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Surgical Technology > Surgical Technology > Flashcards

Surgical Technology Flashcards

1
Q

Competency does not include

A

Efficiency

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2
Q

Osteoclast

A

Breakdown reabsorbtion bone cells

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3
Q

Osteoblast

A

bone building cells

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4
Q

Osteocytes

A

Mature bone cell

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5
Q

Periosteum

A

Covers bone

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6
Q

Endosteum

A

Within the bone where the bone marrow is

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7
Q

Cortical bone

A

hard/compact

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8
Q

Cancellous

A

Soft/spongy and contains red blood cells

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9
Q

Arthritis

A

Inflammation of joints

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10
Q

Plantar flexion

A

Flexing down

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11
Q

Osteoprogenitor

A

Stem cell that is designed to become bone

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12
Q

Cortical is found

A

Below the periosteum and in the shaft/long bones

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13
Q

Cancellous (spongy bone) is found

A

at the end of long bones

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14
Q

Endosteum

A

Lines the marrow cavity

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15
Q

Basic requirements for homeostasis

A

water, food and oxygen

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16
Q

Parietal peritoneum

A

Lines the walls of the abdominopelvic cavity and the visceral peritoneum covers the organs in the cavity

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17
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

Contract and aid in moving the body

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18
Q

Smooth muscle

A

Helps push food through the GI tract and blood through the circulatory system

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19
Q

Mesentary

A

folded extension of the peritoneum that invests the abdominal organs to aid in keeping them in normal anatomic position

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20
Q

Mesentary attaches

A

To the small intestine and colon to the posterior abdominal wall

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21
Q

Pharmacology

A

Study of drugs and their actions

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22
Q

Emulsion

A

Drugs that cannot mix

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23
Q

Generic

A

advocated in the health care setting

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24
Q

Intraarticular

A

Inserted in joint

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25
Q

Passive transport

A

Process of drug absorption into the blood stream by cappillaries

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26
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

Drug molecules

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27
Q

Onset

A

Time it takes for a drug to take place

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28
Q

Nomenclature

A

Rule for naming drugs

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29
Q

Biotransformation

A

Metabolism

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30
Q

Peak effect

A

When drug is at its max effect

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31
Q

Hepatic first pass

A

enteral oral rectal through intestinal tract

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32
Q

topically

A

skin or mucous membranes

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33
Q

6 rights of drug handling

A

right patient
right drug
right dose
right route
right frequency
right documentation

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34
Q

Drugs are classified according to

A

body system physiological and therapeutic action

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35
Q

Chemical name

A

Composition and molecular

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36
Q

Subsequent counts are taken

A

during closing

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37
Q

Semi-restricted attire

A

Cap and scrubs

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38
Q

Male sex cells

A

Spermatoza

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39
Q

Female sex cells

A

Ova

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40
Q

Hippocrates

A

father of medicine

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41
Q

Imhotep

A

2500 BC, first physician of recorded history

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42
Q

AORN

A

Association of operating registered nurses

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43
Q

Analgesic

A

Relieves pain

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44
Q

Anesthetic

A

Loss of sensation

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45
Q

Anticholinergic

A

Blocks parasympathetic response

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46
Q

Antipyretic

A

Decrease fever

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47
Q

Antiemetic

A

Prevents nausea and vomiting

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48
Q

Cycloplegic

A

Paralyze

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49
Q

Fibrinolytic

A

dissolve

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50
Q

Miotic

A

Constrict pupil

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51
Q

Dantrolene

A

Treats MH

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52
Q

Epinephrine

A

Vasoconstrictor

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53
Q

Heparin

A

Anticoagulant

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54
Q

Thrombin

A

Topical hemostatic

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55
Q

Pharmacokinetic

A

Process of drug in the body

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56
Q

Mycology

A

Study of fungi

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57
Q

Ataxia

A

Lack of muscle coordination

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58
Q

Parasitology

A

Study of invertebrates that cause disease

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59
Q

antisepsis

A

Microorganisms located on animate living surfaces (skin) are destroyed

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60
Q

Indigenous microflora

A

microbes that live on the skin and inside the human body

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61
Q

HAI

A

Health care associated infections not evident until the pt has been discharged from the hospital

