System Knowledge Flashcards
(242 cards)
1
Q
What code is used to update the BIAS on the MCDU
A
PRF (I.e. PRF 3.2)
2
Q
What is the maximum wind for takeoff and landing?
A
50 Knots (including gusts)
3
Q
What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing?
A
35 Knots (including gusts)
4
Q
What is the maximum operating altitude with flaps and/or slats extended?
A
20,000 Feet
5
Q
What is the maximum gear extension altitude?
A
25,000 Feet
6
Q
What is the maximum operating airspeed (SL to FL 246)?
A
350 KIAS
7
Q
What is the maximum operating mach number (above FL 246)?
A
.82M
8
Q
Icing conditions exist when OAT (on the ground and for takeoff) or TAT (inflight) is _____ and visible moisture exists.
A
10° C or below
9
Q
The maximum service ceiling for the aircraft is:
A
39,000
10
Q
Engine Anti-ice must be on for all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is ________?
A
Below -40° C SAT
11
Q
What is the minimum height for use of the autopilot after takeoff in SRS mode?
A
100 AGL
12
Q
What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between captain and first officer PFD altitude displays for RVSM operations?
A
200 Feet
13
Q
The cockpit door will automatically unlock during a decompression or if electrical power is lost.
True or False
A
True
14
Q
If you lose electrical power to the cockpit door:
1) Audio alert will sound
2) FAULT light will illuminate on DOOR panel
3) Cockpit door will automatically unlock
4) Cockpit door will remain locked
A
Cockpit door will automatically unlock
15
Q
To evacuate through the door escape panel:
1) Press the UNLOCK latch
2) Turn the “D” shaped handle
3) Kick out the panel
4) Remove the two quick release pins
A
Remove the two quick release pins
16
Q
Which hydraulic system supplies hydraulic pressure to open and close the cargo doors?
A
Yellow
17
Q
If the Yellow electric pump is not available, ground personnel can open or close the cargo doors by:
A
Using a hand pump on the hydraulic maintenance panel
18
Q
Engine-Ice must be turned ON during all ground and flight operations in icing conditions. The definition of icing is:
A
OAT is less than or equal to 10 degrees C and visible moisture.
19
Q
With this GPWS System OFF PB pressed OFF which statement below is true?
1) The five basic modes as well as the terrain category warnings are inhibited.
2) The terrain category of warnings is inhibited.
3) Selecting this pb displays the database terrain on each ND.
4) All five of the GPWS basic mode warnings are inhibited.
A
All five of the GPWS basic mode warnings are inhibited.
20
Q
GPWS priority of warnings
A
- Stall warnings, 2. Windshear warnings, 3. GPWS warnings, 4. TCAS warnings
21
Q
You must make sure the loudspeakers are turned up loud enough so that you can hear the aural GPWS warnings. True or False
A
False.
22
Q
If the TERR ON ND pb is selected to OFF:
A
Terrain alerting will still be available for predictive warning of High Terrain ahead of the aircraft.
23
Q
As the aircraft approaches within 750ft of the selected FCU altitude with the A/P off:
A
The aural alert sounds and the PFD`s altitude window pulses yellow.
24
Q
Reactive windshear warnings function during takeoff and landings
A
below 1300ft AGL and at configuration Flaps 1 or greater.
25
The Terrain Clearance Floor is
Not predictive. The aircraft must actually penetrate the TCF to trigger a warning.
26
Pressing the T.O. Config. key on the ECAM control panel:
Simulates the application of Takeoff Thrust.
27
Which item causes a takeoff configuration warning when the thrust levers are placed to a takeoff thrust setting while on the ground but does not cause a warning when the T.O. CONFIG key is pressed after engine start?
1) Parking brake set to ON.
2) An external door is open.
3) Pitch trim is not set within takeoff limits.
4) Slats/flaps are not in takeoff configuration.
Parking brake set to ON.
28
True or False
The T.O. CONFIG warning system is activated automatically when you bring the thrust levers to a takeoff thrust setting while on the ground.
True
29
Automatic control of the avionics ventilation system is provided by:
A single Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC).
30
You can monitor the operation of the avionics ventilation system inlet and extract valves:
On the CAB PRESS page.
31
To cool avionics ventilation air, the skin heat exchanger uses the temperature of the exterior of the aircraft’s fuselage in certain modes of operation. True or False
True
32
The open configuration of the avionics ventilation system
Uses outside air to ventilate the avionics equipment.
