Survey of Anatomy Final Review Flashcards

(324 cards)

1
Q

CN VIII travels to the brainstem where it is relayed to the___ via ____

A

Vestibulocochlear
Cerebellum via vestibular nuclei

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2
Q

Vestibular nuclei sends signals to the

A

Spinal cord via vestibulospinal tracts
Extraocular motor nuclei
Thalamus
Cerebellum

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3
Q

motor function to maintain upright posture, balance, head position

A

Spinal cord via vestibulospinal tracts

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4
Q

coordinating eye movements, extraocular reflex

A

Extraocular motor nuclei

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5
Q

relays to somatosensory and motor cortex (spatial orientation of the body)

A

Thalamus οƒ 

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6
Q

coordinated input from CN VIII and from visual cortex (balance and smooth eye movements)

A

Cerebellum

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7
Q

Identify the consequences of this lesion

A

Total Right Eye Visual loss

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8
Q

Identify the consequences of this lesion (2)

A

Bitemporal Hemi-anopia

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9
Q

Identify the consequences of this lesion (3)

A

Left Nasal Hemianopia

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10
Q

Identify the consequences of this lesion (4)

A

right homonymous hemianopia

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11
Q

Identify the consequences of this lesion (5)

A

Left homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

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12
Q

Branches of the trigeminal nerve

A

V1 Opthalmic
V2 Maxillary
V3 Mandibular

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13
Q

How is the sense of smell unique?

A

neurons bypass the thalamus to synapse directly in the olfactory cortex/other limbic structures.

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14
Q

How are pediatric airways different than adults?

A

Narrow nasal passages
Obligate nasal breathers until 5 m/o
Obstruct much easier
Consider oral airways but not nasal
Anterior and cephalad larynx (glottis at C4 versus C6)
Longer, floppier, U-shapped epiglottis
Prominent tonsillar tissue
Shorter trachea and neck
Cricoid is narrowest portion of airway until 5 y/o
Post-extubation laryngospasm more common than in adults
Post-intubation croup

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15
Q

CO formula

A

CO= HRx SV

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16
Q

Pediatric renal function

A

Approaches normal by 6 m/o but could take until 2 y/o

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17
Q

4:2:1 Rule

A

First 10 kg: 4 ml/kg/hour.
Next 10 kg (11-20 kg): 2 ml/kg/hour.
Remaining weight (over 20 kg): 1 ml/kg/hour.

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18
Q

Identify the lesion

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula

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19
Q

Most common TEF type

A

Most common is esophagus with a blind pouch and lower esophagus that attaches to trachea (Type C)

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20
Q

Symptoms of Type C TEF

A

Breathing leads to gastric distension and feeding results in coughing, choking and cyanosis

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21
Q

TEF is associated with

A

congenital anomalies (VACTERL syndrome: vertebral defects, anal atresia, cardiac defects, TEF, renal abnormalities and limb dysplasia)

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22
Q

Anesthetic concerns for TEF

A

Copious pharyngeal secretions
PPV avoided
Low intravascular volume and malnourished
Retraction during ligation of the esophagus can obstruct mainstem bronchus

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23
Q

Pyloric stenosis metabolic abnormality

A

Hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

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24
Q

Anesthetic considerations for pyloric stenosis

A

Correct metabolic abnormalities first
NG to decompress
Increased risk for aspiration

