SV

Question 1

What’s the purpose of the safety check?

Answer 1

Short answer: makes sure switches are in the right place before you fly a new airplane. Making sure airplane is in the correct configuration before plugging in power.

FOM:
The safety check is completed prior to the application of electrical power and prior to the flight crew’s first flight of the day in each airplane they are dispatched. If accepting an airplane that is powered, verify compliance with the safety check.

WARNING:
PERSONAL INJURY MAY RESULT IF CERTAIN CONTROLS OR SWITCHES ARE IN THE WRONG POSITION AND POWER IS APPLIED TO THE AIRPLANE. IF CERTAIN CONTROLS AND SWITCHES ARE NOT IN AGREEMENT WITH THE POSITION INDICATED ON THE SAFETY CHECK (E.G., LANDING GEAR LEVER POSITION), CONTACT MAINTENANCE TO CLARIFY AIRPLANE STATUS.

Question 2

What are the 3 read and do checklists?

Answer 2

Safety Check: checking airplane configuration before powering on

Power On Check: establish electrical power on an un-powered airplane. or verify in compliance

Securing Check:

Question 3

Power-Up Check

Answer 3

The power-up check is performed prior to the flight crew’s first flight of the day in each airplane they are dispatched and to establish electrical power on an un-powered airplane. If electrical power is already established, verify compliance with all items.

Powering up the ERJ 170 correctly is critical for a successful power up. Follow each step as described without exception. DO NOT rush the power-up procedure.

Question 4

Securing Check

Answer 4

When the airplane is terminating and all systems are to be shut down, the PIC is responsible for completing the securing check. The PIC may delegate the check to the SIC. The securing check is also completed anytime a power down procedure is required.

The securing check is a silent “read and do” check.

Question 5

What are the Prior to Being Seated Items?

Answer 5

1. Maintenance logbook
2. Cockpit reinforced door pannel
3. Airplane Manuals & Documents
4. Emergency Equipment

Question 6

In the Prior to being seated items check, what Manuals and Documents are you checking?

Answer 6

1. Maintenance Logbook
2. Airworthiness Certificate
3. Registration
4. Radio Station Certificate
5. QRH
6. CAT II Placard

For the complete list of required documents that need to be on board the aircraft refer to FOM 6-11.2 Required Aircraft Documents Tables.

Question 7

In the Prior to being seated items check, what emergency equipment are you checking?

Answer 7

PBE (Protective breathing equipment)
Fire extinguisher
Crash axe
Life Vests (3)
Escape Ropes (2)
Flashlights (2)
Spare headset (1)
Fire Retardant Gloves (1 pair)

Question 8

Whats the first thing you check when you get to the airplane?

Answer 8

Maintenance Logs
3 check, 3 verifies,3 blank pages

1. At least 3 unused AML pages.
2. AMLs contain at least 1 airworthiness release
3. No open write-ups (PIC need only check since the last Airworthiness Release)
4. Verify the AML contains a record of required scheduled Maintenance inspections performed within the required time.
5. Verify that all active DMIs (Deferred Maintenance Items) are within their expiration period and all procedures have been complied with.

Question 9

How long is service check good for?

Answer 9

The Service Check is valid for two (UTC) calendar days after it is completed. A routine check may be substituted for a Service Check.

Question 10

Maximum Operating Altitude?

Answer 10

41,000’
This is a design altitude limit and is not attainable under most operating conditions. In the AOM flight planning tables, the Maximum and Optimum Altitude table contains the actual operating cruise altitude limits.

Question 11

Maximum Altitude Takeoff and Landing

Answer 11

8,000’

Question 12

Maximum Runway Slope

Answer 12

+/- 2%

Question 13

Maximum Tailwind Takeoff and Landing

Answer 13

10 knots

When computing crosswind and tailwind component, consider the entire gust factor of the reported wind (e.g. if the wind is 21010G20KT, use 21020KT as the wind for the computation) (CPS)

Question 14

Maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing for Compacted Snow

Answer 14

20 knots

Question 15

Maximum Taxi Speed Straight Dry/Wet?

Maximum Taxi Speed Straight CONTAMINATED?

Answer 15

30 knots

15 knots

Question 16

Minimum airspeed for RAT?

