SV Study Guide 26 July 2021 Flashcards
(480 cards)
1
Q
- What is the source of power for the JAMCO electric locking system?
A
Both 28 Volt DC Bus 1 & 2
2
Q
- During a turn what determines the minimum obstruction clearance path for a -800.
A
The wingtip radius
3
Q
- If the amber CAB DOOR UNLOCKED light is illuminated on the Jamco Flight Deck Door Control Panel ____________.
A
It indicates that the door is unlocked
4
Q
- How long will the hard lock push button on the Jamco flight deck door control panel disable the emergency entrance unlock function?
A
30 minutes.
5
Q
- The mechanical lock (pin) located on the Jamco flight deck door_______.
A
will not allow the door to be opened by the FLIGHT DECK DOOR EMERGENCY ENTRANCE system.
6
Q
- With a Jamco flight deck door if the cabin mounted emergency entrance system is activated how much time will pass before the door electrically unlocks?
A
30 seconds
7
Q
- At what cabin altitude will the passenger oxygen system automatically activate?
A
14000 Feet
8
Q
- How can the pilots manually activate the passenger oxygen system from the flight deck?
A
The passenger oxygen switch on the aft overhead panel
9
Q
- How can the crew check the oxygen pressure for the Pilot Oxygen System?
A
The oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel
10
Q
- What does the Normal/100% Switch on the crewmember oxygen mask regulator do if pushed into the 100% position?
A
Supplies 100% oxygen on demand
11
Q
- The Bromochlorodifluoromethane BCF (Halon 1211) extinguisher is best used for which type of fires
A
Class B; Flammable liquids/Class C; Live electrical
12
Q
- The Type III emergency exits on the B737-800 are located in the passenger cabin over the wings and use a 28 volt DC flight lock system which is designed to ensure that the flight lock will automatically lock during ________.
A
Takeoff and landing/Inflight
13
Q
- Installation of handle covers on the over-wing exits do not need to be verified prior to departure whenever passengers are carried.
A
FALSE
14
Q
- What happens to the Jamco flight deck door if the Hard Lock button is pushed after the flight deck door emergency entrance open button is pushed?
A
The door will automatically HARD LOCK for 30 minutes
15
Q
- If the FWD and AFT cargo compartments are not locked MASTER CAUTION and_________________ is/are illuminated.
A
The DOORS annunciation light
16
Q
- How is the potable water system tank pressurized?
A
Engine bleed air or the water system air compressor
17
Q
- Where is the panel that shows the quantity of water in the potable water tank?
A
The aft attendant panel
18
Q
- Where is the hot water heater located?
A
Under the lavatory sink
19
Q
- Outboard (retractable) landing lights may be extended at any speed.
A
TRUE
20
Q
- When on standby electrical power which flight deck lights are illuminated?
A
Standby compass light white dome lights instrument flood lights and selected system information and warning lights.
21
Q
- What triggers lights to automatically illuminate when exit switch in the armed position:
A
DC bus No. 1 fails/AC power is turned off
22
Q
- If the aft flight attendant emergency light switch position is selected on what happens?
A
Illuminates all emergency lights and bypasses flight deck control.
23
Q
- Each Passenger Service Unit (PSU) has ___________ that supply the passenger oxygen system.
A
individual chemical oxygen generators
24
Q
- When the Passenger Oxygen Switch on the aft overhead panel is positioned to ON the passenger oxygen system is activated automatically by a pressure switch at a cabin altitude of ______ or.
A
14000 feet
25
25. What does an illuminated PASS OXY ON light on the aft overhead panel indicate:
The passenger oxygen system has been activated
26
1. Fire detection and extinguishing systems are located at which of the following areas?
Engines APU Lavatories Cargo Compartments
27
2. The _________ powers engine overheat and fire detection:
battery bus
28
3. What happens when the engine fire warning switch is pulled up?
Closes fuel hydraulic shutoff and engine bleed air valves/Disables the reverser trips the respective generator control circuit breaker and deactivates the engine-driven hydraulic pump.
29
4. When the FAULT/INOP and OVHT/FIRE TEST Switch is placed in the OVHT/FIRE position should the FAULT light illuminate?
No
30
5. If you are on the ground what additional indications of an APU fire occur?
the wheel well APU fire warning horn sounds
31
6. The APU ground control panel contains an APU fire warning light an APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE switch an APU fire control handle and an APU HORN CUTOUT switch and is located in the __________ .
main wheel well
32
7. The Cargo Compartment Fire Suppression System contains how many fire extinguisher bottle(s)?
two
33
8. What should happen when pushing the Cargo Fire TEST Switch?
both Extinguisher (EXT) Test Lights should illuminate green
34
9. If the Overheat Detector Select (OVHT DET) switches is in the NORMAL position _______.
detection loop A and B are active
35
10. The ______light illuminates when both loops in one or both cargo compartments have failed?
DETECTOR FAULT
36
11. If the Cargo Fire Bottle Discharge (DISCH) light is illuminated (amber) what does it mean?
indicates either extinguisher bottle has discharged
37
12. What happens on the B737-800 after the Cargo Fire System is armed if the Cargo Fire Discharge (DISCH) Switch is pushed and the first extinguisher bottle is discharged.
A timer is then set for 60 minutes to discharge the second bottle.
38
13. When smoke is detected in the lavatory what is the flight deck indication?
There is no flight deck indication
39
14. The Lavatory Fire Extinguisher would indicate what color to indicate that the Heat Activated Nozzle has been discharged?
Aluminum
40
15. With the If the OVHT DET switch is in normal and one engine overheat and fire detection loop fails what happens?
the failed loop is automatically deactivated and the remaining loop functions as a single loop detector
41
16. What does an illuminated amber FAULT light on the overheat fire protection panel indicate with the OVHT DET switch in normal?
both detector loops for an engine have failed
42
17. What does an illuminated amber FAULT light on the overheat fire protection panel indicate with the OVHT DET switch selected to A?
the A detector loop for an engine has failed
43
18. A _____ has occurred if both MASTER CAUTION lights the OVHT/DET system annunciator light and the related ENG OVERHEAT light illuminate.
An engine overheat
44
19. The indications of an engine fire are:
All related engine overheat alert indications illuminate/The fire warning bell sounds both master FIRE WARNING lights illuminate the related engine fire warning switch illuminates
45
20. The engine fire warning switches are unlocked by?
Illumination of an engine fire warning switch illumination of an ENG OVERHEAT light or manually by pushing the fire warning switch override
46
21. What occurs to the engine fuel system when pulling the engine fire warning switch up?
closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve at the HMU and the spar fuel shutoff valve
47
22. What occurs to the respective hydraulic system when pulling the engine fire warning switch up?
closes the hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and deactivates the engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light
48
23. When the Fire Warning BELL CUTOUT Switch is pushed it extinguishes both master FIRE WARN lights silences the fire warning bell and ___________.
resets system for additional warnings
49
24. When positioning the EXT TEST Switch to 1 or 2 circuit continuity from the squib to __________ is verified.
both engines and APU fire switches
50
25. What happens when placing the Fault/Inoperative (FAULT/INOP) and Overheat/Fire (OVHT/FIRE) TEST Switch to the FAULT/INOP position?
tests the fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU
51
26. What happens when placing the Fault/Inoperative (FAULT/INOP) and Overheat/Fire (OVHT/FIRE) TEST Switch to the OVHT/FIRE position?
tests overheat and fire detection loops on both engines and APU and wheel well fire detector
52
27. What happens when there is an illuminated APU Fire Warning Switch in the down position?
unlocks the APU fire warning switch
53
28. _____lights will illuminate during a number 1 engine overheat?
