SV questions Flashcards
(153 cards)
1
Q
How long into the future does the altitude trend vector predict?
A
6 seconds
2
Q
How long does the IESS take to initialize?
A
90 seconds
3
Q
How long into the future does the airspeed trend vector indicate?
A
10 seconds
4
Q
What is “green dot?”
A
Minimum speed for any configuration. Essentially L/D Max
5
Q
What things are magenta on the displays?
A
FMS data, FD cue, active route
6
Q
What things are cyan on the displays?
A
Advisory data, FMS calculated data on MCDU, advisory CAS messages, crew selected data (bugs).
7
Q
What things are green on the displays?
A
NAVAID data, “on” for systems, engaged modes that are non FMS, current speed/alt/etc.
8
Q
What do amber dashes mean?
A
Invalid Data
9
Q
What things are white on the displays?
A
Armed/stdby modes, status boxes, CAS status messages, “off” systems.
10
Q
What does AFCS mean?
A
Automatic Flight Control System
11
Q
What are the main components of the AFCS?
A
Flight Director, autopilot, yaw damper.
12
Q
What is an FCM?
A
Flight Control Module.
13
Q
What does an FCM do?
A
Provides software based assistance to the P-ACE and is required for normal-mode. (Provides high level functions).
14
Q
What are the high level functions of the FCM?
A
- elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed
- auto-thrust compensation with elevator
- AOA limiting with elevator
- rudder airspeed gain scheduling
- yaw damper and turn coordinator
- rudder flight authority
- roll spoiler scheduling with airspeed and speedbrake deployment.
- configuration change with horizontal stab due to speed brakes.
15
Q
What happens when in direct-mode?
A
FCM is removed from the control loop and high level functions are lost.
16
Q
How many FCMs does the E-175 have?
A
4
17
Q
Where are the FCMs located?
A
FCM 1 and 2 are in MAU 1
FCM 3 and 4 are in MAU 3
18
Q
What is an “ACE” and what does it do?
A
“Actuator control Electronics”. These connect the control column directly to the control surfaces.
19
Q
How many ACEs does the E-175 have?
A
9
20
Q
What is a P-ACE and how many do we have? What do they control?
A
Primary actuator control electronics. We have 3 P-ACEs. The p-ACEs control rudder and elevators
21
Q
What is a SF-ACE and how many do we have? What do they control?
A
Slat/Flap actuator control electronics. We have 2, they control slats/flaps.
22
Q
What is an HS-ACE and how many do we have? What do they control?
A
Horizontal stabilizer actuator control electronics. (There is only ONE HS-ACE.) it controls the horizontal stabilizer.
23
Q
What is an S-ACE and how many do we have? What do they control?
A
Spoiler Actuator control electronics. We have ONE. It controls the spoilers.
24
Q
When is INCREASE DESCENT command inhibited on TCAS?
A
- below 1450 AGL during descent
- below 1650 AGL during climb
25
The TCAS DESCENT command is inhibited at altitudes____
- below 1,000AGL during descent
| - below 1200AGL during climb
26
The TCAS automatically reverts to TA only mode and inhibits RA when____?
- altitudes below 900AGL during descent
| - below 1,100 AGL during climb
27
TAs are completely inhibited for all planes below____ AGL
380
28
All TCAS aural advisories are inhibited when____
- below 400AGL during descent
| - below 600AGL during climb
29
NO CLIMB or INCREASE CLIMB from TCAS are inhibited at what altitude?
At or above 34,000MSL
30
When is a K1 code inhibited?
Parked
31
When is a K2a code inhibited?
Taxiing
32
When is a K2b code inhibited?
Takeoff roll
33
When is a K3 code inhibited?
Takeoff
34
When is a K4 code inhibited?
Climb, cruise, approach
35
When is a K5 code inhibited?
Landing
36
What components make up TCAS?
ADSP, RA, XPDRs, MRC1 and MRC2, MCDU, CCD.
37
What is a MRC?
Modular Radio Cabinet
38
What conditions would set off a takeoff configuration warning upon attempted takeoff?
- flaps not set in agreement with FMS planned flaps
- flaps are not in a takeoff position
- parking brake on
- pitch trim not in green range
- any spoiler panel deployed
39
What are the levels of aural warnings?