Answer 16

130 KIAS

Question 17

When we push the DVDR TEST button what are we looking for?

Answer 17

Push DVDR TEST for three seconds and release. Observe there are no FAIL messages on the EICAS to confirm a successful test.

Question 18

How many minutes of cockpit audio can the DVDR record?

Answer 18

120 Minutes of audio and Digital Communication Messages

Question 19

How many hours of flight data information can the DVDR record?

Answer 19

25 hours of Flight Data information

Question 20

When does the DVDR start recording?

Answer 20

The Digital Voice Data Recorder Systems begin recording automatically. The Cockpit Voice Data recorder begins as soon
as power is applied, and stops when power is removed from the unit. The Flight Data record function starts when the
engines are turned on, or when the aircraft is in the air (no “Weight On Wheels” (WOW is false)). It stops when the aircraft
is Weight On Wheels and both engines are turned off. The DVDR unit is internally time synchronized for direct correlation of
the recorded Cockpit Voice to Flight Data Information. Additional Greenwich Mean Time information is provided for absolute
time marks. In the event of a fault or failure of the DVDR System, an advisory message on the EICAS comes on. Some
DVDR CAS messages will be inhibited during critical phases of flight.

Question 21

The Digital Voice Data Recorder System has the following components:

Answer 21

Two identical Digital Voice Data Recorder units;
DVDR 1 is installed in the forward E Bay, DVDR 2 is installed in the aft E Bay. Two Impact Switches, one each mounted in
to its respective Digital Voice Data Recorder. One Tri-axial Accelerometer, installed in the left hand side wing-stub area.
One DVDR Control Panel, located in the cockpit on the overhead panel. One Cockpit Area Microphone, mounted on the
frame between both windshields.
The Digital Voice Data Recorder Control Panel uses standard input/output interfaces for a Cockpit Voice Recorder and a
Flight Data Recorder. The Test button (DVDR TEST) is used to initiate a Cockpit Voice Recorder and Flight Data Recorder
test within both DVDRs simultaneously. You can switch the FWD/AFT Switch position to check the test status for either
DVDR 1 – switched to FWD, or DVDR 2 – switched to AFT

Question 22

What does CVR ERASE do?

Answer 22

The CVR ERASE button initiates the Cockpit Voice Recorder
Erase Function. For this function the Aircraft has to be on the ground and the parking brake has to be set. A HEADPHONE
jack is avaiable for audio monitoring. The position of the FWD/AFT Switch also determines the CVR audio monitor source -
forward or aft DVDR. The Cockpit Area Microphone (CAM) picks up area audio and delivers it to the preamplifier of the
DVDR Control Panel.

Question 23

What buttons don’t light when ANNUNCIATIONS TEST is pressed?

Answer 23

Only the EMRG/PRKG BRAKE light, GPU pushbutton light, and fire test lights are not illuminated.

The striped bars and caption indications in all main panel, overhead panel, and control pedestal pushbuttons illuminate when pressed, allowing verification of lamp integrity.

Question 24

Minimum battery voltage to start the APU…

Answer 24

21v

Question 25

Battery voltage must be at or above _____ prior to takeoff.

Answer 25

22v

Question 26

The minimum battery temperature for an APU start.

Answer 26

-20°C

Question 27

Start environment, The minimum Air Temperature for APU start

Answer 27

-54°C

Question 28

When stopped at the gate: | Accomplish the following flow pattern:

Answer 28

1. SET the EMER/PARKING BRAKE. •Verify the EMERG/PRKG BRAKE indicator shows ON. 2. Place the STERILE, NO ELECT DEVICES and FSTN BELTS switches to OFF 3. Place both thrust levers to IDLE.

Question 29

To avoid power transfer interruptions when connecting or disconnecting an electrical source (CPS).

Answer 29

Confirm power transfer on the Electrical Synoptic page or wait 10 seconds. Examples of power transfers: • Confirm power transfer on the Electrical Synoptic page or wait 10 seconds before stopping the APU after engine start. • Confirm power transfer on the Electrical Synoptic page or wait 10 seconds after the GPU switch is pushed in or the APU power is available before shutting down the engine(s). • After an engine shutdown and below 30% N2, confirm power transfer on the Electrical Synoptic page or wait 10 seconds before starting the APU. (Refer to AOM I, 2-12.3 APU Start Up During Engine Operation (CPS).