ENG 1 OVERHEAT MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET system annunciator
54
29. What does an illuminated red WHEEL WELL Fire Warning Light indicate?
a fire in the main gear wheel well
55
30. An illuminated engine BOTTLE DISCHARGE light indicates_____.
the related fire extinguisher bottle has discharged
56
31. An illuminated APU DET INOP light indicates_____.
APU detector loop has failed
57
32. An illuminated APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE light indicates_____.
the APU extinguisher bottle has discharged
58
33. Pushing the Master Fire Warning (FIRE WARN BELL CUTOUT) on the glareshield have the same results as pushing the fire warning bell cutout switch on the overheat/fire protection panel?
TRUE
59
34. What happens when pushing the FWD Cargo Fire ARM Switch?
arms the extinguisher for the forward cargo compartment
60
35. What happens when pressing either MASTER CAUTION light after both lights are extinguished?
resets the annunciator light for further cautions
61
36. Single failures in dual/redundant systems do not illuminate MASTER CAUTION light. How do you recall the system failure?
pressing either system annunciator light panel
62
37. If ____________________are pressed both Master Fire Warning lights are extinguished the fire warning bell is silenced and the system is reset for additional warnings.
either MASTER FIRE WARNING light or the fire warning bell cutout switch
63
38. What do the Cabin Altitude and Takeoff Configuration Warnings commonly use when activated?
the same intermittent tone
64
39. What conditions cause the takeoff configuration warning horn to sound?
Trailing edge flaps skew or asymmetry speed brake lever not in the DOWN position/or spoiler control valve is open providing pressured hydraulic fluid to the ground spoiler interlock valve/Stabilizer trim not set in the takeoff range flaps not in the takeoff range LE devices are not configured for takeoff or the parking brake is set.
65
40. What happens anytime the aircraft is below 800 feet RA in landing configuration and any gear not down and locked?
A steady horn sounds
66
41. During which conditions does pushing the Landing Gear Warning Cutout Switch silence landing gear configuration warning aural?
flaps up through 10 and below 800 feet RA
67
42. What does the The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitor?
takeoff and landing configuration warnings/landing gear and air / ground sensing
68
43. On the ground what does an illuminated Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) indicate.
a fault is detected in the PSEU or an overwing exit flight lock fails to disengage when commanded
69
44. The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) _____________ in flight.
is inhibited from thrust lever advance for takeoff until 30 seconds after landing
70
45. As the throttles are advanced what does it mean if the Takeoff Configuration Warning Light illuminates red?
the airplane is not configured correctly for takeoff
71
46. What does an illuminated Cabin Altitude Warning Light indicates?
at 10000 feet if the cabin has not been pressurized
72
47. What happens when the maximum operating airspeed of Vmo/Mmo is exceeded?
the Mach / airspeed warning system provides an aural warning (clacker)
73
48. The indication of an impending stall is_____?
an artificial stall warning device (stick shaker)
74
49. Which is true in regard to the MACH AIRSPEED WARNING TEST switches and the STALL WARNING TEST switches?
are inhibited while airborne
75
50. When is altitude alerting inhibited?
when the trailing edge flaps are extended to 25 or greater or while G/S is captured
76
51. At what point prior to reaching the selected altitude does a white box shows around the selected altitude display the box around the current altitude becomes bold and a momentary tone sounds?
900 feet
77
52. If the selected altitude is deviated by ____ feet a momentary tone sounds the current altitude box turns amber and ____________.
300; begins to flash
78
53. What inhibits Ground Proximity Warning System look ahead terrain and radio altitude based alerts?
actual windshear warning
79
54. Approximately how far from the projected impact will the look ahead terrain alert Terrain terrain pull up sound with the terrain shown in solid red on the navigation display?
20 to 30 secs
80
55. Approximately how far from projected impact will the look ahead terrain alert Caution terrain will sound with terrain shown in solid amber on the navigation display?
40 to 60 secs
81
56. In what speed realm does Too low terrain aural alert occurs if the aircraft is at an unsafe terrain clearance with either the landing gear not down or flaps not in the landing configuration?
high speed
82
57. If the aircraft experiences excessive altitude loss after a takeoff or go-around the __________ aural alert occurs.
DONT SINK
83
58. The Volume and repetition of the GLIDESLOPE aural alert rate _____________ as deviation _______________ below the glideslope.
increase; increase
84
59. When are new predictive windshear warning alerts are inhibited During takeoff and landing?
between 100 knots and 50 ft RA
85
60. What does an illuminated Inoperative (INOP) light on the Ground Proximity panel alert the pilot to?
a GPWS computer malfunction or power loss has occurred.
86
61. In flight the Ground Proximity System Test (SYS TEST) Switch is ______.
inhibited
87
62. What does placing the Ground Proximity FLAP INHIBIT Switch to FLAP INHIBIT inhibit?
ground proximity TOO LOW FLAPS alert
88
63. What does placing the Ground Proximity TERRAIN INHIBIT Switch to TERRAIN INHIBIT inhibit?
look-ahead terrain alerts and terrain displays
89
64. When does the weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear?
all answers are correct
90
65. A(n) ____________ aural and a message is annunciated on the traffic display for Traffic advisories.
TRAFFIC TRAFFIC
91
66. Resolution advisories provide ________and an aural warning to maintain or increase separation from traffic.
maneuver guidance
92
67. What does placing the Transponder Mode Selector to TA (traffic advisory) ONLY do?
enables the display of traffic advisory targets
93
68. What does placing the Transponder Mode Selector to TA/RA do?
enables the display of traffic advisory targets and resolution advisory (RA) targets
94
69. What does pressing the Absolute Altitude Display Selector on the TCAS Controls (Transponder Panel) do?
displays absolute altitude of TCAS targets
95
70. In which TCAS Altitude Range Switch position sets TCAS display from 2700 feet below to 7000 feet above own aircraft?
Above (ABV)
96
71. On the cartridge assembly (Tail Skid) on the -800 and -900 series if the warning decal is ______ the cartridge must be replaced.
all red
97
1. When must Engine Ignition be on:
Takeoff and Landing/Engine Anti-Ice Operation and Heavy Rain
98
2. The maximum allowable EGT for Engine Start is_______.
725°C
99
3. An Amber Arc on an Engine Limit Display indicates______.
Cautionary range
100
4. On the B737-800 what is the maximum altitude that the APU can supply electrical power and bleed air up to?
10000 ft.
101
5. On the B737-800 what is the maximum altitude that the APU can supply bleed air alone up to?
17000 ft.
102
6. On the B737-800 What is the maximum altitude that the APU can supply electrical power alone up to?
41000 ft.
103
7. With the EEC in Normal Mode if the thrust lever is advanced to the forward stop what will the EEC do?
limit thrust to the maximum certified thrust rating for current conditions
104
8. On the engine panel on the aft overhead panel when will both ON and ALTN be in view?
The EEC has automatically changed to the soft alternate mode
105
9. Thrust rating shortfalls and exceedances _______ occur as flight conditions change when the EEC is in soft alternate mode.
can
106
10. In what mode does the EEC provides N1 and N2 redline overspeed protection in?
normal mode and alternate mode
107
11. Which air source may the engines be started with?
The APU or ground source/The engine crossbleed
108
12. On the B737-800 power is removed from the start switch holding the solenoid for starter cutout at approximately _____ N2 speed.
56%
109
13. On the B737-800 what do the EECs monitor to detect during ground starts?
impending hot starts and EGT start limit exceedances/wet starts
110
14. On the B737-800 a flashing white box surrounding the EGT during an engine start indicates_____.
an impending hot start
111
15. When the Engine Start Switch is placed in the GRD position _____occurs.
the starter valve opens the engine bleed air valve closes/the selected igniters(s) are energized when the engine start lever is placed to IDLE
112
16. When the Engine Start Switch is placed in the CONT position ______ occurs.
Ignition is provided to the selected igniters when engine is operating and engine start lever is in IDLE
113
17. When the Engine Start Switch is placed in the FLT position _____ occurs.
Ignition is provided to the both igniters when engine is operating and engine start lever is in IDLE
114
18. IGN L is powered by AC transfer bus #1 for engine #1 and AC transfer bus #2 for engine #2. What is IGN R powered by for either engine?