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62
Q

Nosocomial

A

Infection develops at health care facility

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63
Q

Mutualism

A

Both organisms benefit

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64
Q

Commensalism

A

One organism benefits but the second neither benefits nor is harmed

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65
Q

Parasitism

A

One organism benefits and the host is harmed

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66
Q

Binary fission

A

division that results in two identical cells

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67
Q

Staphylococcus

A

Common transmitted pathogen in the OR

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68
Q

Poliovirus

A

Is the smallest virus

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69
Q

DNA or RNA surrounded by

A

Protein covering called capsid which is composed of protein molecules called capsomeres

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70
Q

Asepsis

A

Without contamination

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71
Q

Cooley

A

Heart transplant

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72
Q

AORT developed

A

During Korean war

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73
Q

Pt self determination act

A

1990

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74
Q

AST is under

A

NBSTSA

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75
Q

Thymus located

A

Thoracic region

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76
Q

Adnexa

A

Accessory organs

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77
Q

Cystocele

A

a herniation of the urinary bladder

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78
Q

prefix nulli means

A

None

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79
Q

Petechial is

A

tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layer

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80
Q

The left eye indicated by

A

OS

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81
Q

The right eye is indicated by

A

OR

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82
Q

The secretion of excessive sweat is known as

A

diaphoresis

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83
Q

Cystitis

A

Inflammation of bladder

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84
Q

Specimen is

A

The removal of a sample of tissue for a pathological diagnosis

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85
Q

Resectoscope

A

A surgical endoscope that has the ability to morcellate or to fragment tissue

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86
Q

Hypogastric

A

region of the abdomen below the stomach

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87
Q

rectocele

A

Bulging of the intestinal tissue into the vagina

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88
Q

eneuclleation

A

surgical removal of the globe and accessory attachments of the eye

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89
Q

Atresia

A

The absence of a normal body opening duct or canal

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90
Q

ABG stands for

A

Blood gas analysis

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91
Q

Serous membranous sac lungs are covered in

A

Visceral pleura

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92
Q

Pharynx function

A

Is the passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system and for air into the respiratory system

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93
Q

Vocal cords are located in

A

the larynx

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94
Q

Trachea function

A

conduct air to and from lungs

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95
Q

metacarpals are located in

A

the palm of the hand

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96
Q

Salping/o

A

Fallopian tube

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97
Q

What does gas plasma sterilization use?

A

ethylene oxide

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98
Q

Unsterile personnel should stand a minimum of how many inches from the sterile field

A

12 inches

99
Q

What is surgical conscience

A

the legal motivation to practice proper aseptic technique

100
Q

Asepsis means

A

Absence of microbes

101
Q

What inch perimeter around an open peel pack is NOT considered sterile

A

1 inch

102
Q

What do immediate use sterilizers use to render sterilized instruments

A

Steam

103
Q

What type of surgery may you be required to wear a “sterile space suit”?

A

total joint arthroscopy

104
Q

Who can ask for a “time out” to be done prior to skin incision

A

the circulator ST or surgeon

105
Q

Accountability

A

The obligation to disclose details for evaluation to be held responsible for

106
Q

affidavit

A

A voluntary statement of facts sworn to be true before an authority

107
Q

allegation

A

a statement that one expects to be proven as true

108
Q

bona fide

A

in good faith of innocently

109
Q

case law

A

All legal decisions reported on a given legal subject

110
Q

complaint

A

the first pleading filed by plaintiff’s attorney in a negligence action

111
Q

defendant

A

in criminal cases; the person accused of the crime; in civil matters, the person or organization being sued

112
Q

deposition

A

A method of pretrial discovery in which questions are answered under oath

113
Q

Federal law

A

Jurisdiction is given to federal courts in cases involving the interpretation and application of the US constitution acts of congress and internation treaties

114
Q

Guardian

A

A court-appointed protector for a person incapable of making his or her decisions