Question 30

What is an IDG and how many do we have?

Answer 30

We have two engine-driven Integrated Drive Generators

Question 31

What does an IDG do?

Answer 31

The Integrated-Drive Generators (IDGs) are the main AC power sources when the engines are running. They are mounted on each main engine gearbox. A hydro-mechanical Constant-Speed-Drive (CSD) converts variable engine speed into constant generator speed. Each IDG generates constant frequency AC power at 40kVA, 115 V, 400 Hz, 3-phase. The IDG oil system is air-cooled. The IDGs are monitored and controlled by the Generator Control Units (GCUs).

Question 32

How many Generators does the airplane have?

Answer 32

two engine-driven Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs), one Auxiliary Power Unit Generator, one Ram Air Turbine Generator (RAT) and one AC external power input

Question 33

What does amber light next to IDG mean?

Answer 33

An amber LED illuminates beside the associated selector knob to indicate which IDG has failed.

Question 34

*Takeoff with ECS off, anti ice on all do you need APU on for that takeoff?

Answer 34

no you don’t need APU on.

Question 35

How long hold the disconnect switch for IDG?

Answer 35

By selecting the knob to the DISC position, and holding it in this position for one (marty gouge says 2) second, the IDG will be mechanically disconnect.

Question 36

Can we reconnect IDG after disconnect?

Answer 36

Only authorized maintenance personnel on ground can reset a disconnected IDG. For safety, the IDG features an input shaft shear section and a thermal disconnect operation. This will disconnect the IDG permanently if there is no manual disconnection.

Question 37

What does AVAIL light on GPU mean?

Answer 37

AVAIL will illuminate with the button pushed in or out when the AC GPU is connected to the aircraft, but is not powering the AC BUS TIE. IN USE Light: IN USE will only illuminate when the button is pushed in, and the AC GPU is powering the AC BUS TIE.

Question 38

Whats the priority for the AC buses? | What is the AC electrical system‘s priority?

Answer 38

``` • Onside (IDG) • Inside (APU) • Outside (GPU) • Cross-Side (Other IDG) Note: The airplane uses an onboard AC power source before an external AC source ```

Question 39

What is a TRU?

Answer 39

``` Transformer Rectifier Units, we have 3 TRUs (Transformer Rectifier Units) - 28VDC, 300A ```

Question 40

Whats does a TRU do?

Answer 40

* Primary DC power source * Converts 115VAC into 28VDC * Each works in isolation from the other TRU1 is located inside the Left Integrated Control Centers, TRU2 is inside the right integrated control center and TRU essential is inside the Emergency Integrated Control Center. DC power is generated by conversion of AC to DC power. The input of each TRU is 115V AC, 400Hz frequency stabilized, and the output is 28V DC, rated at 300 Amps of current. The TRU TOGGLE switches on the cockpit overhead panel provide control of the three transformer unit contactors, and must be in AUTO position during normal (automatic) operation. If a switch is set to "OFF", the respective TRU contactor will open.

Question 41

If I start APU do I need both batteries on? Why???????? Check answer not sure,

Answer 41

APU starting may use either the onboard battery 2, or power from a DC external ground cart. APU start bus is connect to Battery 2

Question 42

What else can power APU starter motor?

Answer 42

DC external ground cart.

Question 43

On the power up check, says 22v minimum why do we need 22?

Answer 43

(that’s the minimum for takeoff) 21v to start APU To read battery voltage, the GPU pushbutton must be disconnected (pushed out).

Question 44

What if you have less than 21v before starting APU?

Answer 44

If battery voltage is below 21 volts, notify maintenance.

Question 45

If your power is between 21-22v what do you do?

Answer 45

Charge the batteries

Question 46

How do you charge the batteries?

Answer 46

Procedure in the AOM 1 If battery voltage is between 21 and 22 volts, use the battery charging procedure below to ensure battery voltage is at or above 22V prior to takeoff. a. Battery charging procedure: • Recharge the batteries prior to takeoff through any AC source including engines or GPU. Recharging using the engines during taxi may also be credited towards the charge times listed below:

Question 47

How much time will 22v of battery power give me?