AC standby bus
115
19. _______occurs when the EEC detects an engine flameout.
both engine igniters are activated
116
20. X-BLD START above the N2 dial indicates ______.
crossbleed air recommended for inflight start
117
21. The thrust reversers can be deployed when ______________________ or when either radio altimeter sense less than 10 feet RA.
the air / ground safety sensor is in the ground mode
118
22. What does an amber REV displayed above the N1 gages on the center instrument panel indicate?
the thrust reverser is moved from stowed position
119
23. What does a green REV displayed above the N1 gages on the center instrument panel indicate?
the thrust reverser is deployed
120
24. _______thrust lever position will provide maximum reverse thrust.
pulling beyond detent No. 2
121
25. In regard to the APU what happens when moving the battery switch to OFF on the ground or in flight?
on the ground or inflight causes an automatic shutdown of the APU
122
26. If the APU does not reach the proper speed with the proper acceleration rate within the time limit of the starter _____ happens.
the start cycle automatically terminates
123
27. On the B737-800 moving the APU switch to the OFF position trips the APU generator closes the APU bleed air valve and extinguished the APU GEN OFF BUS light. When does shutdown occurs?
automatically after a 60 second delay
124
28. Operate the APU for ________ before using it as a bleed air source in order to extend the service life of the APU.
one minute
125
29. On the B737-800 in flight what happens if the APU is the only source for electrical power?
all galley busses are automatically shed
126
30. On the B737-800 the APU be operated with the blue Maintenance (MAINT) light illuminated.
TRUE
127
31. On the B737-800 an amber APU OVERSPEED light is illuminated this indicates ________ or the APU RPM limit has been exceed resulting in an automatic shutdown.
The overspeed shutdown protection feature has failed a self-test during normal APU shutdown
128
32. On the B737-800 the amber APU FAULT light illuminates______.
anytime a malfunction exists causing the APU to automatically shutdown
129
33. On the B737-800 it is acceptable to have an APU LOW OIL PRESSURE light illuminated during APU start?
TRUE
130
34. On the PFD/ND where are the Secondary Engine Indications normally displayed?
Lower Display Unit
131
35. On the PFD/ND how is low oil quantity indicated?
in reversed video and LO (white)
132
36. On the PFD/ND what does pushing the MFD Engine (ENG) switch do?
displays secondary engine indications on lower DU
133
37. Each Engine is equipped with a thrust reverser that is operated________.
hydraulically
134
38. In the event of incomplete stowage or uncommanded movement of the thrust reverser sleeve toward the deployed position what will open the isolation valve and command the control valve to stow the thrust reverser?
auto-restow circuit
135
39. N1 reference bugs and readouts can be manually set by______.
By turning the N1 SET inner knob when the N1 SET outer knob is set to BOTH 1 or 2.
136
40. ________condition(s) would cause an amber Engine Fail (ENG FAIL) Alert.
Engine N2 below sustainable idle (50% N2) and engine start lever in IDLE position
137
41. A red N2 RPM display indicates______.
An operating limit is being exceeded
138
42. A steady illuminated amber START VALVE OPEN Alert light indicates_______.
The respective engine start valve is open and air is supplied to the starter
139
43. An illuminated amber REVERSER light on the aft overhead panel indicates______.
The isolation valve or thrust reverser control valve is not in commanded position one or more thrust reversers sleeves are not in commanded state or a failure has been detected in synchronization shaft lock circuitry/The auto-restow circuit has been activated
140
44. An illuminated amber ENGINE CONTROL light on the aft overhead panel indicates____.
The engine control system is not dispatchable due to faults in the system
141
45. Moving the Engine Start Lever to IDLE ______________ energizes ignition system through EECs; electrically opens spar fuel shutoff valve in the wing leading edge outboard of the pylon.
Electrically opens engine-mounted fuel shutoff valve
142
46. ________ is the Maximum continuous engine oil temperature.
140°C
143
47. The minimum engine oil quantity prior to engine start is_____.
70%
144
48. It is required to all an engine to remain at idle for __ minute(s) before changing thrust lever position when ambient temperatures are below-35° C.
2
145
1. The minimum battery voltage for APU start is____.
23 volts
146
2. When a source of power is connected to a bus system _____ occurs.
it automatically disconnects an existing source
147
3. What does a GRD POWER AVAILABLE light do?
provides flight deck indication that AC ground power is connected to the aircraft and meets aircraft power quality standards
148
4. If the BUS TRANS switch is in the AUTO position and the source powering the transfer bus is disconnected or fails what does the source powering the opposite transfer bus through the BTBs do?
automatically picks up the unpowered transfer bus
149
5. What do the three transformer rectifier (TR) units do?
convert 115-volt AC to 28-volt DC
150
6. Inflight when does an amber TR UNIT light illuminate?
TR1 or TR2 and TR3 has failed
151
7. How long does a fully charged battery have sufficient capacity to provide electrical power for? (Single-Battery configuration)
A minimum of 30 minutes
152
8. When does an amber BAT DISCHARGE light illuminate?
excessive battery discharge is detected
153
9. If one or more of the following buses are unpowered __________ it is indicated by an illuminated STANDBY Power (PWR) OFF Light
all answers are correct
154
10. In flight or on the ground with the STANDBY POWER Switch in AUTO (guarded position) in with the loss of all AC power the AC standby bus is powered by __________________ and the DC standby bus is powered by _____________.
The battery
155
11. The light on the overhead panel that illuminates if the APU is running and not supplying power to a bus is the_____.
APU GEN OFF BUS
156
12. On the ground and inflight the APU generator can supply power to ____________.
both transfer busses
157
13. The electrical system is designed to ___________ during single generator operation.
shed electrical loads incrementally
158
14. When ____ oil is sensed in the IDG the amber DRIVE caution light is illuminated.
low
159
15. It _________ possible to reactivate the IDG in flight after the IDG disconnect switch is used to disconnect the IDG from the engine.
is not
160
16. Which of the following can cause IDG low oil pressure?
IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature/IDG disconnected through the generator drive DISCONNECT switch
161
17. An amber _______ light illuminates to indicate the DC system or standby system equipment has failed while the aircraft is on the ground. This light is inhibited in flight.
ELEC
162
1. On the Cabin Pressurization Panel what has occurred if both the amber AUTO FAIL light and the green ALTN light is illuminated?
a single channel controller failure has occurred
163
2. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light indicates the aircraft began descent before having reached the planned cruise altitude. What does the controller program the cabin to?
to land at the takeoff field elevation without further pilot inputs
164
3. Which stages of the compressor section is bleed air is obtained from (NG aircraft)?
5th; 9th
165
4. The ___ high-stage valve modulates open to maintain proper pressure when 5th low-stage pressure is insufficient (NG aircraft).
9th
166
5. The engine bleed air valve is normally _____ operated and DC power activated.
pneumatically
167
6. What does the illumination of the BLEED TRIP OFF light indicate?
engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined limit
168
7. When the BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates what effect does this have on the engine bleed air system?