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25
Viral URI in 3 m/o – 3 y/o Barking cough
Infectious Croup
26
Haemophilus influenzae infection 2-6 y/o Sore throat to complete obstruction quickly
Acute Epiglottitis
27
6 m/o – 5 y/o Peanuts, coins, batteries Stridor or wheezing
Foreign body aspiration
28
Prechiasmic visual field deficit
Glaucoma, optic neuritis
29
Chiasmic visual field deficit
Bitemporal hemianopsia (pituitary adenoma)
30
Post-chiasmic visual field deficit
Homonymous hemianopsias (parietal stroke, trauma, tumor
31
Papilledema
– optic nerve swelling due to increased ICP Bulging optic disc
32
Snellen chart
Visual acuity
33
(color matching Ishihara charts, red/green) Visual fields
Color vision
34
(confrontation test)
Visual Fields
35
Fundoscopic exam
(optic disc)
36
Cranial nerve VII Pathology
Facial nerve Physical exam: Assess changes to taste, salivation or lacrimation
37
Facial nerve palsy thought to be caused by viral infection/edema with rapid onset
Bell's Palsy
38
Chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton, w/ progressive stiffness of the spine Young adults, more common in males (peak at 20 & 30 years old) Back pain (improves w/ exercise), buttock, hip, or shoulder pain Systemic complaints (fever, malaise, fatigue, weight loss, myalgias) Restrictive pulmonary failure due to costovertebral rigidity, ILD Renal impairment Asymptomatic ileal & colonic mucosal ulcerations Secondary amyloidosis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
39
Complications of Ankylosing Spondylitis
Acute spinal cord or nerve compression, subluxation of the atlantoaxial joint, aortic regurgitation
40
__ % of our body weight is water
50-60%
41
ECF is made up of
The interstitial compartment The intravascular compartment
42
2/3 of body fluid is
ICF
43
1/3 of the body fluid is
ECF
44
The interstitial compartment contains __ of the ECF
80%
45
20% of the ECF is in the intravascular compartment as ____
Plasma
46
ICF most abundant ion
K+
47
ECF Most abundant Ion
Na+
48
Peptide hormone -> its main role is to regulate fluid balance in the body
ADH
49
ADH is produced in the ______ by osmoreceptors and the hormone is stored in the posterior pituitary gland
Hypothalamus
50
Osmoreceptors are sensitive to plasma osmolality and a decrease in _____ _____
Blood Volume
51
Target organ for ADH
Kidneys
52
ADH acts on the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts, making the tubules more permeable to water and thus
increasing reabsorption of water
53
During dehydration, what happens with ADH?
more ADH is released, thus increasing water reabsorption and resulting in less fluid loss
54
Secretion of ADH is decreased by
a drop in plasma osmotic pressure, increased ECF volume, and increased alcohol intake
55
They are produced in the bone marrow from fragments of megakaryocytes
Platelets
56
Lifespan of platelets
life span of approximately 5-9 days
57
How are old and dead platelets removed from the body?
by macrophages in the spleen & Kupffer cells in the liver
58
What role do platelets play in blood loss?
the formation of platelet plugs that seals holes in vessels & release chemicals that aid in blood clotting
59
Sperm production occurs in
in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and is called spermatogenesis
60
How long does spermatogenesis take in humans?
~74 days in humans
61
What organ produces estrogen and progesterone?
Ovaries
62
Monthly, follicles are stimulated by two hormones,___ & ___, which stimulate the follicle to mature, leading to the release of a mature ovum at ovulation
FSH LH
63
FSH and LH are produced where?
Anterior pituitary
64
What stimulates the release of FSH and LH
GnRH
65
Corpus leuteum secretes
Progesterone Oestrogens Relaxin Inhibitin
66
The uterine cycle begins w/ the ____ _____ which lasts from days 1 to 5
Menstrual Phase During this time the inner functionalis layer of the endometrium is released as menstrual fluid
67
As the growing follicle in the ovary begins to produce the hormone estrogen (days 6 – 14)
The proliferative Phase
68
The final phase of the uterine cycle, lasting from days 14 to 28 The corpus luteum produces progesterone resulting in an increased vascularity, changing the inner layer of secretory mucosa. If fertilization does not occur, hormone levels fall & the endometrial cells degenerate and slough off
The Secretory Phase
69
Contractions intensify & the amniotic membrane ruptures
Stage 1 of Labor
70
Contractions continue at a now regular pace (60-90 seconds every 3-5 minutes)
Stage 2 of Labor
71
After delivery of the baby, uterine contractions continue so that the placenta separates from the uterine wall
Stage 3 of Labor
72
process of maintaining a stable internal environment
Homeostasis
73
hormones that are secreted into the blood and have an effect on cells distant from those that released the hormone (can also act locally, even on the cells that secrete them)
Endocrine
74
refers to hormones that act locally and diffuse to the cells in the immediate neighborhood to produce their action
Paracrine
75
refers to hormones that act on the cells that produce it
Autocrine
76
refers to glands and organs that secrete substances into ducts that eventually lead to the outside of the body (sweat glands)
Exocrine
77
