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AMTC SWE > SWE gouge > Flashcards

SWE gouge Flashcards

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1
Q

firefighting and rescue manual

A

00-80R-14

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2
Q

• Class A Fires

A

wood and wood products, extinguished with water

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3
Q

• Class B Fires

A

gasoline, jet fuels, oil, and other flammable/combustible liquids, extinguished with AFFF, clean agent, and PKP

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4
Q

• Class C Fires

A

energized electrical equipment, extinguish with PKP

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5
Q

• Class D Fires

A

combustible metals, extinguished with water in large quantities

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6
Q

• JP-4

A

NATO F-40, flash point –10 °F to 30 °F

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7
Q

• JP-5 Flash Point

A

NATO F-44 flashpoint of 140 °F

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8
Q

• JP-8/ Flash Point

A

NATO F-34, flash point of 100 °F

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9
Q

• primary flight line extinguishers

A

halogenated clean agent wheeled units

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10
Q

• airfield extinguishers inspections done IAW

A

NFPA Standard 10 inspection

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11
Q

• How often are Nitrogen cylinders hydrostatically tested

A

every 5 years

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12
Q

cleaning and corrosion control manual

A

• 1-1-691

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13
Q

Definition of corrosion

A

• Corrosion is the electrochemical deterioration of a metal because of its chemical reaction with the surrounding environment

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14
Q

What is the most common type of corrosion

A

electrochemical corrosion

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15
Q

What are the four conditions must exist before corrosion can occur

A

Anode, Cathode, Electrolyte, Electrical Contact

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16
Q

Is the anode or cathode the corroding metal

A

the corroding metal is known as the anode

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17
Q

Uniform Surface Corrosion

A

direct chemical attack on a metal surface and involves only the metal surface, first seen as a general dulling or etching of a polished surface

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18
Q

Galvanic Corrosion

A

different metals in contact with each other and an electrolyte

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19
Q

How does Pitting Corrosion appear

A

first noticeable as a white or gray powdery deposit

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20
Q

Exfoliation Corrosion

A

advanced form of intergranular corrosion where the surface grains of a metal are lifted up by the force of expanding corrosion products occurring at the grain boundaries

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21
Q

Stress Corrosion Cracking

A

intergranular or transgranular cracking of a metal caused by the combined effects of constant tensile stress

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22
Q

Does carbon corrode easily

A

• Carbon is cathodic and has low corrosion potential

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23
Q

Fretting Corrosion

A

special form of concentration cell corrosion which occurs in combination with surface wear