The respective engine bleed air valve closes automatically
169
8. The isolation valve is _____ when the isolation valve switch in AUTO both engine bleed air switches ON and both air conditioning pack switches AUTO or HIGH.
closed
170
9. The isolation valve is _____ when the isolation valve switch in AUTO if either an engine bleed air switch or an air conditioning pack switch is positioned OFF.
open
171
10. Turning the APU bleed air switch OFF with the PACK switches in AUTO will cause the isolation valve to open.
FALSE
172
11. The APU bleed air valve is___ operated and ______ activated.
pneumatically; DC
173
12. Engine thrust must be _______ with the DUAL BLEED light illuminated.
limited to idle
174
13. ______causes a WING-BODY OVERHEAT condition.
a bleed air duct leak
175
14. Which WING-BODY OVERHEAT light will illuminate if a leak in the bleed duct from the APU occurs?
Left
176
15. The isolation valve _________ if either engine BLEED air or air condition PACK switch is positioned OFF with the ISOLOATION VALVE switch in AUTO.
automatically opens
177
16. Conditioned air from which PACK upstream of the mix manifold flows directly to the flight deck?
left pack
178
17. Air from the left pack air from the right pack and air from the recirculation system is combined within the _______.
mix manifold
179
18. On the ground the APU can supply air for ________ for all operations.
two packs
180
19. With the air conditioning PACK switches in AUTO and both packs are operating _________.
the packs provide normal air flow
181
20. When one pack is operating _________ with the air conditioning PACK switches in AUTO.
the operating pack provides high air flow
182
21. Anytime the pack valve closes on the B737 -700 the air mix valves are driven to the _______ position automatically.
full cold
183
22. In the automatic temperature mode on the B737 -700 the ________ are operated by the automatic temperature controller.
air mix valves
184
23. The automatic temperature controller is bypassed when the temperature selector is positioned to ________ on the B737-700
MANUAL
185
24. The ram air system is used to provide cooling for what part of the air conditioning systems?
heat exchangers
186
25. A DUCT OVERHEAT light causes the appropriate air mix valve to drive ___________ on a B737-700.
full cold
187
26. When a PACK TRIP OFF light illuminates the pack valve ________ on the B737-700.
automatically closes and the mix valve drives full cold
188
27. In a B737-800 _______ if an amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates?
the MASTER CAUTION light will illuminate and the trim air valve closes
189
28. The recirculation fan system __________ the engine bleed air demand and air conditioning load.
reduces
190
29. What does the TRIP RESET switch reset?
DUCT OVERHEAT on the B737-700 or the ZONE TEMP on the B737-800/BLEED TRIP OFF PACK TRIP OFF
191
30. On the B737-800 what is indicated by the PACK light?
a pack trip off or failure of both primary and standby pack controls
192
31. Cabin air outflow controlled by______.
the outflow valve and the overboard exhaust valve
193
32. On the Cabin Pressurization Panel what does an illuminated amber AUTO FAIL light indicate?
automatic pressurization system failure is detected
194
33. Manually positioning the outflow valve to OPEN will cause cabin altitude to _________.
Climb
195
34. The main outflow valve is the overboard exhaust exit for the majority of the air circulated through the passenger cabin and is actuated by one of _____ DC motors and
three
196
35. On the cabin altitude panel the ________on the CABIN Altimeter (ATL) / Differential Pressure (DIFF PRESS) Indicator indicates the cabin altitude in feet.
inner scale
197
36. On the cabin altitude panel the _______ on the CABIN Altimeter (ATL) / Differential Pressure (DIFF PRESS) Indicator indicates the differential pressure between cabin and ambient in psi.
outer scale
198
37. The intermittent cabin altitude warning horn can be cut out ______.
By pushing the Altitude (ATL) HORN CUTOUT Switch
199
38. At _______ cabin altitude the intermittent cabin altitude warning will sound.
10000 feet
200
39. Cabin rate of climb displayed ______.
on the cabin rate of climb indicator
201
40. On the Cabin Pressurization Panel _______modes automatically pressurize the aircraft.
AUTO & ALTN
202
1. What position must Engine ignition be selected to prior to and during engine anti-ice operation?
CONT
203
2. Window heat must be ON how many minutes before takeoff?
10 minutes
204
3. When must probe heat be ON?
before takeoff
205
4. ________flight deck windows are not electrically heated.
L3 and R3
206
5. Temperature controllers maintain window heat at the correct temperature on which windows to ensure maximum strength of the windows in the event of bird impact?
L1 R1 L2 and R2
207
6. On the Window Heat Panel when an overheat condition is detected power is removed from the window the green ON light extinguishes and __________.
an amber OVERHEAT Light is illuminated
208
8. By placing the WINDOW HEAT Test Switch to OVHT _______________ is simulated.
an overheat condition
209
9. What happens when placing the WINDOW HEAT Test Switch to PWR TEST?
It provides a confidence test.
210
10. Engine bleed air thermal anti-icing prevents the formation of ice on which part of the engine?
engine cowl lip
211
11. Each cowl anti-ice valve is _______ actuated and ______ controlled.
pressure; electrically
212
12. ________________occurs when the ENG ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to ON.
The stick shaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on airspeed indications are adjusted. The airspeed indications return to normal when engine anti-ice is positioned OFF if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight./Engine bleed air is allowed to flow through the cowl anti-ice valve for cowl lip anti-icing and the stick shaker logic is set for icing conditions.
213
13. If the cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position indicated by the ENG ANTI-ICE switch an amber TAI indication illuminates on the CDS after a short delay and the COWL VALVE OPEN light ________ .
remains illuminated bright blue
214
14. An amber illuminated COWL ANTI-ICE Light on the Engine Anti-Ice Panel indicates __________.
excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip
215
15. What does an amber TAI on the upper display unit above the N1 gauge indicate?
cowl anti-ice valve is not in position indicated by related engine anti-ice switch.
216
16. The wing anti-ice system excludes the _______ and the_________.
leading edge flaps; outboard leading edge slats
217
17. On the ground both of the wing anti-ice valves close if ___________ or either engine thrust is above the takeoff warning setting.
either temperature sensor senses a duct over temperature
218
18. What does a bright blue Wing Anti-Ice VALVE OPEN Light on the Wing Anti-Ice Panel indicate?
The related wing anti-ice control valve is in transit or related wing anti-ice control valve position disagrees with WING ANTI–ICE switch position.
219
19. An amber CAPT PITOT light on the Probe Heat Panel indicates ________.
the probe is not heated
220
1. The operation of the standby hydraulic system is _______ by a leak in hydraulic system B.
15. not affected
221
2. What is the purpose of the PTU?
To supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the autoslats or the leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system B engine-driven pump volume is lost
222
3. What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer unit?
To raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system A engine-driven pump volume is lost
223
4. The landing gear transfer unit operates when airborne ______________ and the No. 1 engine RPM drops below a limit value.
the landing gear is positioned up and either main landing gear is not up and locked
224
5. The standby system uses a single electric motor-driven pump and ____________________ .
can be activated manually or automatically
225
6. The standby hydraulic system powers the thrust reversers __________ and rudder.
leading edge flaps and slats (extend only) and the standby yaw damper
226
7. Automatic operation of the standby hydraulic pump is initiated when _______ and loss of hydraulic system A or B
flaps are extended; and airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 knots
227
8. Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD __________ closes the related flight control shutoff valve; deactivates the related flight control LOW PRESSURE light; allows the standby system to power the rudder and thrust reversers.
all answers are correct
228
9. Positioning the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM: __________ operates the trailing edge flap bypass valve allows the standby system to power the leading edge flaps and slats and thrust reversers and arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
activates the standby electric motor-driven pump
229
10. On the B737-800 ___________ when there is a leak in the standby hydraulic system.
The LOW QUANTITY light illuminates and the system B reservoir fluid decreases to approximately 72%
230
11. What is indicated by an amber illuminated Electric Hydraulic Pump OVERHEAT light?
the hydraulic fluid used to cool and lubricate the corresponding electric motor driven pump has overheated/the pump itself has overheated
231
12. The respective engine-driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light is ________ when pulling the Engine 1 fire warning switch.
deactivated
232
13. An illuminated amber Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light indicates low hydraulic system A or B pressure to which flight controls?
ailerons and elevator/rudder
233
14. An illuminated amber standby hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light is ___________ and indicates low quantity in the standby hydraulic reservoir.
always armed
234
15. An illuminated amber standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light is __________ and indicates low output pressure.
armed only when the standby hydraulic pump operation has been selected or automatic standby pump operation is activated
235
16. When Positioning the ENG 1 hydraulic pump switch to OFF the pump_____ to rotate and fluid flow is isolated from the system component.
continues
236
17. After an engine fire warning switch is pulled the hydraulic fluid flow to the related engine-driven pump is shut off and ______________.
its LOW PRESSURE light is deactivated
237
18. _____ is the minimum fuel for ground operation of electric hydraulic pumps in the related main tank.