Answer 47

• Will provide 10 minutes of power during an electrical emergency

Question 48

At what voltage does the battery relays drop out?

Answer 48

18v is the minimum battery voltage to close the battery bus-ties

Question 49

What causes the rat to deploy?

Answer 49

Loss of power to the AC buses. Manually by pilot. If there is a sudden loss of AC power In flight, the RAT is automatically deployed into the air stream. The kinetic energy of airflow across the turbine is converted into mechanical power to drive the generator

Question 50

What happens if a power-generating source fails?

Answer 50

• Bus ties automatically connect to provide no system degradation.

Question 51

How long for RAT to deploy? Why?

Answer 51

Whenever AC power sources are not powering AC buses, the RAT is automatically deployed, and after 8 s, supplies power to the AC ESS BUS. Once deployed it will create a very loud noise due to the high rotation speed, and cannot be stowed back in flight, even if normal electrical power is reestablished.

Question 52

What supplies power during the 8 second RAT deployment?

Answer 52

Batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSSES and AC STANDBY BUS

Question 53

What is system is essential on the AC system that when rat is deployed?

Answer 53

Hydraulics (source? marty's gouge)

Question 54

What is the minimum speed for RAT in the QRH?

Answer 54

150 KIAS

Question 55

What happens if you go below 130 KIAS with the rat out?

Answer 55

At speeds below this, the RAT may only supply the AC ESS BUS, and the batteries will automatically provide electrical power to the DC ESS BUSES and the STANDBY AC BUS through the static inverter (AC/DC inverter). As airspeed decreases, load shedding occurs and the AC ESS BUS is no longer powered.

Question 56

What does the RAT power?

Answer 56

AC/DC ESS BUSES

Question 57

Whats powered while you’re on the batteries, equipment?

Answer 57

Eiss,clock, acps, mcd 2, compass light, guidance panel, ccu, revisionary panels. (Check source marty's gouge)

Question 58

When do I have fire protection?

Answer 58

Battery power with DC ess bus ``` The electrical power is supplied by: – Engine fire detection: MAU 1 (DC ESS BUS 1) and MAU 3 (DC ESS BUS 2). – Engine fire extinguishing: HOT BATT BUS 1 and HOT BATT BUS 2 ```

Question 59

What bus powers and protects the APU?

Answer 59

DC ess bus

Question 60

When does the battery discharging horn come on?

Answer 60

On ground, if the airplane is powered only by the batteries for more than 5 min, a horn will sound to alert the ground personnel.

Question 61

What happens when I pull the fire handle?

Answer 61

Anytime the fire handle is pulled it commands the following shutoff valves to close: – the engine fuel shutoff valve; – the engine hydraulic shutoff valves and; – the engine bleed air shutoff valve. Each fire handle is associated with one engine.

Question 62

How many fire bottles are there?

Answer 62

2 eng 1 apu 2 cargo

Question 63

How many Engine fire bottles

Answer 63

A total of two fire extinguisher bottles named A and B are installed in the airplane to serve either or both engines.

Question 64

APU FIRE EXTINGUISHER BUTTON (GUARDED)

Answer 64

Momentary action pushbutton: | – Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve and discharges the APU fire extinguisher bottle.

Question 65

The Cargo Fire Extinguishing System is comprised of:

Answer 65

– One high-rate extinguisher bottle and; – One low-rate extinguisher bottle. Both extinguisher bottles are installed in the center avionics bay and used in either forward or aft cargo compartment.

Question 66

On the ground with apu fire whats my indication?

Answer 66

EICAS: APU FIRE Switch is illuminated In the event of fire, one minute has passed without the MAU receiving a positive indication that the APU Emergency Stop button was pressed, the APU fire extinguish button will illuminate. If there is an APU fire on ground, the APU will shut down automatically after ten seconds if there is no commanded shutdown through the APU Emergency Stop button.

Question 67

Following a normal shutdown sequence, When does APU SHUTTING DOWN disappear from the EICAS?

Answer 67

During a normal shutdown sequence, the APU pneumatic power is removed immediately and the electrical power is removed at the end of a 2 minutes cooldown period. The EICAS message APU SHUTTING DOWN disappears at the end of that period.