115
Q

Indictment

A

The formal written accusation from a grand jury

116
Q

jury

A

A group of citizens that decides the outcome of a criminal or civil trial

117
Q

Larceny

A

the taking of another’s property without consent

118
Q

Liability

A

An obligation to do or not do something

119
Q

Malpractice

A

Professional misconduct that results in harm to another; professional negligence

120
Q

Negligence

A

Either the omission (not doing) or comission (doing) of an act that a reasonable and prudent individual would not do under the same conditions “departure from the standard of care”

121
Q

Purgery

A

intentionally providing false testimony under oath

122
Q

Plantiff

A

the person who initiates a lawsuit

123
Q

Precedent

A

A legal principle created by a court decision that provides an example or authority for judges deciding similar issues

124
Q

Standard of care

A

the expected conduct of a professional in a given circumstance

125
Q

Subpoena

A

A court order to appear and testify or produce required documents

126
Q

Tort

A

civil wrong can be either intentional or unintentional

127
Q

doctrine of personal liability

A

each person is responsible for his or her own conduct even though other might be liable as well, For example, even if an authority figure such as a physician assures the health care professional that he or she will take responsibility or an action the health care professional is still responsible

128
Q

Doctrine of the reasonably prudent person

A

persons should perform an action as would any reasonable person of ordinary prudence. in law the reasonable person is not a typical person but a collection of the community’s judgment as to how the typical community member should behave in situations that might pose a threat of harm to the public

129
Q

Primum non nocere

A

Above all do no harm

130
Q

re ipsa loquitur

A

the thing speaks for itself; harm obviously came from a given act or thing of which the defendant had sole control

131
Q

respondeat superior

A

let the master answer; and employer is responsible for the actions of his or her employees

132
Q

aeger primo

A

patient first guiding principle of AST

133
Q

doctrine of borrowed servant

A

the person who is controlling or directing the employee has greater responsibility than the one who is paying the employee

134
Q

doctrine of corporate negligence

A

A health care institution may be found negligent for failing to ensure that an acceptable level of patient care was provided

135
Q

doctrine of foreseeability

A

forseeability is the ability to predict an outcome in advance, that is the ability to reasonably anticipate that harm or injury might result because of certain acts of omissions

136
Q

tort law

A

describes any civil wrong independent of a contract and provides a remedy in the form of an action for damages

137
Q

Assault

A

an act that causes another person to fear that he or she will be touched in an offensive insulting or physically injurious manner without consent or authority to do so

138
Q

Battery

A

the actual act of harmful or unwarranted contact with a person including contact without proper consent

139
Q

defamation

A

slander (an oral statement) or libel (a written statement) that damages a person’s reputation or good name

140
Q

False imprisonment

A

the illegal detention of a person without consent or forcing a person to stay in an area by not allowing him or her to leave

141
Q

intention infliction of emotional distress

A

disparaging remarks made about a patient that results in emotional distress

142
Q

invasion of privacy

A

The disclosure of private information concerning a patient or photographing a patient without his or her consent

143
Q

express consent

A

a direct verbal or written statement granting permission for treatment

144
Q

implied consent

A

occurs under circumstances that would lead a responsible health care provider to believe that the patient had given consent although no direct or verbally express consent in written forms is the desired form of consent

145
Q

informed consent

A

agreement or permission accompanied by full notice about what is being consented to

146
Q

general consent

A

on admission to the hospital every patient signs general consent

147
Q

special consent

A

must be given for any procedure that entails an abnormal risk; surgical procedures, fertility and sterilization procedures, etc

148
Q

risk management

A

the effort by the hospital to collect and use data to decrease the chance of harm to patients and staff or damage to property

149
Q

advance directive

A

is a set of written instructions that address the right of an incapacitated patient to self determination

150
Q

patient care partnership

A

contains simpler language informing the patient about what he or she should expect during a hospital stay with regard to his or her rights and responsibilities

151
Q

HIPAA

A

Federal act that established privacy standards to protect patients’ medical records and other health-related information

152
Q

certification

A

recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard

153
Q

Licensure

A

Legal right granted by a government agency in compliance with a statute that authorizes and oversees the activities of a profession