Level 1- (advisory)
Level 2- (master caution)
Level 3- (master warning I.E. EGPWS, TCAS)
40
What is the priority logic for level 3 warnings?
Acronym SETFOL
- Stall
- EGPWS
- TCAS
- Fire
- Overspeed
- Landing gear
41
Level 3 aural earnings take priority over all other aural warnings. True or False
True
42
What are the warning colors on CAS?
Red-Warning, immediate response/awareness.
Yellow-Caution, immediate awareness, subsequent action
Cyan-advisory, awareness
White-status
43
How long is APU cool down?
1 minute
44
What components are in the accessory gear box?
Engine driven fuel pump, IDG, PMA, oil pump, air starter, hydraulic pump.
45
What is a PMA? What does it do?
Permanent Magnetic Alternator. It’s in the accessory gear box. It provides power to the FADEC above 50% N2. If it fails airplane electrical handles FADEC
46
What are the engine oil minimum levels?
Engine off for 15min-2 hours: >4.5Q
| Engine off more than 2 hours: >5.5Q
47
When will the APU automatically shut down on the ground?
Overspeed, underspeed, FADEC critical fault, APU Fire, EGT overtemp, high oil temp, low oil pressure, sensor failure.
48
When does the APU automatically shut down in flight?
underspeed, FADEC critical fault, Overspeed (UFO)
49
Where does the APU bleed come into the bleed system?
Left side of the bleed air manifold.
50
In an APU start, what are the actions of battery 1 and battery 2?
Battery 1 drives the DC fuel pump
| Battery 2 drives the starter motor.
51
What is an MAU?
Modular Avionics Unit. It’s just a big card cage that contains modules assigned to many different functions. Has nothing to do with power distribution.
52
How many MAUs are in the E175?
3
53
Where is MAU 1 located?
Forward EBay
54
Where is MAU3 located?
Center eBay
55
Where is MAU 2 located?
Forward EBay
56
What is an ICC and what does it do?
Integrated Control Center. The ICCs are where all the electrical busses live.
57
How many ICCs are there on the E-175? Name them
```
There are 4.
LICC (left)
RICC (right)
EICC (emergency)
AICC (Auxiliary)
```
58
In addition to the physical home of the busses, the ICCs contain___
Thermal CBs
Line replaceable units (LRUs)
Line replaceable modules
(LRMs)
59
What is in the LICC?
AC bus 1
DC bus 1
AC and DC ground service busses.
60
What is in the RICC?
AC bus 2
DC bus 2
DC ESS bus 2
61
What is in the EICC?
AC ESS bus
STDBY AC bus
DC ESS bus 1 and 3
HOT battery bus 1
62
What is in the AICC?
HOT battery bus 2
| APU start bus
63
What is an SPDA? What does it do?
Secondary Power Distribution Assembly. An SPDA receives power from separate ICCs and distributes it according to system logic.
64
How many SPDAs do we have?
2
65
Where is SPDA 1?
Forward EBay.
66
Where is SPDA2?
Center EBay.
67
What is BATT 2’s purpose?
Serves as a standby for BATT1 and in normal operation, it’s only job is to power the APU starter bus.
68
I’m an electrical emergency, how long will ONLY batteries provide power?
About 10 minutes
69
What are the main DC power sources?
2 TRUs
DC GPU
Batteries
70
What does the inverter do?
Converts 28V DC to 100 V AC (single phase)
71
When you turn only the batteries on, what displays light up in the cockpit?
CAPT MFD, IESS, EICAS, clock, FO MCDU.
72
When starting the APU, when does electricity become available?
95% RPM and 3 seconds
73
Where is the IDG? What is an IDG?
Integrated Drive Generator. Provides AC power from engines. Spun by the constant speed drive that is turned in the accessory gear box. The IDG itself is on the accessory gear box.
74
What RPM does the IDGs constant speed drive run at?
12,000
75
What are the power specifications of the AC power coming from the IDGs and APU?
40kVa
115V
400HZ
3 phase
76
What are the power specifications for the AC power coming from a RAT when deployed?
15kVa
115V
400HZ
77
Does the RAT have any ice protection?
Not the blades, but the prop hub is protected.
78
How can the SPDA be explained in layman’s terms?
An SPDA is a robot flight engineer. (In terms of power distribution). The AMS controller is the same but for the pneumatics.
79
Where is BATT1?
Forward EBay.
80
Where is BATT2?