1675 lbs.
238
19. What happens if a leak develops in the A system hydraulic engine-driven pump or its related lines?
a standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss
239
20. What happens if a leak develops in the in the A system hydraulic electric motor-driven pump or its related lines?
the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is lost
240
21. What happens if a leak develops in either pump line or component of system B?
the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to approximately zero and system B pressure is lost however the power transfer unit is still operational
241
22. The operation of the standby hydraulic system _______ by a leak in hydraulic system B.
Is not affected
242
23. Which system can power all flight controls with no decrease in aircraft controllability?
Either A or B hydraulic system
243
24. What is the maximum tire ground speed?
195 knots
244
25. The brake wear indicators should extend beyond the brake flange with the parking brake in what position?
set
245
26. Hydraulic power for retraction extension and nose wheel steering is normally supplied by which hydraulic system?
hydraulic system A
246
27. The alternate brake system is powered by _________ and the normal brakes system is powered by _______.
hydraulic system A; hydraulic system B
247
28. Antiskid protection is provided which brake system(s)?
on both brake system (normal and alternate)
248
29. The ____________ stop rotation of the main gear wheels during landing gear retraction.
brakes automatically
249
30. The nose wheels retract forward into the wheel well and nose wheel rotation is stopped by _________ during landing gear retraction.
snubbers
250
31. What happens Moving the LANDING GEAR lever to the OFF position?
hydraulic pressure from the landing gear system is removed
251
32. An illuminated red landing gear indicator light indicates the ____________ or the related landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position (in transits or unsafe).
landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers retarded to idle and below 800 feet AGL)
252
33. What does an extinguished green landing gear indicator light indicate?
landing gear is not down and locked
253
34. When the LANDING GEAR lever is moved to DN hydraulic system pressure is used to release the uplocks. How is the landing gear extended?
hydraulic pressure gravity and air loads
254
35. If _________ green landing gear indicator light(s) (center panel and/or overhead panel) for each gear is/are illuminated the landing gear is down and locked
At least one
255
36. The landing gear transfer unit allows hydraulic system B to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid required to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when airborne LANDING GEAR lever is positioned UP ___________ and either main landing gear is not up and locked.
No. 1 engine RPM drops below a limit value
256
37. What effect on landing gear retraction does opening the Manual Extension Access Door have?
disables it
257
38. With the landing gear lever ____________ manual landing gear extension is possible.
in any position
258
39. The 737 manual gear releases on the flight deck are used to_________ that allow the gear to_________ to the down and locked position.
release uplocks; free-fall
259
40. Nose wheel steering will be available _____________________.
when the nose gear is in the down position and compressed by the weight of the airplane
260
41. Pushing the rudder pedal down allows for nose wheel turning up to ______in both directions.
7 degrees
261
42. ________ allows the aircraft to push back or be towed without depressurizing hydraulic system A.
A lockout pin
262
43. Switching the Nose Wheel Steering Switch to ALT allows ____________ to provide power for nose wheel steering.
hydraulic system B
263
44. If the normal and alternate brake system pressure is lost trapped hydraulic pressure in the brake accumulator can still provide ____________ or a parking brake application.
several braking applications
264
45. Skid locked wheel touchdown and hydroplane protection will be available ____________.
with the normal and alternate braking system
265
46. The 737 parking brake can be set with _________.
A or B hydraulic system or the accumulator if A and B are not pressurized
266
47. What is the normal hydraulic brake pressure as indicated on the brake accumulator _________?
3000 psi
267
48. Placing the AUTO BRAKE Select Switch to 1 2 3 or MAX selects the desired ________for touchdown.
deceleration rate
268
49. With the AUTO BRAKE Select Switch in the RTO position maximum brake pressure is automatically applied when the thrust levers are retarded to idle at or above ____ knots.
90 knots
269
50. On a dry runway the maximum autobrake deceleration rate in the landing mode is _______ that produced by full pedal braking.
less than
270
51. After the autobraking has started decelerating any of the following pilot actions disarm the system immediately and will illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
moving speed brake lever to full forward or applying manual brakes/advancing the forward thrust lever(s) except during the first 3 seconds after touchdown
271
1. At radio altitudes less than _________do not deploy the speed brakes in flight.
1000 feet
272
2. Full power control to the ailerons is provided by _____________ hydraulic system.
Either
273
3. If you have a total hydraulic power failure rotation of the controls wheels _________ positions the ailerons.
mechanically
274
4. If you have a jammed spoiler system force applied to the _____ control wheel provides roll control from the ailerons.
Captains
275
5. If you have a jammed aileron system force applied to the _____ control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers.
First Officers
276
6. If the autopilot is engaged any ______ trim applied can result in an out of trim condition and an abrupt ________ movement when the autopilot is disconnected.
aileron; rolling
277
7. When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately ____ spoiler deflection is initiated and the flight spoilers rise on the wing with the up aileron and remain faired on the wing with the down aileron.
10 degrees
278
8. On the 737 __________ Aileron Trim Switch(es) repositions the aileron neutral control position.
Movement of both
279
9. Looking at the pitch control surfaces these consist of _______ powered elevators and an _______ powered stabilizer.
hydraulically; electrically
280
10. If you have a control column jam an override mechanism allows ___________.
the control columns to be physically separated
281
11. If the FEEL DIFF PRESS light Illuminates this indicates _______.
excessive differential hydraulic pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer
282
12. On the 737 engagement and disengagement of the Mach Trim System is accomplished _____________.
automatically as a function of airspeed
283
13. What has occurred when the MACH TRIM FAIL light is illuminated only when the Master Caution Annunciator recall is activated?
a single channel failure of the mach trim system
284
14. The Elevator Feel Shift module increases hydraulic system A pressure to the elevator feel and centering unit during a stall. This increases the _________ force to approximately double the normal feel pressure.
forward control column
285
15. There are two modes on the main electric and autopilot stabilizer trim: high speed with flaps _________ and low speed with flaps _________.
extended; retracted
286
16. Actuating either pair of stabilizer trim switches ______________ if the autopilot is engaged.
automatically disengages the autopilot
287
17. With the stabilizer trim outside the takeoff trim range ___________ if takeoff is attempted.
An intermittent horn sounds
288
18. _______________ may be used to return the stabilizer to electrical trim units if manual trim is used to position the stabilizer beyond the electrical trim limits.
the stabilizer trim switches
289
19. The stabilizer trim main electric cutout switch and the stabilizer trim autopilot cutout switch are provided to allow the autopilot or main electrical trim inputs to be ____________________.
disconnected from the single stabilizer trim moto
290
20. When control column movement opposes the trim direction what will occur?
The control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches stop operation of the main electric and autopilot trim
291
21. Switching the STAB TRIM override switch to OVERRIDE ____________.
electric trim can be used regardless of control column position
292
22. The speed trim system (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to improve the flight characteristics during any operation with a low gross weight aft center of gravity and high thrust when the autopilot _______ engaged.
is not
293
23. ___________ operates the rudder system.
Either hydraulic system
294
24. B737-800 the yaw damper uses the _____________.
hydraulic system B or standby hydraulic system pressure
295
25. Above approximately 135 knots there is a reduction in both hydraulic system A and B pressure. This function limits full rudder authority _____________.
in flight after takeoff and before landing
296
26. The rudder pedals permit limited nose gear steering up to ______ degrees each side of center for steering.
7
297
27. Which hydraulic system powers the ground spoilers?
A
298
28. When the SPEED BRAKE lever is actuated all of the spoilers will__________.
extend on the ground and only the flight spoilers extend when the aircraft is in the air
299
29. If you use the flight spoilers during a turn ___________.
greatly increase the roll rate
300
30. All flight and ground spoilers will automatically rise to the full extension on landing if the speed brake lever is in the ARMED position and __________.
both thrust levers are at IDLE
301
31. An illuminated SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicates ___________.
an abnormal condition or during landing the wheel speed has dropped below 60kts and the speed brake lever is not in the down position
302
32. The speedbrake lever _______ position in the 737 indicates all flight spoilers are extended to their maximum position for inflight use while the ________ indicates all flight and ground spoilers are extended to their maximum position for use on the ground.