Chemical messengers that are secreted into the blood or the extracellular fluid by one cell & have an effect on the function of other cells
Hormones
78
cannot cross the cell membrane. Their receptors are found on the cell wall and exert their influence via signal transduction
Peptide Hormones
79
are lipid soluble and small, allowing them to freely cross the cell membrane
Steroid hormones Receptors are found within the cell itself Normally exert their effect by stimulating transcription and translation
80
Not a steroid hormone but is lipid soluble and small, allowing it to diffuse easily across the cell membrane
Thyroid Hormone
81
Hormone concentration at the target cell is determined by
the rate of hormone production the rate of hormone delivery the half life of the hormone
82
οƒ  Translation/expression of more cellular receptors in response to low circulating levels of a hormone the cell becomes more responsive to the presence of the hormone
Upregulation
83
reduction (involution) of the number of cellular receptors often in response to prolonged periods of high circulating levels of a hormone the cell becomes less responsive to the hormone (desensitized)
Downregulation
84
Two portal circulations in the human body
The connection between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland Hepatic portal circulation that merges to form the portal vein entering the liver
85
The influence of a stimulus leads to hormone release. There are three types
Humeral Neural Hormonal
86
# Define type of response response to changing levels of ions and/or nutrients in the blood (ex: parathyroid hormone release is stimulated by decreased serum concentration of calcium ions)
Humeral
87
direct nervous stimulation (ex: the release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla)
Neural
88
response to hormones released by other organs, normally in a rhythmical pattern (ex: release of TSH from the anterior pituitary directly stimulating the release of T4 from the thyroid gland)
Hormonal
89
Initial stimulus leads to release of hormone Hormone exerts effect on target organ Some aspect of organ function feeds back into the system
Negative Feedback inhibiting further hormone release/ Negative feedback loop
90
The hypothalamus is directly connected to the pituitary gland via
the pituitary stalk (infundibulum)
91
The hypothalamus connects the nervous system to the endocrine system via
The Pituitary Gland
92
Increased serum hormone levels are detected by hypothalamic hormone receptors, which in turn
downregulates release of that hormone
93
Neurohypophysis
(posterior lobe) of pituitary gland
94
Adenohypophysis
(anterior lobe) of Pituitary gland
95
The Posterior Lobe (Neurohypophysis) releases 2 hormones that it receives directly from the hypothalamus
Oxytocin ADH
96
οƒ  effects uterine contraction in childbirth & is responsible for the release of breast milk in response to suckling. In men and non-pregnant women, it plays a role in sexual arousal and orgasm
Oxytocin
97
increases water retention by the kidneys by increasing the permeability (aquaporin channels) of the collecting ducts in the kidneys
ADH
98
The ____ Lobe of the pituitary gland is much larger and is composed of glandular tissue to produce and release several hormones
Anterior Lobe of Pituitary
99
Control of the anterior pituitary is affected by
releasing or inhibiting factors from the hypothalamus
100
There are 5 types of pituitary cells in the anterior pituitary
Somatotropes Lactotropes Thyrotropes Gonadotropes Corticotropes
101
Release Growth hormone (GH)
Somatotropes
102
secrete prolactin (PRL)
Lactotropes
103
: secrete thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Thyrotropes
104
secrete luteinizing hormone (LH) & follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Gonadotropes
105
secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Corticotropes
106
released from the hypothalamus to stimulate the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary
Growth hormone releasing factor
107
Growth hormone releasing factor is inhibited by
the release of somatostatin by the hypothalamus, producing a negative feedback loop
108
Growth hormone promotes the growth of bone, cartilage and soft tissue by stimulating the production and release of
insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
109
stimulates the secretion of milk from the breast
Prolactin
110
Secretion of prolactin is inhibited by
the release of dopamine from the hypothalamus
111
FSH Function in Males
FSH stimulates sperm production
112
FSH Function in Females
FSH leads to the early maturation of ovarian follicles and estrogen secretion
113
LH Function in Males
stimulation of testosterone secretion in males
114
LH Function in Females
responsible for the final maturation of the ovarian follicles and estrogen secretion in females
115
In males and females, LH and FSH production are regulated by the release of
gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus
116
Testosterone and estrogen exert a negative feedback effect on release
gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus
117
TSH is produced & released in response to
the release of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus
118
The release of TRH from the hypothalamus is inhibited by
somatostatin
119
TSH stimulates thyroid gland cells to increase the production and secretion
of T4 and T3 (thyroid hormones)