33
Status of the Avionics Ventilation System may be monitored on the:
CAB PRESS page.
34
The fwd cargo compartment on some aircraft
Is heated and ventilated.
35
Heating, if installed, for the fwd cargo compartment:
1) Is provided by a trim air system
2) Is controlled automatically by a cargo heat controller.
3) Can be adjusted from the flight deck.
4) All of the above.
All the above
36
In the open configuration, the skin heat exchanger isolation valve is ____ and the heat exchanger is ____
closed / bypassed.
37
If the AEVC senses smoke in the avionics compartment, an Avionics Smoke Caution is generated and after placing the Blower pb and Extract pb to override, the following is accomplished:
1) The blower fan stops.
2) The inlet valve remains closed, or closes if open.
3) The air conditioning inlet valve opens.
4) All of the above
All the above
38
Unlike the normal operating configurations, the Avionics Smoke Configuration doesn't occur automatically, and the crew must manually set the Avionics Smoke Configuration by:
Using the Blower pb and Extract pb.
39
True/False In the event of a forward cargo compartment overheat condition, or if the Hot Air pb is selected to OFF, the Trim Air Valve closes and airflow to the forward cargo compartment is shut off.
True
40
The closed configuration of the avionics ventilation system:
1) Is used on the ground during cold ambient conditions.
2) Is used during flight.
3) Utilizes the skin heat exchanger.
4) All of the above.
All the above
41
Once engine bleed air is available to the packs, if pack flow selector is selected to Low, what percentage of normal flow is provided?
80%
42
HI flow rates are automatically commanded regardless of Pack Flow selector position when:
The APU is the sole source of bleed air
Operating on a single pack
43
Which of the following DOES NOT provide input to the pressurization controllers?
1) Thrust Levers
2) LGCIUs
3) FADECs
4) ADIRUs
FADEC
44
The input provided by the Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs) enable the pressurization controllers to:
Know the planned cruise altitude and plan the cabin climb profile accordingly.
45
The following areas are not pressurized:
Radome, landing gear bays, air conditioning compartment and tail.
46
The pressurization controllers use the elevation of your destination airport to plan the descent profile. In normal operations, this information is provided:
By the FMS database once you enter the destination airport into the MCDU.
47
The two pneumatic pressurization safety valves:
Open automatically when it becomes necessary to relieve excess positive or negative cabin pressure differentials.
48
After landing, the active and standby pressurization controllers:
Automatic transfer occurs after 70 seconds.
49
With the pressurization in manual mode, the outflow valve is now controlled by:
The MAN V/S control switch.
50
With MODE SEL in MAN, moving the MAN V/S:
UP opens the outflow valve and DN closes it.
51
The ditching pushbutton is used to
Close all fuselage openings below the floatation line.
52
On landing, cabin altitude will be:
Slightly lower than field pressure altitude.
53
In Ground Mode, the outflow valve will:
1) Remain partially open until both engines are shut down.
2) Fully open when the first engine is shut down.
3) Gradually open during landing rollout.
4) Fully open after both engines are shut down.
Gradually open during landing rollout.
54
Pressurization Abort Mode:
1) Opens the outflow valve if the aircraft aborts takeoff roll.
2) Is activated in the event of an ATC reroute.
3) Is activated if aircraft must return to the departure airport after takeoff.
4) Is activated in the event of an aborted landing.
Is activated if aircraft must return to the departure airport after takeoff.
55
Referencing an FMA column 5 which Flight Director(s) is(are) selected on if 1 FD - is displayed
Captain only
56
Referencing an FMA column 5 which AP(s) is(are) selected on if AP 1+2 is displayed
Both
57
True or False When either Autopilot is engaged, the Autothrust also automatically engages.
False
58
You are hand flying with the Autopilot OFF. If you are not going to follow the Flight Director guidance, you should turn the Flight Directors OFF True or False
True
59
FMGC 1 normally controls the autothrust system, regardless of which autopilot is engaged. True or False
False
60
A/THR in white on the FMA indicates that:
the autothrust is active.
61
During flight, with the autothrust engaged, pulling the thrust levers out of the CLB detent and positioning them at the midway point will,
Limit the amount of thrust available, autothrust will remain engaged.
62
During flight, if the thrust levers are positioned to the idle detent, the autothrust is:
Disconnected
63
The difference between TOGA Lock and Thrust Lock is:
TOGA Lock provides maximum thrust and Thrust Lock maintains the current thrust being used.