Question 68

When does the fire bottle fire for the apu?

Answer 68

Automatically on the ground, In flight after the button is pressed

Question 69

What do I do if I have a fire on apu in flight?

Answer 69

QRC

Question 70

What will the apu shutdown for on the ground?

Answer 70

The APU Fire Detection System is comprised of two detectors loops. When a fire condition is detected the signal goes to the MAU which generates the associated EICAS messages and alarms.

Question 71

Cargo fire on the ground what do I do?

Answer 71

Push the cargo fire button – the high-rate fire-extinguishing bottle to discharge immediately into the selected cargo compartment. – the EICAS ADVISORY message CRG FIREX HI DISCH to display. One minute later, the second fire-extinguishing bottle discharges automatically at a reduced flow rate and the agent remains in the selected cargo compartment for 75 minutes for airplanes with 60-minute diversion time allowed. NOTE: – – Pressing the associated pushbutton before the one-minute period immediately discharges the low-rate extinguishing bottle. In case of fire on ground, the low-rate fire-extinguishing bottle is not automatically discharged. The flight crew must push the cargo fire-extinguishing pushbutton once again to discharge the low-rate bottle.

Question 72

In the forward cargo compartment, what happens automatically when it detects a fire?

Answer 72

– Air circulation fan is turned off; – The high-rate fire extinguishing bottle is armed and; – The forward cargo compartment ventilation outflow valve is commanded closed.

Question 73

In the aft cargo compartment, what happens automatically when it detects a fire?

Answer 73

– The high-rate fire extinguishing bottle is armed.

Question 74

What is the first step of the fire panel test?

Answer 74

Check for no FIRE FAIL msgs on the EICAS

Question 75

When you push the fire test button what lights come on?

Answer 75

The master WARNING lights flash. – The fire extinguisher handles illuminate steady. – The cargo fire-extinguishing buttons illuminate steady. – The APU fire-extinguishing button and the upper half of the APU emergency stop button to illuminate.

Question 76

Can we test the fire panel with the APU running?

Answer 76

Yes, Press and hold the test button on the overhead panel for a minimum of 3 seconds, but no more than 10 seconds if the APU is running or it will automatically shut down the APU.

Question 77

Maximum usable fuel

Answer 77

20,785 lbs

Question 78

Maximum fuel imbalance in flight

Answer 78

794 lbs.

Question 79

When do I get EICAS msg for fuel imbalance?

Answer 79

Lateral fuel imbalances exceeding 360 kg (800 lbs) are annunciated on the EICAS by the message "FUEL IMBALANCE". This message will disappear when the difference is reduced to 45 kg (100 lbs) and the advisory message FUEL EQUAL-XFEED OPEN will appear indicating to the pilot to select the XFEED switch to OFF.”

Question 80

Minimum fuel tank temperature?

Answer 80

-40 C

Question 81

Where is the fuel temperature temperature taken from ?

Answer 81

A fuel temperature sensor is installed in the left tank only. If the temperature in the left tank drops below a pre determined value, a "FUEL TANK LO TEMP" caution appears on the EICAS. The fuel temperature can be monitored on the fuel system synoptic page.

Question 82

What can’t be on for takeoff and landings?

Answer 82

Crossfeed

Question 83

What is the collector tank for?

Answer 83

to ensure continuous fuel feed to the engine throughout the whole flight envelope. The arrangement of the tanks permits the fuel to flow from the outer tank area to the wing root, and into the collector tank. Each tank contains baffle and flapper check valves that prevent fuel from escaping from the collector tank and prevents fuel from entering the surge tank.

Question 84

What pumps are in the collector tank?

Answer 84

ejector pumps, which are driven by high-pressure motive fuel flow supplied by the dedicated engine fuel pumps

Question 85

Whats the DC fuel pump used for?

Answer 85

Apu start and eng start if AC power not available • Installed only in the right wing • Provides pressurized fuel for normal APU start when AC power or the AC fuel pump 2 is not available A DC powered electric centrifugal pump located in the RH collector tank provides a source of pressurized fuel supply for APU and engine start in flight, or on the ground if the engine feed ejector pump and AC power or the AC Fuel pump are not available. Electrical power will be supplied from the DC ESS BUS 2

Question 86

What turns on the DC pump for a battery eng start?