120
stimulates the production of cortisol & androgens from the adrenal cortex2
ACTH
121
leads to the production of aldosterone in response to: increased serum concentration of potassium ions increased angiotensin levels decreased total body sodium
ACTH
122
ACTH is secreted from the anterior pituitary in response to
the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus
123
Excitation of the hypothalamus by any form of stress leads to the release of CRH &
the subsequent release of ACTH, then cortisol
124
the amount of energy expended while at rest in a temperate environment
Basal metabolic rate (BMR
125
As the BMR increases energy requirements
oxygen consumption is also increased
126
C cells found between thyroid follicles secrete
calcitonin which is involved in the metabolism of calcium and phosphorus.
127
Calcitonin decreases calcium levels in the blood by
reducing the activity of osteoclasts (cells that digest bone and release calcium and phosphorus into the blood) and inhibiting the reabsorption of calcium from urine
128
the single most important hormone for the control of calcium balance in the body
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)
129
_______ hormone has the following functions: Increasing intestinal calcium absorption Stimulating renal calcium absorption Stimulating osteoclast activity, thereby increasing reabsorption of calcium from the bones
Parathyroid
130
is involved in muscle contraction, transmission of nervous impulses, & is required for the creation of clotting factors in the blood
Calcium
131
Reduced blood calcium level leads to
an increase in the synthesis & secretion of parathyroid hormone
132
a hormone released by the kidneys in response to decreases in calcium ions in the blood & inhibits calcitonin release from the thyroid gland
Calcitrol
133
the inner portion of the adrenal gland & comprises 30% of the total mass of the adrenal gland
Adrenal medulla
134
The function of the ____ ____ the secretion of catecholamines: epinephrine, norepinephrine, & dopamine
Adrenal medulla
135
Secetion of ___ and ____ is actively controlled by the hypothalamus and occurs in response to: pain, anxiety, excitement, hypovolemia, & hypoglycemia
epi and Norepi
136
have a very short half-life in blood of less than 2 minutes as they undergo rapid enzymatic degradation
Catecholamines
137
produces the mineralocorticoids
Zona Glomerulosa
138
produces the glucocorticoids
Zona Fasciulata
139
this zone is also involved in the production of glucocorticoids but also produces small amounts of adrenal sex hormones (the gonadocorticoids)
Zona Reticularis
140
A group of hormones whose main function is the regulation of the concentration of electrolytes in the blood
Mineralcorticoids
141
accounts for 95% of all the mineralocorticoids & is the most potent
Aldosterone
142
Reduces the excretion of sodium in the urine by regulating the reabsorption of sodium in the distal renal tubules. Sodium is exchanged for potassium & hydrogen which are excreted in urine
Aldosterone
143
Aldosterone secretion is primarily induced by _________ ___ in response to: Increased serum potassium Decreased serum sodium Decreased blood pressure Hypovolemia
Angiotensin II
144
Influence the metabolism of most body cells Promote glycogen storage in the liver Stimulate the generation of glucose during fasting Involved in providing resistance to stressors Potentiate the vasoconstrictor effect of catecholamines Decrease the permeability of vascular endothelium Promote the repair of damaged tissues Suppress the immune system Suppress the inflammatory response
Glucocorticoid effects
145
normally released in a rhythmical pattern, with most being released shortly after rising from sleep & the lowest released after sleep commences
cortisol
146
release is stimulated by ACTH from the anterior pituitary gland. ACTH secretion is regulated by release of CRH from the hypothalamus
Cortisol
147
Increasing levels of cortisol have a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus & the pituitary gland, inhibiting further release of
both CRH and ACTH
148
the site of the endocrine cells of the pancreas
islets of Langerhans
149
Major cell types of Islets
Alpha Beta Delta
150
Cells that secrete somatostatin
Delta Cells
151
Cells that secrete insulin
Beta Cells
152
Cells that secrete glucagon
Alpha Cells
153
How are islet cells arranged in the pancreas?
The different cell types w/in each islet are distributed in a set pattern, w/ beta cells being the central portion of the islet, surrounded by alpha & delta cells
154
What inhbits insulin secretion?
Alpha-adrenergic agonists & somatostatin
155
facilitates glucose & potassium transport across cell membranes, increases glycogen synthesis, & inhibits lipolysis
Insulin
156
the result of insulin deficiency, resistance to insulin during stress, or medications. Treatment of DKA is with volume replacement, correction of electrolyte abnormalities (replete potassium), identification & treatment of underlying stressors or precipitants, &supportive care.
DKA Diabetic ketoacidosis
157
reduces blood glucose levels by: Facilitating the entry of glucose into muscle, adipose tissue & several other tissues The brain and liver do not require insulin to facilitate the uptake of glucose Stimulating the liver to store glucose in the form of glycogen