64
The pilot pushed the speed, heading, and altitude knobs. Which type of guidance are the speed, vertical, and lateral modes now?
Managed
65
What color shows managed speed and managed altitude targets?
Magenta
66
Which color indicates an engaged mode of the FMA?
Green
67
What effect on the autothrust system does setting the thrust levers below the CL detent have?
The autothrust active range is now limited to the thrust lever position.
68
Which of these vertical modes will respect any altitude constraints in the FMGS? EXP CLB, V/S, OP CLB or CLB
CLB
69
What is the preferred method of disengaging the autothrust?
Match the TLA’s to current thrust and then press the instinctive disconnect pb on the thrust levers.
70
It is important that pilots fly with both flight directors ON or both flight directors OFF. True or False
True
71
To use the PA handset to make a PA announcement:
You press the PTT switch on the handset and hold while talking.
72
Which radio is normally dedicated to ACARS communications?
VHF 3 is dedicated to ACARS but can be used for voice communications if needed.
73
VHF 3 can also be used as an additional radio for voice communications if necessary. True or False
True
74
The transfer key is used to transfer the frequency displayed in the STBY window to the ACTIVE frequency window. True or False
True
75
The ACP is the:
Audio Control Panel
76
The Radio Management Panels, RMPs, are used:
Exclusively to tune frequencies for various radios, including navaids if necessary
77
The RMP is the:
Radio Management Panel
78
The selection of a transmission key does not select that communications device for reception. True or False
True
79
The ACARS takeoff data function is available for the:
active flight plan only.
80
With the GALY & CAB pb in the AUTO position and only one engine generator operating:
Automatic Galley Bus shedding occurs for the main galley, in-seat power supply, and in-flight entertainment.
81
A FAULT light in the GALY & CAB pb appears when any generator load is above 100% of its rated output.
True or False
True
82
All circuit breakers on the overhead panel are associated with systems which are powered:
While in the emergency electrical configuration.
83
Color coding is used to identify circuit breakers with different characteristics
Green colored circuit breakers are monitored by the flight warning computers.
84
True or False
| Activation of the RAT MAN ON pb will cause immediate deployment of the RAT except when no power is on the aircraft.
False
85
The electrical system consists of:
Two aircraft batteries.
Two engine driven IDG’s.
An emergency generator.
86
When external power is connected to the aircraft, a green AVAIL light indicates:
External power is connected with acceptable voltage and frequency.
87
During non-normal conditions, the IDG may be disconnected from its engine and:
1)The IDG pushbutton should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds.
2)Once disconnected, the IDG cannot be reconnected in flight.
3)The IDG pushbutton should only be used when the engine is running or wind milling.
radio All of the above
88
The RAT automatically deploys when:
Power is not available for AC Bus 1 and AC Bus 2 and airspeed greater than 100 knots.
89
You can deploy the RAT and activate the emergency generator using the MAN ON pb. True or False
True
90
The APU generator always takes priority over an engine driven generator and/or external power. True or False
False
| Onside, outside, inside, opposite side
91
The APU driven generator:
Can be used as the sole source of electrical power on the ground.
True or False
True
92
The AVAIL light illuminated on the EXT PWR pb means:
Voltage and frequencies are acceptable
93
What does the OFF message under the APU GEN on the ELEC page indicate?
APU on and APU GEN PB selected off
94
What electric source has priority with the engines off, APU available and the EXT PWR pb switch is ON
EXT Power
95
Pressing the IDG disc does what
Renders the associated electrical generator inoperative
96
To avoid damage to the IDG, what must not be pressed for more than 3 seconds?
The IDG DISC pb
97
The “RAT OUT” memo on the E/WD indicates:
The RAT has deployed
98
The overwing escape slides are continuously armed and will automatically deploy when the exit is opened. True or False
True
99
Escape slide lights, built into the fuselage, will not illuminate automatically upon deployment of any slide. True or False
False
100
Which of the following does NOT have a fire extinguishing system installed? APU
1) Avionics compartment
2) Cargo compartments
3) Engines
Avionics Compartment
101
Which statement is true regarding cargo compartment fire extinguishing, except the A321H?
a) There is only one halon fire bottle. It can be discharged into either compartment, but not both.
b) There are two fire bottles - when the DISCH pushbutton is pressed they are both discharged into the appropriate compartment.
c) There are two fire bottles, one for the FWD compartment and one for the AFT compartment.
d) There is only one fire bottle - pressing either DISCH pushbutton discharges it into both compartments.
a) There is only one halon fire bottle. It can be discharged into either compartment, but not both.