Aft EBay
81
What kind of batteries does the E-175 have?
NiCad 22.8V D/C @27amps
82
What is the name of the E-175 engines?
General Electric CF34-8E
83
What TLR is TOGA?
75 degrees TLR.
84
What TLR is idle?
22 degrees TLR
85
What is normal takeoff thrust? (T/O 1)
13,000lbs
86
What is max reserve takeoff thrust? (T/O 1)
14,200lbs
87
What is normal takeoff thrust (T/O 2)?
11,800lbs
88
What is max reserve thrust (T/O 2)?
13,000 lbs
89
Are there any start protections in flight for the engines?
No
90
What is max go around thrust?
14,200lbs
91
What is max CLB-1 thrust?
12,400lbs
92
What is max CLB-2 thrust?
11,100
93
What is max CRZ thrust?
10,400lbs
94
Wing anti ice doesn’t come on until ____knots of selected on.
40
95
What factors decide when the AMS controller will turn off the ECS packs?
Takeoff dataset, pressure altitude, flight phase, engine failure. It disregards when above 1500ft.
96
Setting ECS off in the takeoff dataset does what?
Simply tells the aircraft to not use engine bleeds for the ECS packs. May use APU or have no ECS packs during takeoff.
97
Regardless of takeoff dataset configuration, when will the ECS packs be automatically switched over to the engine bleed air?
Out of 500 AGL
98
What would a bleed leak look like from the cockpit?
EICAS message and overhead label would show an amber bar illuminated on the leaking bleed system.
99
The bleed valves closes automatically when___
Overpressure, leak, or failure is detected.
100
Cross bleed valve opened automatically for____
Engine start
Single bleed source
APU bleed operations
Ground operations
101
Pack 1 conditioned air goes to____
The cockpit
102
Pack 2 conditioned air goes to____
The cabin
103
When does the gas per shutoff valve automatically begin porting air overboard?
35 degrees C (95F)
104
What is the emergency ram air valve for?
To supply the cockpit fresh air in an ECS pack failure, up to 25,000 ft.
105
What is the ECS safety check valve for?
To provide pressurization equalization for the cabin.
106
When are recirculating fans commanded off?
```
Both packs off
On the ground during warmup while APU bleed on
During cabin pressure DUMP
Cargo fire signal
Smoke in recirculation bay
```
107
How long does the backup flight control battery last? Where is it?
15 minutes, in aft EBay
108
How many PCUs are for the elevator? What configuration?
4; active/active
109
How many PCUs control the rudder? What configuration?
2; active/standby (FO lower PCU, CA upper PCU)
110
Regarding the spoilers, what features are removed in direct mode?
You lost ground spoilers and speed brakes. Only roll spoilers remain
111
Aileron PCUs operate in a _________ configuration
Active/active
112
What is a PCU? What does it do?
Power Control Unit. These are hydraulic actuators what control flight control surfaces.
113
What is a PTU and what is it for?
Power Transfer Unit. Transfers hydraulic pressure (but not fluid), from system 1 to system 2 for operation of the landing gear ONLY in the event of system 2 failure.
114
What are the components of hydraulic system 1?
1 reservoir, 1 engine driven pump (EDP 1), one AC pump, 1 accumulator.
115
What systems are supplied by hydraulic system 1?
- left outboard elevator
- upper rudder
- engine 1 thrust reverser
- MF spoilers left and right panels 3 and 4
- ground spoilers left and right panel 2
- outboard brakes
- emergency/parking brake
116
Where are the engine driven hydraulic pumps?
On the accessory gear box
117
What hydraulic temperature will cause an EICAS message “HYD 1 (2, or 3) HI TEMP”?
100 degrees C
118
What hydraulic temperature will force a SOV (shut off valve) closed for any given system?
125 degrees C
119
Will the SOV be closed for an overheat for system 3?
Yes, unless there is an electrical emergency. Since system 3 is primary flight controls backup.
120
What bus is AC hydraulic pump powered by?
AC bus 2
121
In flight, when do the AC hydraulic pumps 1 and 2 automatically activate?
EDP failure or engine failure, flaps selected to anything more than 0.
122
On the ground, when does AC hydraulic pump 1 activate automatically?
Flaps selected anything more than 0, thrust levers set to takeoff, of ground speed more than 50 kt.
123
What is an accumulator for?