Insulin
158
The half-life of insulin is approximately
5 Mins Broken down in the liver
159
has an important role in maintaining normal blood glucose levels
Glucagon
160
secretion is stimulated in response to a reduction in blood glucose concentration & elevated blood levels of amino acids (after a protein-rich meal)
glucagon
161
Stimulates the breakdown of glycogen stored in the liver Activates hepatic gluconeogenesis (creation of glucose from substances such as amino acids)
Glucagon
162
has the opposite effect on blood glucose levels to insulin
Glucagon
163
autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic beta cells resulting in an absolute insulin deficiency Patients are generally thin, diagnosed at an early age, sensitive to small amounts of insulin, & prone to ketoacidosis.
Type I Diabetes Mellitus
164
insufficient blood insulin concentration due to either impaired insulin production or insulin resistance Patients require high insulin levels to a maintain euglycemia
Type II Diabetes Mellitus
165
inability of the hypothalamus to produce adequate amounts of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Diabetes Insipidus
166
high blood glucose that develops at any time during pregnancy in a woman who doesn’t have diabetes. May predispose to development of type II diabetes later in life
Gestational Diabetes
167
due to other causes of absolute or relative insulin insufficiency. Insulin hyposecretion is seen with pancreatic destruction due to cystic fibrosis, pancreatitis, hemochromatosis, cancer, & after pancreatic surgery
Secondary Diabetes
168
Caused by the secretion of vasoactive substances (serotonin, histamine) from enterochromaffin tumors (carcinoid tumors)
Carcinoid syndrome
169
products of ___-_____ _____ _____(pulmonary, hepatic & ovarian) bypass the portal circulation, causing systemic manifestations Cutaneous flushing, bronchospasm, profuse diarrhea, blood pressure lability, & supraventricular arrhythmias
Non-Intestinal Carcinoid Tumors
170
Patients with glucocorticoid deficiency require
adequate steroid replacement therapy during the perioperative period
171
A vascular tumor of chromaffin tissue (most commonly in the adrenal medulla) that produces and secretes norepinephrine, epinephrine, & dopamine 10% are bilateral, 10% are metastatic, & 25% are familial. The classic presentation includes palpitations, headache, diaphoresis, & HTN
Pheochromacytoma
172
Maintenance of homeostasis (esp. electrolyte levels and fluid balance) Metabolism Growth and development Response to stress
Major functions of the endocrine system
173
Composed of the brain and spinal cord Only 2% of our body weight Receives 20% of oxygenated blood Most protected organ in the body
Central nervous system
174
Cerebral cortex, white matter, basal ganglia, hippocampus, amygdala
Cerebrum
175
Thalamus, hypothalamus
Diencephalon
176
Midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
Brain Stem
177
Interhemispheric fissure
Falx Cerebri
178
Hemispheres are connected by a large C-shaped fiber bundle, the____ _____, which carries information between the two hemispheres
corpus Callosum
179
horizontal fissure that separates the temporal lobe
Lateral fissure (of Sylvian
180
transverse fissure that separates the frontal and parietal lobes
Central sulcus of Rolando
181
Folds of the cortex
Gyrus
182
Motor of the frontal Lobe
Precentral gyrus Premotor Supplementary motor area
183
higher level thinking, personality, insight, foresight, reward, problem solving
Prefrontal cortex
184
– motor mechanisms of speech Left hemisphere
Broca's area
185
controls voluntary movement of the eyes
Frontal Eye field
186
Where is Wernicke's area located in the brain
(parietal vs temporal) – generally described as near the Sylvian fissure
187
Primary auditory cortex location
Temporal lobe
188
Occipital lobe function
Vision Primary and secondary visual cortexes orientation, spatial-frequency, color
189
Plays role in motivation, emotion, learning, consciousness, memory and much more
Limbic system
190
Parkinson’s, Depression, PTSD, ADD, Autism Schizophrenia, Alzheimer’s, Narcolepsy
Diseases of the limbic system
191
Series of nuclei within the motor, limbic, and sensory systems Process info to aid in fine-tuning motor response/coordination, movement generation Parkinson’s disease is an example of pathology within this system
Basal Ganglia
192
Formation of episodic memories and long-term storage; association of memories with various senses Neural plasticity and learning new things; new neurons can be made here Spatial orientation
Hippocampus
193
acts as a relay station for sensory impulses going to the cerebral cortex and integrates motor responses
Thalamus
194
closely associated with the posterior pituitary gland and produces two hormones: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and Oxytocin
Hypothalamus
195
Controls body temperature, autonomic responses, fluid balance and thirst, appetite control, emotional reactions in concert with the limbic system, and control of sexual behaviors
Hypothalamus
196
linked to the pineal gland, which secretes the hormone melatonin responsible for sleep/wake cycles
Epithalamus
197
Regulates motor control via input from the sensory system, the spinal cord and other parts of the brain
Cerebellum
198