102
Which statement accurately describes each engine’s dedicated fire detection system?
a) The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if both fire detection loops detect a heat rise?
b) The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if one fire detection loop detects a heat rise and the other is determined to be faulted.
c) The Fire Detection Unit will alert you to an engine fire if both fire detection loops fail with a few seconds of each other.
d) All of the above
All the above
103
Which indications appear in the flight deck after an APU fire has been extinguished on the ground?
The APU FIRE pushbutton light is not illuminated, while the AGENT DISCH light is illuminated .
104
What section of the engine does not have Fire Detection Loops?
Exhaust
105
The APU automatically shuts down and discharges a fire bottle when a fire is detected on the ground. True or False
True
106
If Avionics Smoke is detected, what system page comes up automatically on the lower ECAM?
ELEC PAGE
107
Cargo compartment smoke detection is provided by:
Particulate sensing smoke detectors, located in both cargo compartments.
108
Why does the Smoke Light continue to illuminate after the Cargo Agent has been discharged?
Particulates are still present and have not settled.
109
The lavatory smoke detection system:
Provides indications in both the flight deck and cabin that smoke has been detected in a lavatory, with the specific lavatory identified in the cabin.
110
The DISCH amber light on the ENG 1 Fire panel indicates:
The halon bottle is discharged
111
What power setting does Alpha Floor command?
TOGA
112
In Direct Law, how is pitch trim controlled?
Manually using the Pitch Trim Wheels.
113
Which controls are available in Mechanical Back up?
Rudder and THS
114
Your aircraft is currently in a climb with a nose-up pitch attitude. You are hand-flying the aircraft and both sidesticks are currently in the neutral position. You are asking the flight control computers for:
No change in load factor.
115
Pitch protections provided in normal law include:
1) Maneuver protection
2) Pitch attitude protection
3) High speed and alpha protection
4) All of the above
All the above
116
The A320 cannot be stalled in normal law. T/F
True
117
Two FACs control rudder movement for automatic turn coordination, yaw damping, rudder limiting, and rudder trim. True or False
True
118
If both sidesticks are moved in the same direction at the same time:
The total demand is never more than what can be realized with full deflection on only one sidestick
119
The CA has pressed and held the left sidestick takeover pb and the right sidestick is making unwanted inputs to the flight control computers. What are the indications
CAPT Green light and F/O red arrow
120
Hydraulic power for the elevator servos comes from which system?
All three systems
121
There is a manual elevator control in the event of multiple computer or hydraulic system failures. T/F
False only THS
122
While flying with the autopilot engaged, if you move the THS the autopilot will disengage. T/F
True
123
The spoiler panels on the A319/A321 function as:
Speed Brakes
Roll Spoilers
Ground Spoilers
124
Control of the rudder is provided by the:
FAC
125
Mechanical control of the THS is available from the __________ at any time, if either the Green or Yellow system is functioning.
Pitch Trim Wheel
126
In Normal Law what does a lateral side stick input command?
Roll Rate
127
The failure of a single flight control computer:
Does not cause normal law to downgrade to another law.
128
You are in level flight in a 20° bank to the left. You are hand-flying the aircraft and both sidesticks are in the neutral position. You are asking the flight control computers for:
0 degree per second roll rate
129
Which of these flight control computers will function during emergency electrical configuration?
ELAC 1, SEC 1, FAC 1
130
If either ELAC fails, the other ELAC can provide full control with no loss of system functionality. T/F
True
131
Three SECs provide direct control of the spoilers. SECs 1 and 2 provide backup control of the elevators and THS. T/F
True
132
T/F
| The elevators are independently moved by one of two electronically-controlled servos that serve each elevator.
True
133
In normal flight operations, pitch trim is Automatic and can be monitored on the F/CTL page and on the trim position scales next to the trim wheels.
True
134
Rudder input is accomplished by displacing the entire rudder surface and is automatic when the autopilot is engaged.
True
135
There is no mechanical connection between the sidesticks.
True
136
Engaging the autopilot causes both sidesticks to be centered.
True or False
True
137
The pitch trim wheels do not move when automatic trimming is in progress. True or False
False
138
Select the statement which best describes the normal A319 fuel feed after takeoff with the slats retracted.
Center tank then wing tank inner cell
139
Which statement is true regarding fuel pressure for the APU?
a) The APU uses fuel pressure from the APU fuel tank.
b) The APU only uses its dedicated fuel pump.
c) Fuel pressure is normally supplied by the fuel tank pumps pressurizing the fuel manifold.
d) The APU only suction feeds.