Designed to maintain pressure in periods of transient flow demands and keeps pressure to prevent cavitation.
124
What are the components of hydraulic system 2?
1 reservoir, 1 EDP, 1 AC pump, 1 accumulator, one PTU.
125
What systems does hydraulic system 2 provide?
- left and right inboard elevator
- right and left onboard ailerons
- thrust reverser engine 2
- MF spoilers left and right panel 1
- inboard brakes
- landing gear
- emergency/parking brake
126
When does the PTU automatically start running?
Takeoff and landing. (System logic is flaps not to zero or gear not up and locked, EDP 1 not failed, hyd reservoir #2 above 12%). Basically takeoff and landing, EDP 1 ok, and you have hydraulic fluid above 12% in system 2
127
What are the components of hydraulic system 3?
One reservoir, 2 AC pumps, and one accumulator.
128
What systems are pressurized by hydraulic system 3?
Right outboard elevator
Lower rudder
Outboard ailerons
129
What bus powers hydraulic system 3A pump?
AC ESS bus.
130
What bus powers hydraulic system 3B pump?
AC BUS 2
131
When does hydraulic pump 3B automatically power on?
Simply whenever hydraulic system 3A pump fails. It’s only role is a standby.
132
What does the pump unloader valve do?
It’s in hydraulic system 3 and reduced hydraulic pressure demand during startup to prevent stalling the RAT on deployment.
133
What is an ACE?
Actuator Control Electronics. Connect flight controls to control surfaces.
134
What controls are controlled by the P-ACE?
Rudder and elevator.
135
If the P-ACE is the primary flight controls, why aren’t there aileron P-ACEs?!
Because ailerons aren’t fly by wire, they do have PCUs, but those PCUs are activated by direct link cables from the control column
136
Are the slats/flaps hydraulic or electronic?
Electronic
137
Name the ACEs
P-ACE (3 of them)
SF-ACE (2 of them)
HS-ACE (one)
S-ACE (3 of them)
138
What’s an FCM?
Flight control module. Provides higher level flight controls to the ACEs in normal mode.
139
What causes automatic switching from normal to direct mode?
Loss of data to the FCM or multiple ACE failures.
140
What is a PBIT?
Power up built in test. It’s for the flight control system to expose any faults upon power up. OR another PBIT is for hydraulic faults. There are 2 PBITs.
141
How long does the electric PBIT take?
3-4 minutes. Don’t mess with the flight controls.
142
How long does the hydraulic PBIT last?
1-1.5 minutes. Don’t mess with the flight controls.
143
Is there any backup for the fly by wire system in case of TOTAL electrical emergency like no RAT and also no battery life left?
Yes. There is a dedicated fly by wire back up battery which is about 15 minutes of flying, screens totally dark and cockpit dark. But flight controls will work for 15 minutes. It’s charged by DC ESS BUS 3.
144
Regarding PCUs, which are active/active and which are active/standby?
All are active/standby except for ailerons which are active/active.
145
What does pushing the “flight control mode” buttons for elevators, rudder, or spoilers do?
Switches that control from normal to direct mode, and if pushed again back into normal mode. It also switches the active channel to standby and the standby to active.
146
The air management system (AMS) consists of what 2 main systems?
Pneumatic system
| Environmental control system
147
If you press “DUMP” on the pressurization panel, what happens?
The outflow valve opens and dumps the pressure inside the cabin at 2,000FPM down to a max of 12,400. It stops ECS packs, and stops recirculation fans.
148
If you press “DUMP” on the pressurization panel, and the mode is set to MAN (manual) what happens.
The outflow valve does NOT open. So it needs to be in AUTO for a pressurization dump.
149
What does the LFE CTRL selection do on the pressurization panel?
It allows manual selection of the landing field elevation without leaving automatic pressurization mode.
150
When does an engine bleed valve automatically open?
When switch is in AUTO
Bleed available
No fire
No leak
151
When does an engine bleed valve automatically close?
Leak
Overpressure
Fail condition
152
When does the APU bleed valve automatically open?
```
APU switch AUTO
APU bleed available
No leak
Left engine bleed unavailable
No anti ice request
```
153
When does the cross bleed valve automatically open?
- If one side provides manifold pressure and the other side has no bleed source.
- Engine 2 start in air
- APU bleed OFF and engine 1 start in air