a lack of balance, slowed movements, loss of equilibrium and tremors. May also affect motor learning in humans
Damage to the Cerebellum
199
allows you to maintain your gaze fixed on an object even when your head moves
Vestibuloocular reflex
200
Associated with cranial nerves 3-12 and essential life functions
Brainstem
201
conduction pathway that connects the cerebrum with lower brain structures and the spinal cord Visual and auditory data, consciousness
Midbrain
202
conduction pathway that communicates with the cerebellum Subconscious somatic and visceral motor functions Works with the medulla oblongata to control rate and depth of respiration
Pons
203
relays to thalamus coordinating visceral autonomic areas that control the cardiac, respiratory, and vasomotor centers Controls coughing, sneezing, and vomiting
Medulla Oblongata
204
demyelination of neurons in the pons caused by alcoholism, malnutrition, or rapid correction of hyponatremia οƒ paralysis, dysphagia, dysarthria
Central Pontine myelinolysis (CPM
205
Locked-in Syndrome can be caused by
a ventral pontine stroke οƒ  complete loss of voluntary muscle function except for some eye-movements and blinking, but no damage to cortical structures (intact comprehension, cognition, and reasoning = awake and aware)
206
Purely sensory Cranial nerves
(I, II, VIII) Have ganglia in the periphery CN I – Olfactory CN II – Optic CN VIII – Vestibulocochlear
207
Purely Motor Cranial nerves
(III, IV, VI, XI, XII) Cell bodies are in their respective nuclei in the brainstem
208
Both Sensory and motor cranial nerves
V, VII, IX, X) CN V – Trigeminal CN VII – Facial CN IX – Glossopharyngeal CN X - Vagus
209
# Afferent/Efferent Somatic sensory (body wall) Visceral sensory (internal organs) Special sensory Smell Vision Taste Hearing Equilibrium
Afferent
210
# Afferent/Efferent Somatic motor Visceral motor (parasympathetic)
Efferent
211
when a sensory stimulus is sent to the spinal cord, which immediately sends a motor response back to the same location, bypassing higher level processing in the brain
reflex arc
212
Sensory Gag reflex
Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN XI) Sensory stimulus to the posterior/base of tongue and walls of oropharynx
213
Motor Gag Reflex
Vagus nerve (CN X) Motor stimulus involving brisk elevation of the soft palate and bilateral contraction of pharyngeal musclesΒ  May evoke retching and vomiting in some, more sensitive patients
214
A protective reflex that is in place to prevent gastric contents from entering the trachea and pulmonary tree
Glottic closure reflex
215
Glottic closure reflex-Sensory
Superior laryngeal nerve (branch of Vagus nerve, CN X) Sensory stimulus around and above the level of the vocal cords Recurrent laryngeal nerve (branch of Vagus nerve, CN X) Sensory stimulus below the vocal cords and upper part of trachea
216
Glottic closure reflex- Motor
Recurrent laryngeal nerve (branch of Vagus nerve, CN X) Supplies all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which contract and close the glottis Exaggerated response can lead to Laryngospasm
217
Paired internal carotid arteries and Paired vertebral arteries form an anastamotic circle
Circle of Willis
218
of pairs of spinal nerves
31
219
Caudal end of spinal cord
Conus medullaris L1-2
220
extends to coccyx and anchors the cord
Filum terminale
221
What meningeal space contains the CSF
Subarachnoid space
222
the cell bodies/synapses occur in
the grey matter
223
axons occur in the
White matter
224
medial lemniscus tract (fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus) οƒ  deep touch, conscious proprioception, vibration
Dorsal Column
225
anterior and posterior) οƒ  unconscious proprioception
Spinocerebellar tracts
226
Lateral Spinothalamic tract
pain, temperature)
227
Anterior Spinothalamic tract
light touch
228
Pyramidal (Anterior and lateral corticospinal
voluntary movement, finalization of movement
229
Extrapyramidal
involuntary movement, initiation of movement
230
Branches from the left side of the descending aorta somewhere around T8-L2 via lumbar or intercostal arteries Important supply for the watershed area in the thoracolumbar region of the SC
Artery of Adamkewicz
231
Vertebral Arterby branches into
Single Anterior Spinal Artery which supplies the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord 2 Posterior Spinal Arteries which supplies the posterior 1/3 of the spinal cord
232
occlusion of A of A leads to anterior cord ischemia-> loss of motor function, pain & temperature
Anterior Spinal Artery syndrome
233
caused by diminished perfusion of anterior lumbar spinal cord leading to loss of motor function and sensory function carried by the anterior columns including pain and temperature (sparing proprioception within the dorsal column which is supplied by the posterior spinal artery)
Anterior Spinal Cord syndrome
234
skull fracture, rupture of middle meningeal artery Biconvex shape LOC ->β€œlucid interval” ->deterioration
Epidural
235
Deceleration/acceleration injury; shaken-baby; elderly or alcoholics Rupture of bridging vein Crescent shape
Subdural
236
Trauma or ruptured aneurysm Thunderclap headache
Subarachnoid
237
Stroke Symptom onset can be minutes to hours
Intracerebral
238
Flow of CSF