154
Q

Registration

A

formal process by which qualified individuals are listed in a registry

155
Q

Iatrogenic injury

A

adverse outcome that results from the activity of health care professionals

156
Q

-able

A

able to be

157
Q

-ac

A

pertaining to

158
Q

-ad

A

toward in the direction of

159
Q

-ade

A

action; process

160
Q

-al

A

pertaining to

161
Q

-alis

A

pertaining to

162
Q

-amnios

A

Amniotic fluid

163
Q

-an

A

pertaining to

164
Q

-ance

A

state of

165
Q

-ancy

A

state of

166
Q

-ant

A

pertaining to

167
Q

-ar

A

pertaining to

168
Q

-arche

A

a beginning

169
Q

-arian

A

pertaining to a person

170
Q

-aris

A

pertaining to

171
Q

-ary

A

pertaining to

172
Q

-ase

A

enzyme

173
Q

-ate

A

composed of pertaining to

174
Q

-ated

A

pertaining to a condition composed of

175
Q

-atic

A

pertaining to

176
Q

-ation

A

a process being or having

177
Q

-ative

A

pertaining to

178
Q

-ator

A

person who produces or does thing that produces

179
Q

-atory

A

pertaining to

180
Q

-ature

A

system composed of

181
Q

-blast

A

immature cell

182
Q

-body

A

a structure or thing

183
Q

-cele

A

hernia

184
Q

-centesis

A

procedure to puncture

185
Q

-cephalus

A

head

186
Q

-cere

A

Waxy substance

187
Q

-clast

A

cell that breaks down substances

188
Q

-cle

A

small thing

189
Q

-clonus

A

condition of rapid contracting and relaxing

190
Q

-cnemius

A

leg

191
Q

-coccus

A

spherical bacterium

192
Q

-collis

A

condition of the neck

193
Q

-crasia

A

condition of a mixing

194
Q

-crine

A

thing that secretes

195
Q

-crit

A

separation of

196
Q

-cyte

A

cell

197
Q

-dactyly

A

condition of fingers or toes

198
Q

-derma

A

skin

199
Q

-desis

A

procedure to fuse together

200
Q

-didymis

A

testes (twin structures)

201
Q

-dose

A

measured quantity

202
Q

-drome

A

a running

203
Q

-duct

A

duct (tube)

204
Q

-eal

A

pertaining to

205
Q

-ectasis

A

condition of dilation

206
Q

-ectomy

A

surgical removal

207
Q

-ed

A

pertaining to

208
Q

-edema

A

swelling

209
Q

-ee

A

person who is the object of an action

210
Q

-elasma

A

platelike structure

211
Q

-elle

A

little thing

212
Q

-ema

A

condition

213
Q

-emia

A

condition of the blood substance in the blood

214
Q

-emic

A

pertaining to a condition of the blood or substance in the blood

215
Q

-ence

A

state of

216
Q

-encephaly

A

condition of the brain

217
Q

-ency

A

condition of being

218
Q

-ent

A

pertaining to

219
Q

-entery

A

condition of the intestine

220
Q

-eon

A

one who performs

221
Q

-er

A

person who produces or does thing that produces

222
Q

-ergy

A

activity process of working

223
Q

ery

A

process of

224
Q

-esis

A

condition abnormal condition process

225
Q

-etic

A

pertaining to

226
Q

-ety

A

condition state

227
Q

-flux

A

flow

228
Q

-form

A

having the form of

229
Q

=frice

A

thing that produces friction

230
Q

-gen

A

that which produces

231
Q

-gene

A

gene

232
Q

-glia

A

cells that provide support

233
Q

-grade

A

pertaining to going

234
Q

-graft

A

tissue for implant or transplant

235
Q

-gram

A

a record or picture

236
Q

-graph

A

instrument used to record

237
Q

-graphy

A

process of recording

238
Q

-gravida

A

pregnancy

239
Q

-ia

A

condition state thing

240
Q

-iac

A

pertaining to

241
Q

-ial

A

Pertaining to

242
Q

-ian

A

pertaining to

243
Q

-ias

A

condition

Surgical Technology (1 decks)

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