FLIGHT DETENT; UP
303
33. In the event of a total hydraulic system B failure the trailing edge flaps ___________.
can be operated electrically
304
34. ____________ is provided through the electrical alternate flap drive system.
No asymmetry or skew protection
305
35. The Flaps/Slats Electronic Unit (FSEU) monitors trailing edge flaps for _______________. If the Flaps/Slats Electronic Unit (FSEU) detects a trailing edge problem it_______ the trailing edge flap bypass valve preventing further travel.
asymmetry and skew conditions; closes
306
36. The TE flap load relief function protects the flaps from excessive air loads. When the flaps are set to 40 the trailing edge flaps will _______ if airspeed exceeds a predetermined limit.
retract to 30
307
37. Why are there mechanical Flap Gates positioned at the flaps 1 and flaps 15 detent?
for single engine and normal go-around
308
38. Where would a TE flaps asymmetry error or skew indication issue be seen?
The Flap Position Indicator
309
39. The 737 Leading edge devices are normally extended and retracted by ___________.
hydraulic power from system B
310
40. The 737 Leading edge devices _______ be retracted by the standby hydraulic system.
cannot
311
41. At flaps 1 the Auto Slat system _____________ as the aircraft approaches a stall condition.
automatically drives the slats to FULL EXTEND
312
42. An amber illuminated Leading Edge Devices Transit (LE FLAP TRANSIT) Light indicates _________.
a LE slat skew condition exists/any LE device is in transit or is not in its programmed position with respect to the trailing edge flaps
313
1. The maximum allowed random lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 2 is_____
1000 lbs.
314
2. Normally the fuel crossfeed valve is in what position?
closed
315
3. While on the ground center tank fuel pump switches must not be positioned ON unless the center tank fuel quantity exceeds ________ pounds.
1000
316
4. You must not position the center tank fuel pump switches to ON unless __________.
personnel are available on the flight deck to monitor low-pressurelights
317
5. To ensure center tank fuel is used first the center tank pumps produce _______ pressure than the main tank pumps.
higher
318
6. In the event normal electrical fuel pump operation is not available the engine driven fuel pumps _________________
will provide suction feed
319
7. ________________ closes whenever their respective engine fire warning switch is pulled or engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF.
Both the spar fuel shutoff valve and the engine fuel shutoff valve
320
8. Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the ______ fuel manifold when AC fuel pumps are operating.
LEFT
321
9. When the ENGINE VALVE CLOSED light is extinguished this indicates the related valve is ___________.
OPEN
322
10. You know the spar valve is closed with an illuminated (blue) _________ SPAR VALVE CLOSED light.
dim
323
11. An illuminated bright blue crossfeed VALVE OPEN light is indicating ____________.
the crossfeed valve is in transit/the crossfeed valves position and CROSSFEED selector disagree
324
12. An amber illuminated FILTER BYPASS light is indicating ____________.
an impending fuel filter bypass
325
13. The quantity indication on the fuel system calculates _________ fuel quantity in each tank.
the useable
326
14. An amber illuminated Fuel (LOW) indication will display when __________.
the fuel quantity is less than 2000 lbs. in the related main tank
327
15. An amber displayed fuel configuration (CONFIG) alert is indicating ____________.
either engine running and both center fuel pump switches are positioned OFF and center fuel tank quantity is greater than 1600 lbs
328
16. An amber illuminated Fuel Imbalance (IMBAL) Indication is displayed when main tanks differ by more than ____________ and will be displayed until imbalance is reduced to _______.
1000 lbs; 200 lbs
329
1. While the Autopilot is engaged the use of Aileron Trim is _______.
prohibited
330
2. The AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System ) is a dual system consisting of _____individual FCCs ( flight control computers ) and a single mode control panel.
two
331
3. All AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System) modes can be disengaged when you select another command mode or _______________.
by disengaging the A/P and turning the F/Ds off
332
4. Unless ________ Autopilot engagement in CMD or CWS is inhibited.
No force is being applied to the control wheel./The STAB TRIM AUTOPILOT cutout switch is at NORMAL
333
5. When you are in a single A/P operation full automatic flare and touchdown capability and A/P go-around capability are ______.
not available
334
6. What steering command allows both of the A/Ps to be engaged at the same time?
the Approach mode
335
7. The A/P automatically disengages when __________:
Activating either pilots control wheel trim switch or loss of respective hydraulic system pressure/Pushing either A/P disengage switch or pushing either Takeoff / Go-around (TO/GA) switch with a single A/P engaged in CWS or CMD below 2000 feet RA
336
8. On the 737 the F/Ds can be operated __________.
with or without the A/P and A/T
337
9. How do you know which FCC is the master?
by illumination of the respective master (MA) F/D indicator light
338
10. What following indications are displayed in the A/P status display located above the attitude indicator?
CMD FD 1 CH/CWS P CWS R
339
11. What does CMD indicate in the autopilot status display of the AFDS?
one or both autopilots are engaged
340
12. What does CWS P indicate in the autopilot status display of the AFDS?
pitch mode engaged in CWS
341
13. What does CWS R indicate in the autopilot status display of the AFDS?
roll mode engaged in CWS
342
14. What does SINGLE CH indicate in the autopilot status display of the AFDS?
for a single A/P ILS approach annunciates after localizer capture and remains on for entire approach
343
15. What does N1 indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode?
The autothrottle maintains thrust at the selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display including full go-around N1 setting.
344
16. What does GA indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode?
The autothrottle maintains thrust at reduced go-around setting.
345
17. What does FMC SPD indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode?
The autothrottle maintains speed commanded by the FMC. The autothrottle is limited to the N1 value shown on the thrust mode display.
346
18. What does MCP SPD indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode?
The autothrottle maintains speed set in the MCP IAS/MACH display. The autothrottle is limited to the N1 value shown on the thrust mode display.
347
19. What does THR HLD indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode?
The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot can set the thrust levers manually.
348
20. To engage a TO/GA mode for takeoff ______________ and you have to press either TO/GA switch
both FD switches must be ON
349
21. To engage a TO/GA mode for go-around press either TO/GA switch when _______
Inflight below 2000 feet radio altitude/not in takeoff mode and either F/D switch ON or OFF
350
22. While you are in the pitch mode VNAV SPD commands _______
the AFDS to maintain the FMC speed displayed on the airspeed indicator and/or the CDU CLIMB or DESCENT pages
351
23. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation VNAV PTH commands _______.
the AFDS to maintain FMC altitude or descent path with pitch commands
352
24. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation V/S (engaged) commands _______.
pitch to hold selected vertical speed
353
25. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation ALT ACQ commands _______.
a transition maneuver entered automatically from a V/S LVL CHG or VNAV climb or descent to the selected MCP altitude.
354
26. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation ALT HOLD commands _______.
pitch to hold MCP selected altitude or uncorrected barometric altitude at which ALT HOLD switch was pushed
355
27. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation MCP SPD commands _______.
the AFDS to maintain the IAS/MACH window airspeed or Mach
356
28. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation G/S (engaged) commands _______.
the AFDS to follow the ILS glideslope
357
29. In the pitch mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation FLARE (engaged) commands _______.
During a dual A/P ILS approach flare engages at 50 feet radio altitude. FLARE accomplishes the autoland flare maneuver.