Answer 86

FADEC (Not sure what this question means)

Question 87

When starting the ENG what happens at 7%,20,50?

Answer 87

The FADEC initiates ignition at approximately 7% N2 the fuel flow (metering valve opens) at approximately 20% N2. FADEC will automatically switch to the other ignitor if no light off is detected within 15 s after initiation of fuel flow. The start should be aborted if no light off is detected within 30 s after initiation of fuel flow. After a light off occurs, the FADEC commands the starter to cutout at approximately 50% N2, and commands the FMU fuel metering valve to accelerate the engine to ground idle speed.

Question 88

What are the different ways to turn the AC fuel pumps on?

Answer 88

(not sure if this answers the question) OFF: deactivates the associated AC fuel pump. automatically AUTO: operates the associated AC fuel pump according to the system’s logic. ON: activates the associated AC fuel pump.

Question 89

AC Fuel Pumps are used for

Answer 89

* Back-up for the ejector pumps * Used during crossfeed operations * AC Pump 2 provides fuel to APU when engine-driven pump (EDP) 2 is not running

Question 90

What mechanically can fail in an injector pump?

Answer 90

Nothing, only can get clogged

Question 91

When I have an engine failure what do I lose in regards to fuel?

Answer 91

All 4 kind of pumps

Question 92

What lbs is my fuel low?

Answer 92

660 | the associated tank falls below 300 kg (660 lb), a low level warning will be provided to the crew.

Question 93

Can a fueler pump to a dark jet?

Answer 93

Yes through the DC hot bus DC Busses 1 and 2 provide power to the refuel control solenoids and the FCU. In BATTERY position, the system is powered by HOT Bus 2. This allows fueling with the APU not running and no external power connected

Question 94

Max alt for apu operation

Answer 94

The APU operation is limited to 33,000 ft and AC electrical power can be supplied up to this altitude

Question 95

Max start apu alt?

Answer 95

Its starting envelope is limited to 30,000 ft.

Question 96

Max eng start alt apu assisted?

Answer 96

APU bleed air is provided for the engine starting system up to 21,000 ft

Question 97

Max bleed apu alt?

Answer 97

– Bleed air for air conditioning and pressurization up to 15000 ft.

Question 98

Min temp for apu start?

Answer 98

Air Temperature -54°C The minimum battery temperature for an APU start -20°C

Question 99

APU starter limits?

Answer 99

Start Number 1&2 Maximum Time 60 seconds Cool-Down Time 60 seconds Start Number 3 Maximum Time 60 seconds Cool-Down Time . 5 minutes Before Stopping the APU After Engine Start: Engine N2 must be stabilized ................................... for 5 seconds or power transfer confirmed on the Electrical Synoptic page. Before Starting the APU After Engine is Shutdown: Wait for engine to go below ...................................................30% N2

Question 100

APU starter limits?

Answer 100

Start Number 1&2 Maximum Time 60 seconds Cool-Down Time 60 seconds Start Number 3 Maximum Time 60 seconds Cool-Down Time . 5 minutes Before Stopping the APU After Engine Start: Engine N2 must be stabilized ................................... for 5 seconds or power transfer confirmed on the Electrical Synoptic page. Before Starting the APU After Engine is Shutdown: Wait for engine to go below ...................................................30% N2

Question 101

How long is Apu cooldown?

Answer 101

Depends on APU either 2 minutes or 1 minute for APU FADEC 2.0 and on

Question 102

If I push the apu emer stop button what happens?

Answer 102

PUSH IN: closes the APU fuel shutoff valve, shutting down the APU with no cooldown period. A white striped bar illuminates on the lower half of the button.

Question 103

What color is the sterile light in the back?

Answer 103

AMBER An amber sterile light located on the cockpit/passenger partition indicates when entry into the cockpit is not allowed. An aural signal sounds whenever the sterile light is illuminated.

Question 104

Which ADS belong to what

Answer 104

1,2,3, cockpit 4, IESS 5, Flight control systems

Question 105

When I have an engine failure what do I lose in regards to fuel?

Answer 105

All 4 kind of pumps