of the medial splint bone of the left forelimb in a 5 y/o standardbred gelding? A. Direct trauma from the opposite foreleg B. Hyperextension of the fetlock during a race or training session C. Shot with a BB gun D. Direct trauma from ipsilateral rear leg E. Separate ossification center
B. Hyperextension of teh fetlock during a race or training session
31
``` The ddx for a horse presented for a "dropped" elbow that is unable to fix the carpus in extension includes which of the following: A. Fractured olecranon B. fractured ulna C. fractured distal humerus D. radial nerve paralysis E. All of the above ```
all of the above
32
A true splint results from:
tearing of the interosseous tissue between MC2 or MC4 and MC3
33
Bucked shins are common problem in young thoroughbreds. What is the proper name for this condition?
Periostitis of the dorsolateral aspect of MC3
34
total body water is approximately what percent of body weight in the adult horse?
60%
35
What is the normal volume of a horse's stomach?
10 L
36
What is the recommended dosage for potassium penicillin in the horse?
22,000 IU/kg IG qid
37
What is the mechanism of action of penicillin G?
inhibits cell wall synthesis
38
How is penicillin eliminated?
urine
39
T/F: Penicillin is more effective against rapidly growing bacteria than slowly growing bacteria.
True
40
``` Which is most likely to be effective against Pseudomonas spp.? A. Rifampin B. Penicillin C. Ticarcillin D. TMS ```
C. ticarcillin
41
Disadvantage of using oral chloramphenicol therapy in horses:
short half life requires frequent administration
42
MC used dosage for ceftiofur
2.2-4.4 mg/kg
43
What is the most sensitive indicator of renal pathology secondary to aminoglycoside toxicity?
urinary to serum GGT ratio
44
Mechanism of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMS)?
inhibits folic acid synthesis
45
Ceftiofur can be administered IM. T/F?
True
46
Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HyPP) is primarily seen in what kind of horses?
Quarter horses
47
``` Which nsaids are least expensive: A. flunixin meglumine B. ketoprofen C. phenylbutazone D. carprofen ```
C. phenylbutazone
48
extracellular fluid volume is greater in foals than adult horses. T/F?
true
49
``` Which one of the following antibiotics will likely penetrate the CNS? A. trimethoprim B. Gentamicin C. erythromycin D. ampicillin ```
A. trimethoprim
50
A potentially serious post-op complication of the streetnail procedure is...
rupture of the deep digital flexor tendon
51
Presented with yearling QH with club foot. Most likely etiology is...
DDFT contracture
52
SSFT is not a biomechanical force acting on the coffin bone in normal static equilibrium T/F
True
53
DDF tenotomy is a surgical tx option for a horse with laminitis and P3 rotation. T/F
True
54
WHat is quittor?
Infection and necrosis of the collateral cartilage of P3.
55
What is a keratoma?
Tumor of the hoof wall.
56
Degenerative joint dz of the pastern is aka...
high ringbone
57
stall rest for 8 weeks is recommended as a therapy for navicular syndrome. T/F
False
58
Midcarpal and carpometacarpal joints communicate. T/F
True
59
``` What suture material is most reactive when burried? A. vicryl B. supramid C. PDS D. Prolene ```
B. Supramid
60
Mepivicaine affects A-delta and non-myelinated nerve fibers. T/F
True
61
The primary muscle involved in fibrotic myopathy is _____.
Semitendinosus muscle
62
``` What suture material has the highest strength immediately post-op? A. silk B. vicryl C. prolene D. Chromic gut ```
B. vicryl
63
``` Which of the following is least appropriate for skin closer? A. vicryl B. nylon C. stainless steel staples D. PDS ```
A. vicryl
64
T/F: collapse of the 2nd carpal and radial carpal bones can be seen in carpal valgus deformities
False
65
Which band of the cecum is used to locate the right ventral colon?
lateral band of the cecum
66
Which is the appropriate surgical scrub? | Chlorhex followed by saline rinse or alcohol rinse
saline rinse!!
67
Tissue adhesives is an effective method for management of dead space. T/F
False
68
IM injection with legend is recommended. T/F
False
69
Adequan is a form of sodium hyalurnate. T/F
False
70
T/F: chondroitin sulfate is necessary for the synthesis of hyaluronate
False

Equine Clinics (1 decks)

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