358
30. In the roll mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation LNAV commands _______.
the AFDS to intercept and track the active FMC route
359
31. In the roll mode the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation HDG SEL commands _______.
the aircraft to turn to or remain on the heading selected in the MCP Heading Display
360
32. Looking at the Mode Control Panel Speed mode engages automatically when:
ALT ACQ engages or ALT HOLD engages/V/S engages or G/S capture occurs
361
33. If you push the Speed Intervention (SPD INTV) Switch on the Mode Control Panel when VNAV is engaged this __________________.
reveals the IAS/MACH display activates FMC speed intervention displays the FMC target speed and allows the IAS/MACH selector to be used to set the desired speed
362
34. If you engage VNAV the FMC command the AFDS pitch and ______________ to fly vertical profile selected on the ____________.
autothrottle; FMC CDUs
363
35. While you are in a VNAV SPD descent the autothrottle holds ______ and the AFDS _________.
idle; holds FMC target speed
364
36. While you are in a VNAV PTH descent the autothrottle holds ______ and the AFDS _________.
idle but can command FMC SPD mode if ground speed becomes too low to maintain FMC vertical path; tracks FMC descent path
365
37. If you push the Level Change (LVL CHG) switch in a climb this commands the autothrottles to hold ______ thrust and the AFDS to hold selected airspeed.
limit
366
38. If you push the Level Change (LVL CHG) switch in a descent this commands the autothrottles to hold ______ thrust and the AFDS to hold selected airspeed.
idle
367
39. While in you are in Altitude Hold if the Altitude Selector on the Mode Control Panel is rotated in any direction the ______ mode is armed.
V/S
368
40. When you are actively descending or climbing with VNAV engaged if the ALT INTV switch is pushed the next altitude restriction in the FMC will be _________.
eliminated
369
41. Pushing the LNAV Switch commands the AFDS roll to intercept and track the active _______ on the Mode Control Panel.
FMC route
370
42. Initially pushing the HDG SEL (Heading Select) switch commands a turn in the shortest direction towards the heading bug.
TRUE
371
43. Pushing the Approach (APP) Switch arms the AFDS for what?
localizer and glideslope capture
372
1. In the roll mode VOR/LOC (engaged) commands _______.
AFDS to track selected VOR course or track selected localizer course along the inbound front course bearing
373
2. For a successful dual autopilot approach tune the second VHF NAV receiver to the ILS frequency and engage the second A/P in CMD prior to _______.
800 feet RA
374
3. Without FLARE armed by approximately 350 feet RA _______________.
both A/Ps automatically disengage
375
4. A single channel autopilot approach _________.
does not provide an A/P go-around
376
5. During an autopilot go-around the first push of either TO/GA switch commands the thrust to advance towards the reduced go-around N1 to producing 1000 to 2000 fpm rate of climb. The second push of either TO/GA switch after A/T reaches reduced goaround thrust ______________.
commands the A/T to advance to the full go-around N1 limit
377
6. AFS provides speed pitch and thrust commands that will prevent exceeding the following limit speeds:
Vmo/Mmo wing flap placards landing gear placard and minimum speed
378
7. A flashing A in the IAS/MACH Display represents _______.
an underspeed
379
8. Pushing the N1 switch with the N1 light illuminated on the Mode Control Panel _______.
Deselects N1 mode and extinguishes switch light
380
9. If the Autopilot Disengage (DISENGAGE) bar is pulled down it _______.
disengages both A/Ps
381
10. The Stabilizer Out Of Trim (STAB OUT OF TRIM) light operates ________.
only with the autopilot engaged
382
11. An annunciation of - - - on the Thrust Mode Display would indicate ________.
the FMC is not computing thrust limit
383
12. An illuminated Autothrottle Limit (A/T LIM) Indication indicates:
The A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the related EEC.
384
13. CDUs and autothrottles are controlled by the _____ FMC with the FMC Source Select Switch in the NORMAL position.
left
385
14. Placing the FMC Source Select Switch to BOTH ON R selects the______ for all FMC operations. The ______ map will annunciate _______.
right FMC; Left; FMC R
386
15. Do not engage autopilot below _____ on takeoff or missed approach:
400 feet AGL
387
16. The ______ key on the CDU displays the page to input or change origin destination or route.
RTE
388
17. The ______ key on the CDU displays the page to input or change departure and arrival procedures.
DEP ARR
389
18. The ______ key on the CDU displays the page to evaluate or modify lateral and vertical route data.
LEGS
390
19. The ______ key on the CDU displays the page to view dynamic flight and navigation data including waypoint and destination ETAs fuel remaining and arrival estimates.
PROG
391
20. The ______ key on the CDU confirms data modification(s) to active status and extinguishes the light.
EXEC
392
21. When active data is modified but not executed the ________ is illuminated white.
execute light
393
22. The aircrafts sole source of attitude and heading information are the ______ except for the standby attitude indicator and standby magnetic compass.
IRSs
394
23. The IRS has begun the alignment process when the ______ light extinguishes and the ______ light illuminates.
ON DC; ALIGN
395
24. The navigation mode (including present position and ground speed outputs) is ________________ if IRS alignment is lost in flight.
inoperative for the remainder of the flight
396
25. Backup power to the _____ IRS is automatically terminated if ___ power is not restored within 5 minutes.
right; AC
397
26. Selecting the TK/GS position of the display selector on the IRS Display Unit displays present true track course in the left window and ___________ in the right window.
present ground speed
398
27. The aircraft must be ________ when placing the IRS mode selector to ALIGN for initial alignment.
stationary
399
28. After selecting the IRS mode selector to _________ the IRS provides attitude and heading only.
ATT
400
29. If an ALIGN Light on the Aft Overhead Panel flashes it indicates that alignment cannot be completed due to IRS detection of __________.
a significant difference between previous and entered positions or an unreasonable present position entry/no present position being entered
401
30. When the _______ light illuminates a system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV modes has been detected.
FAULT
402
31. When the _______ light illuminates the DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.
DC FAIL
403
32. An amber illuminated GPS light indicates ______________.
failure of both GPS sensor units
404
33. A displayed magenta color on the radar indicates ___________ .
heavy turbulence
405
34. A displayed red color on the radar indicates ___________ .
strong returns areas of heaviest rainfall
406
35. A displayed yellow color on the radar indicates ___________ .
medium returns moderate rainfall
407
36. A displayed green color on the radar indicates ___________ .
light returns light rainfall
408
37. If you push the WX/T (turbulence) switch on the weather radar this display __________.
weather radar returns and turbulence
409
38. If you push the TEST switch on the weather radar __________.
tests weather radar system operation without transmitting/if on the ground with and the thrusts levers are not advanced for takeoff tests the predictive windshear system
410
1. The Minimum Maneuver Speed (amber) bar on the PFD Airspeed Indicator is inhibited on takeoff until _______________.
first flap retraction
411
2. The top of the Minimum Speed (red and black) bar on the PFD Airspeed Indicator is the speed at which _______________.
stick shaker occurs
412
3. The bottom of the Maximum Maneuvering Speed (amber) bar indicates shortly after takeoff when flaps are not up: _______________.
flap limit placard speed for the next normal flap setting
413
4. How is altitude acquisition alerting displayed on the PFD?
900 feet prior to reaching MCP altitude a white box shows around the selected altitude display and a momentary tone sounds
414
5. The Current Altitude box on the PFD highlights in amber and flashes to indicate__________
an altitude deviation
415
6. The Bank Pointer on the PFD Attitude Indicator indicates bank angle. The indicator fills and turns amber when the bank angle is ____ degrees or greater.
35
416
7. Attitude altitude and airspeed data is provided by the ___________ which track data to the FMC as well as to the displays.
ADIRUs
417
8. Critical information remains available to the pilots at all times if a _____________ fails by automatic display switching.
DU
418
9. The green Speed Trend Vector on the PFD Airspeed Indicator shows predicted airspeed in the next ______ seconds.
10
419
10. The bottom of the red and black Maximum Speed bar on the PFD Airspeed Indicator indicates the maximum speed as limited by __________.