Choroid plexus in the lateral ventricles via interventricular foramen (of Monro) -> third ventricle ->cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) -> fourth ventricle -> Foraminae of Magendie and Luschka -> subarachnoid space (brain and SC) ->dural venous sinuses -> absorbed
239
How much CSF is produced in one day?
500 mL/day
240
Highly selective semipermeable membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain due to β€œtight junctions” between endothelial cells in CNS vessels
BBB
241
measured in the lateral ventricles or over the cerebral cortex and is Normally 10 mm Hg or less
ICP
242
headache, nausea/vomiting, seizures, change in consciousness, slow/surred speech, vision changes
Elevated ICP Symptoms
243
Normal autoregulation of CPP occurs between
50-150 mmHg
244
pupillary dilation, Cushing’s triad (hypertension/widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, respiratory depression)
Signs of brain herniation
245
transverse temporal gyrus (of Heschl); upper surface extending into the lateral fissures
Primary Auditory Cortex
246
caudal part extending towards the parietal cortex; language comprehension
Wernicke's area
247
This cerebral lobe contains the primary somatosensory cortex: a. Frontal lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Occipital lobe e. Limbic lobe
B-Parietal lobe
248
The area indicated by the blue shading is primarily supplied by which of the following arteries. a. Basilar artery b. Vertebral artery c. Anterior cerebral artery d. Middle cerebral artery e. Posterior cerebral artery
e. Posterior cerebral artery
249
The unique, direct neuronal connection between the olfactory afferent neurons and this CNS structure are responsible for the strong connection between smell and memory Hypothalmus Hippocampus Olfactory bulb Amygdala Medulla oblongata
Hippocampus
250
This nerve structure is responsible for transmitting the gustatory information from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and is easily damaged in by careless ENT surgeons. Lingual nerve Facial nerve (CN VII) Trigeminal nerve (CN V) Chorda tympani Vagus nerve (CN X)
Chorda tympani
251
This area of the brain is responsible for the oculocephalic reflex (aka the doll’s eyes reflex) that helps stabilize a visual image on the retina when the head is in motion. Primary visual cortex Vestibular nucleus of CN VIII Cerebellum Ciliary ganglion Optic chiasm
Vestibular nucleus of CN VIII
252
A pituitary tumor is most likely to result in which of the following visual field deficits? Complete unilateral vision loss Bitemporal hemianopia Left nasal hemianopia Right homonymous hemianopia Left homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Bitemporal hemianopia
253
At the olfactory bulbs, efferent fibers from elsewhere allow for potential inhibition of signal progression _____ _____-> Humans tend to habituate to persistent smells to the point where they are no longer perceived
Central Adaptation
254
Loss of Smell
Anosmia
255
5 Basic Tastes
Sweet Sour Bitter Salty Umami (savory, taste of protein)
256
does not contain any taste receptors and is a thread-like structure that helps provide friction to help move food
Filiform Papillae
257
3 types of papillae involved in taste
Fungiform Circumvallate Foliate
258
leaf-like papillae found on the sides of the rear of the tongue which contain approximately 100 taste buds.
Foliate Papillae
259
the largest of the papillae and found in the least numbers. A total of 7-12 are found in an inverted β€œV” shape at the back of the tongue. They contain approximately 250 taste buds.
Circumvallate aka Vallate papillae
260
mushroom-shaped papillae, most abundant at the tip and sides. They normally contain between 1-18 taste buds.
Fungiform papillae
261
: chemoreceptor cells responsible for sensing taste
Gustatory Cells
262
insulate the receptor cells from each other and from the epithelium of the tongue (most numerous)
Suppporting Cells
263
: stem cells that mature into new receptor cells to replace those that die
Basal Cells
264
branch innervates the anterior 2/3 of the tongue (Taste)
Chorda tympani
265
innervates taste buds in the palate
Greater superficial petrosalΒ 
266
innervates the posterior 2/3 of the tongue and pharynx (Taste)
Lingual Nerve
267
innervates taste buds in the epiglottis and esophagus
Superior Laryngeal Nerve
268
responsible for our perception of taste also receives information about the smell and texture of food (in addition
Primary Gustatory complex
269
contains endolymph filled cohlear duct which contains the organ of corti (which contains the auditory receptors: hair cells) οƒ  transmits auditory impulses via the cochlear division of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
Cochlea
270
consists of a pair of membranous sacs, the saccule and the utricle which provide the sensations of gravity and linear acceleration
Vestibule
271
enclose 3 slender semicircular ducts (lateral, posterior, anterior) that are stimulated by the rotation of the head
Semicircular Canals
272
CN VIII travels to the brainstem where it is relayed to the cerebellum via the
Vestibular Nuclei
273
Decusation of visual signals
left side of the brain receives information from the right visual field of each eye, and the right side of the brain receives information from the left visual field of each eye Matches to the side of needed motor control of the body
274
an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage
Pain
275
refers to a neural response only to traumatic (noxious) stimuli, producing pain But remember, not all pain comes from noxious stimuli
Nocioception
276
Perception of an ordinarily non-noxious stimulus as pain (Trigeminal Neuralgia)
Allodynia
277
Diminished response to noxious stimulus (pinprick, e.g.)
Hypoalgesia
278
Increased response to noxious stimulus
Hyperalgesia
279
Unpleasant or abnormal sensation with or without a stimulus
Dysesthesia
280
Increased response to mild stimulus (light touch, e.g.)
Hyperesthesia
281
Pain in the distribution of a nerve or a group of nerves
Neuralgia
282
Abnormal sensation perceived without an apparent stimulus
Parasthesia
283
Functional abnormality of one or more nerve roots with pain in the corresponding dermatomes
Radiculopathy
284
noxious stimulus which activates the pain pathway. Carried out by high-threshold receptors and conducted by smaller, lightly myelinated A𝛅 and unmyelinated C fibers
Protopathic
285
non-noxious stimulus such as light touch, pressure, proprioception, and temperature discrimination. Characterized by low-threshold receptors conducted by large, myelinated AΞ² nerve fibers
Epicritic
286
experience occurs as a result of activation of peripheral nociceptors
Nocioceptive pain
287
occurs from a dysfunction or injury to the nervous system itself, with or without concurrent tissue damage
Neuropathic pain
288
Superficial – arising from skin, subcutaneous tissues, mucous membranes (sharp, pricking, throbbing, burning, well-localized) Deep – arising from muscles, tendons, joints, bones (dull, aching, less well-localized)
Somatic Pain
289
(abnormal function of an internal organ or its surrounding membrane- produced by ischemia, distension, stretching, traction, compression or inflammation of the viscera or linings of body cavities)
Visceral Pain
290
is a 3-neuron pathway that transmits noxious stimuli from the periphery to the brain to allow localization and perception of pain
Ascending Pathway
291
serves to modulate pain
Descending Pathway
292
respond primarily to intense mechanical and thermal stimuli that damage tissues (releasing prostaglandins)
High-Threshold Mechanoreceptors
293
most prevalent, respond to tissue damage from excessive pressure, temperature (> 42 degrees C & < 18 degrees C), and chemical stimuli (bradykinin, histamine, serotonin, and prostaglandins)
Polymodal Nocioceptors
294
respond to inflammation, ischemia
Silent Nocioceptors
295
fast, myelinated, localized sharp
A-Delta fibers
296
slow, unmyelinated, dull, poorly localized
C FIbers
297
Sensory afferent axons bring the signal via the dorsal root to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord (cell body lies in the dorsal root ganglion)
First-Order Neuron
298
Crosses the midline to the the contralateral spinothalamic tract (STT) in the anterolateral white matter of the spinal cord, ascending to the thalamus
Second-Order Neuron
299
Cortical representation is defined by relative density of cutaneous tactile receptors on that body part, defined as the
Homonculus
300
# Which pathway does this apply to? Endogenous opioid (enkephalin) are present within the brainstem and interact with opioid receptors
Descending Pathway
301
Neurogenic inflammation (β€œtriple response” of flushing, local tissue edema, sensitization to noxious stimuli) is due to the release of Substance P from the primary afferent neuron Degranulates serotonin and histamine -> vasodilation, inflammation
Secondary Hyperalgesia
302
receive noxious and non-noxious input from A beta, A delta, and C-fibers and are the most prevalent cell type in the dorsal horn in lamina
Wide Dynamic Range (WDR) interneurons
303
activation of large afferent fibers subserving epicritic sensation inhibits WDR neurons and STT activity
Segmental inhibition
304
Perception of pain in a limb that has been removed Stabbing, throbbing, burning, or cramping pain (more intense in distal portion)
Phantom Limb Pain
305
occurs following an injury or illness which did not directly affect any nerves surrounding the affected area
CRPS Type I
306
occurs after a confirmed distinct nerve injury
CRPS Type II
307
Phase 0 Cardiac AP
Na Influx
308
Phase 1 Cardiac AP
Slow K efflux
309
Phase 2 Cardiac AP
Ca influx
310
Phase 3 Cardiac AP
K Efflux > Ca influx
311
Phase 4 Cardiac AP
Active Na, K pumping (membrane priming)
312
CO=
π‘ π‘‘π‘Ÿπ‘œπ‘˜π‘’ π‘£π‘œπ‘™π‘’π‘šπ‘’ (𝑆𝑉) Γ— β„Žπ‘’π‘Žπ‘Ÿπ‘‘ π‘Ÿπ‘Žπ‘‘π‘’ (𝐻𝑅)
313
SV
70 ml, heart rate of 75 beats/minute
314
CO
~5 liters/minute
315
difference between EDV and ESV
Stroke Volume
316
(𝑀𝐴𝑃 βˆ’πΆπ‘‰π‘ƒ)/𝐢𝑂
SV
317
refers to the pressure in the arteries leading from the ventricles (aorta or pulmonary arteries) which must be overcome to eject blood
Afterload
318
Wall Tension=
(π‘‡π‘Ÿπ‘Žπ‘›π‘ π‘šπ‘’π‘Ÿπ‘Žπ‘™ π‘π‘Ÿπ‘’π‘ π‘ π‘’π‘Ÿπ‘’ (𝑃) Γ— π‘…π‘Žπ‘‘π‘–π‘’π‘  (π‘Ÿ)) /(2 Γ— π‘€π‘Žπ‘™π‘™ π‘‘β„Žπ‘–π‘π‘˜π‘›π‘’π‘ π‘  (β„Ž))
319
A Wave- CVP
Atrial contraction
320
C Wave-CVP
tricuspid valve (TV) elevation during early ventricular Contraction
321
X-Descent CVP
downward displacement of the TV in systole and atrial relaXation
322
V-Wave CVP
Venous return against a closed TV
323
Y Descent CVP
descent is due to the tricuspid valve opening during diastole; atrial emptYing
324
Occlusion of A of A leads to
anterior cord ischemia-> loss of motor function, pain & temperature