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24
Q

What does corrosion on magnesium look like

A

appears as white, powdery mounds or spots

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25
What flaws can you see with penetrant inspection
flaw being inspected for is open to the surface
26
What can eddy current inspection detect
can detect and evaluate pitting, intergranular, exfoliation, stress cracking, and corrosion fatigue cracking
27
What can be seen with ultrasonic inspection
may be used to detect exfoliation, intergranular, pitting, corrosion, and stress corrosion and corrosion fatigue cracking
28
what is the depth of light corrosion
.001inch maximum can normally be removed by light hand sanding
29
what is the depth of moderate corrosion
0.010 inch normally removed by extensive hand sanding or light mechanical sanding
30
what is the depth of sever corrosion
deeper than 0.010 inch, must be removed by extensive mechanical sanding or grinding and may require a patch type repair or component replacement
31
Corrosion shall always be removed by
the mildest effective technique
32
four major types of metallic wools
aluminum, copper, stainless steel, and carbon steel
33
How many grades of metallic wools are there
available in five grades, ranging from very fine to extra coarse
34
4 types of wire brushes
carbon steel, stainless steel, aluminum, and brass bristles
35
What is used primarily for the initial removal of heavy corrosion deposits such as flaking rust and exfoliation
Scrapers
36
hardness testers
usually a Rockwell, Brinell, or Vickers type
37
• Prior to securing turnbuckles, threaded terminals should be screwed into the turnbuckle barrel until no more than _____ threads of either terminal are outside the barrel
three
38
What do you do after the turnbuckle has been adjusted for proper cable tension
two pieces of safety wire are inserted one-half the wire length into the hole in the center of the turnbuckle barrel
39
classifications of fuel contamination
generally classified as chemical, microbial, or material
40
what is the maximum amount of special duty pay that you can get
$450 per month
41
what percent of all Coast Guard units are within 30 miles of a HSWL RP
42
42
What year was the Coast Guard Special Needs Program was implemented
1984
43
Enrollment in the Special Needs Program does not preclude AD members from:
1) Sea duty; (2) Normal sea/shore rotation; (3) Unaccompanied assignments; (4) Standing watches; (5) Performing normally assigned duties; or (6) Temporary Duty (TDY) assignments in support of Coast Guard-wide individual augmentation or contingency response operations
44
Risk management manual
Comdtinst 3500.3a
45
• risk is defined as:
the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard
46
• Risk Management is defined as
a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity
47
what is the most common cause of mishaps
lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities
48
• Research has identified ____ critical human factors that if not managed will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps
7
49
• The Coast Guard has adopted a 5-step Risk Management process that consists of
1) Identifying Hazards, 2) Assessing Hazards, 3) Developing Controls and Making Decisions, 4) Implementing Controls, and 5) Supervising and Evaluating Controls
50
Peace model
``` Planning Event Complexity Asset Communications Environment ```
51
Staar model
``` Spread out Transfer Avoid Accept Reduce ```
52
How do you propose changes to the 3710
shall be submitted to Commandant (CG-711) via the requesting unit’s Commanding Officer
53
all Coast Guard aircraft fall under the operational control of the District Commanders except....
Atlantic Area HC-130 aircraft which are under the operational control of the Area Commander
54
• Normally, TACON of aircraft and crews will shift to gaining unit when?
upon first landing at the new operating location
55
If aviation assets are operating jointly with surface or other assets who is responsible for the aviation portion of the mission
• Air Mission Commander (AMC)
56
• When working with surface forces, responsibility for coordinating air and surface mission execution normally rests with....
the surface element having the greatest communications capability
57
• no aircraft modifications or changes will be made without specific authorization from ...
Commandants (CG-41) and (CG-711)
58
Who maintains the Aircraft Configuration Control Board Process Guide, CGTO PG-85-00-70-A
Commandant (CG-41).
59
who is the clearance authority for further flights of aircraft with actual or suspected structural damage or major malfunction.
• Commandant (CG-711), with technical concurrence from Commandant (CG-41
60
who acts as senior member of the Unit Safety and Health Committee
xo
61
who establishes programs for fuel and oil contamination prevention, foreign object damage prevention, and corrosion control
EO
62
• Physical Training (PT) is required by the RS to maintain the flexibility, mobility, strength, power, and endurance to function for how long in heavy seas
30 minutes
63
what is a warning in a manual
AN OPERATING PROCEDURE, TECHNIQUE, OR PRACTICE THAT, IF NOT FOLLOWED, COULD RESULT IN INJURY OR DEATH. Always bold
64
what is a caution on a manual
AN OPERATING PROCEDURE, TECHNIQUE, OR PRACTICE THAT, IF NOT CORRECTLY FOLLOWED COULD RESULT IN DAMAGE TO OR DESTRUCTION OF EQUIPMENT. Always bold
65
what is a note in a manual
An operating procedure, technique, or condition that requires emphasis. Not bold
66
Safety and environmental health manual
m5100.47
67
• Risk Assessment Code (RAC)
RAC 1 – Within 24 hours for conditions that pose imminent danger RAC 2 – Within 3 working days for conditions that pose potentially serious safety and health concerns RAC 3 – Within 20 working days for conditions that pose less than serious safety and health concerns RAC 4 – No prescribed timeline for conditions that pose a minimal safety and health concern and may represent best practices
68
• Class A Mishaps
- injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability - -military personnel are missing or missing in action - Damage to CG property excluding boats $2,000,000 or greater - Damage to a Coast Guard or non-Coast Guard boat 300,000 or greater
69
• Class B Mishaps
- injury or occupational illness that results in permanent partial disability - Damage (excluding boats) $500,000 or greater, but less than $2,000,000. - Damage boat of $200,000 or greater, but less than $300,000
70
• Class C Mishaps
- injury or occupational illness that results in one or more days away from work - Damage to CG property $50,000 or greater (excluding boats), but less than $500,000.
71
• Class D Mishaps
- injury or occupational illness that requires treatment by a medical professional but does not result in any days away from work - Damage (excluding aviation) of $5,000 or greater, but less than $50,000. - damage to aviation property of less than $50,000
72
• All Class A and B mishaps require telephone notification within how long after occurrence
5 minutes

AMTC SWE (2 decks)

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