VMO/MMO/Landing Gear or Flap placard speed
420
11. To resolve the traffic conflict during a TCAS RA the areas inside the red lines indicate the pitch region(s) to _________ .
avoid
421
12. An amber ALT DISAGREE alert is displayed if the Captains and First Officers altimeters on the PFD Altimeter Indicator disagree by more than ______ feet for more than 5 seconds
200
422
13. Airspeed and altitude on the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) are computed from the pneumatic pressure data provided by direct connections to the ___________.
auxiliary pitot and alternate static ports
423
14. Heading information on the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is provided from _______________.
the #1 ADIRU
424
15. Placing the Mode Selector to APP or VOR on the EFIS control Panel displays information in a __________ format.
heading-up
425
16. Placing the Mode Selector to MAP on the EFIS control Panel displays information in a __________ format.
track-up
426
17. Pushing the ____ button on the EFIS control Panel would allow for the display of estimated time of arrival for each active route waypoint.
DATA
427
18. Pushing the ____ button on the EFIS control Panel would allow for the display of IRS positions GPS positions and VOR bearing vectors extended from the nose of the aircraft symbol to the stations.
POS
428
19. The approach reference located above the PFD turns amber when _____________.
the ILS tuned frequencies disagree/the approach courses in the MCP disagree
429
20. When the aircraft descends below selected minimum altitude the green BARO Minimums Pointer on the PFD _____________.
turns amber
430
21. The Landing Altitude Reference Bar indicates amber on PFD Landing Altitude/Minimums Indications when height above touchdown is __________.
0 to 500 feet above landing altitude
431
22. The rising runway on the PFD is displayed when the localizer signal is usable and ____________.
the radio altitude is less than 2500 feet
432
23. Two ________receive data from sensors and aircraft systems and supply data to the DUs.
Display Electronic Units (DEUs)
433
24. Weather radar returns are limited to ___________when the weather radar is selected to the 640 nm range.
320 nm
434
25. The flight recorder begins operating on the ground _________________________.
when either engine is operating
435
26. If the flight recorder test switch is moved from NORMAL (guarded position) to TEST it____________________.
powers the flight recorder on the ground
436
1. Frequencies are monitored by SELCAL from _________.
VHF radios/HF radios
437
2. The Selective Calling (SELCAL) Panel illuminates alerting crew to incoming communication________.
on indicated radio
438
3. ________ independent channels on the voice recorder are used to record flight deck audio.
Four
439
4. When ACARS is operational on the B737-800 do not use _____ for ATC communication.
VHF-3
440
5. The GPWS and windshear audio warnings for altitude alert are heard through _________. They ________ be controlled or turned off by the crew.
the speakers and headsets; cannot
441
6. The audio system_____________ if the remote electronic unit or audio control panel malfunctions.
reverts to degraded mode
442
7. Crewmembers can ______________________ if the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is operating in the degraded mode.
only communicate on one radio (CA #1/FO #2) and the passenger address system cannot be accessed through the Audio Control Panel (ACP)
443
8. The Captain can use radio __________ for transmission and reception while the First Officer uses radio __________ if the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is operating in the degraded mode.
VHF-1; VHF-2
444
9. Pushing a ____________ selects the related communication system for transmission and for reception regardless of whether the related receiver switch is on.
Transmitter Selector (MIC SELECTOR) Switch
445
10. Pushing a Receiver Switch allows reception of related communication system or navigation receivers. __________ may be selected at a time.
Multiple switches
446
11. Pushing the Push-To-Talk Switch on the ACP to R/T (Radio-Transmit) keys the oxygen mask or boom microphone for ____________ transmitter selector.
transmission as selected by
447
12. Pushing the Push-To-Talk Switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) to I/C (Intercom) keys the oxygen mask or boom microphone for ____________ and bypasses the transmitter selector.
transmission over the flight interphone
448
13. Selecting the MASK position on the MASK-BOOM Switch selects ____________
the oxygen mask microphone for transmission
449
14. Selecting the BOOM position on the MASK-BOOM Switch selects____________
the boom microphone for transmission
450
15. To ________________ push and rotate the Speaker (SPKR) switch to allow audio from the selected receiver to be heard on overhead speaker.
adjust overhead speaker volume
451
16. The V on the Filter Switch on the Audio Control Panel is for _______.
receiving NAV voice audio
452
17. The B on the Filter Switch on the Audio Control Panel is for _______.
receiving both NAV voice and range audio
453
18. The R on the Filter Switch on the Audio Control Panel is for _______.
receiving NAV range (code) audio
454
19. Private communication between ____________ is the primary purpose of the flight interphone system.
flight deck crew members without intrusion from the service interphone
455
20. Intercommunication between the flight deck flight attendants and ground personnel is accomplished by selecting the _______________
service interphone system
456
21. Selecting the service interphone switch allows ______________.
maintenance or service personnel to be added to the service interphone system
457
22. When the ____________ uses the passenger address (PA) system their announcements have first priority and override all other users.
flight deck
458
23. When the Flight Deck CALL Light illuminates blue this indicates the flight deck is being call by the __________________.
all answers are correct
459
24. What happens when you Press the Ground (GRD) CALL Switch __________________.
sounds a horn in the nose wheel until released
460
25. Pushing down on Push-To-Talk Switch on the pilot control yoke to INT (Interphone) keys the oxygen mask or boom microphone for ____________.
direct transmission over the flight interphone
461
26. The white Offside Tuning Light located at the top of the Radio Tuning Panel indicates what?
It indicates that radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with the radio tuning panel
462
27. Weak VHF signal reception can be improved by pressing the ____________?
Communication (VHF) Test (TEST) Switch
463
28. INOP displayed in the frequency window on the Radio Tuning Panel indicates _________.
the selected radio is not available
464
29. The B737-800 HF communication system has _____ HF systems. Each system has _________ HF antenna.
two; a common or shared
465
30. HF communication system operation in the transmit mode while fueling the aircraft is _____________
not permissible
466
31. The TEST Switch on the Voice Recorder Panel activates a green light (or raises the indicator into the green band) when pushed and ___________.
sounds a tone through the HEADSET jack located on the Voice Recorder Panel
467
32. The (ATTEND) CALL Switch __________________ when selected.
sounds a two-tone chime and illuminates a pink Master Call Light in the Cabin
468
1. What is the maximum operating pressure altitude for the B737?
41000 feet
469
2. What is the maximum takeoff/landing tailwind component for the B737?
15 knots
470
3. Icing conditions exist in flight when
visible moisture in any form is present (i.e. clouds fog with visibility of 1 mile or less rain snow sleet or ice crystals) and Total air temperature of 10°C or below
471
4. On takeoff or missed approach do not engage the autopilot below
400 feet AGL
472
5. The minimum altitude for use of the autopilot on a non-precision approach is
50 feet below MDA/DA
473
6. The minimum altitude for use of the autopilot on an ILS approach is
50 feet AGL
474
7. Max flap extension altitude is
20000 feet
475
8. Identify the recommended severe turbulence penetration speed
CRUISE TURB N1 setting from cruise page
476
9. Identify the recommended severe turbulence penetration speed CLIMB and DESCENT
280 knots / .76 Mach
477
10. What is the RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND COMPONENT for the following conditions/parameters: Runway Condition Code: 5 Surface Condtion:1/8 inch WATER TAKEOFF Crosswind Component (Blended winglets/Spilt Scimitar Winglet)
25/25
478
11. What is the RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND COMPONENT for the following conditions/parameters: Runway Condition Code: 6 Surface Condition: DRY TAKEOFF Crosswind Component (Blended winglets/Split Scimitar Winglet)
34/33
479
12. What is the RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND COMPONENT for the following conditions/parameters: Runway Condition Code: 6 Surface Condition: DRY LANDING Crosswind Component (Blended Winglet/Spit Scimitar Winglet
40/37
480
13. Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below _______.
1000 feet AFE