C) Fuel pressure is normally supplied by the fuel tank pumps pressurizing the fuel manifold.
140
How is fuel transferred from the wing outer cell to the wing inner cell?
Transfer valves
141
The fuel system is also used for:
IDG cooling
142
What does the Green ECAM memo CTR TK FEEDG in the memo Section mean?
At least one CTR tank pump is delivering fuel to the engines.
143
The white OFF light on the fuel pump pb indicates:
The fuel pump pb is selected off.
144
The Green hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
The #1 engine-driven pump or the PTU.
145
The Yellow hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
The #2 engine-driven pump, the PTU, an electric pump or a hand pump.
146
The Blue hydraulic system can be pressurized by:
Electric pump or RAT
147
When there is a hydraulic system non-normal, the ______will also alert the pilots.
E/WD
148
When the PTU is operating:
Pressure transfers between the Green and Yellow systems.
149
Once deployed, how can the RAT be stowed?
Only by maintenance
150
When icing conditions exist, when should engine anti-ice be selected on?
During all ground and inflight operations
151
The Airfoil anti-ice system provides protection for the following?
The three outboard slats
152
Under what ECAM page would you get information about the anti-ice system?
Bleed
153
Which statement is correct regarding rain repellent?
It can be used in moderate to heavy rain conditions.
154
When will the window and the probe heat come on with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton in the AUTO position?
After the first engine is started
155
A Warning is the highest level ECAM alert. It is associated with a Red ECAM failure message, flashing Master Warning lights and:
CRC
156
Which computers are responsible for generating the images that are ultimately displayed on the display units?
DMC
157
An ECAM system advisory:
Causes the appropriate systems page to appear automatically on the SD when a system parameter exceeds the normal operational range, but has not exceeded a preset limit.
158
What information does the IR portion of the ADIRU provide
Present position and attitude
159
Each ADIRU is made up of two components. The two components are the following:
ADR, which provides pitot/static related information, and the IRU, which provides gyroscopic and accelerometer related information.
160
Which of the following is NOT calculated by the ADR portion of the ADIRUs?
a) Mach
b) Indicated airspeed
c) True airspeed
d) Ground speed
Ground Speed
161
The Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) is automatically energized:
On the ground for a 5-minute period following the application of aircraft power.
On the ground with an engine running.
Continuously when airborne.
162
The ECAM is designed to provide fault monitoring as well as corrective procedural checklists when a malfunction is detected. T/F
True
163
The STATUS page provides a summary of inoperative aircraft systems. Which of the following is also true regarding the STATUS Page?
a) The STATUS Page is always the last page displayed during an ECAM non-normal procedure.
b) The STATUS Page may display significant operational considerations for approach and landing.
c) If a message is present on the STATUS page, STS appears on the E/WD as a reminder.
d) all the above
All the above
164
You no longer wish to view the HYD Page. To remove it from the SD you:
Can press the pb for another systems page and that page will replace the HYD Page.
Can press the HYD pb and the default systems page will replace the HYD Page.
Press and hold the ALL pb until the page you wish to view next appears on the SD.
165
To display the CRUISE page on the SD:
No action is required. It appears automatically shortly after takeoff, as long as no system malfunctions are present
166
Alternate braking WITH antiskid activates automatically following:
Failure of the Green hydraulic system
167
The main gear and doors are electrically controlled and hydraulically operated by the _________ hydraulic system.
Green
168
The nose wheel steering is electrically controlled and hydraulically operated by the __________ hydraulic system.
Green on Basic aircraft or Yellow on Enhanced aircraft
169
Above______knots, provided the ground spoilers are armed, moving the thrust levers to idle signals the flight control system to deploy the ground spoilers.
72 knots
170
The two Landing Gear Control Interface Units (LGCIU 1 & LGCIU 2):
a) Swap roles as controlling and non-controlling of gear extension and retraction each time the landing gear is lowered.
b) Swap roles as controlling and back up of gear extension and retraction each time the landing gear is raised.
c) Are both involved in controlling each time the gear is extended or retracted.
d) Are only involved in providing gear warning information to the ECAM.
B
171
The maximum indicated airspeed for gear extension is ______ knots and for gear retraction is ______ knots.
250,220
172
The landing gear is controlled by ____ Landing Gear Control Interface Units, or LGCIUs.
2
173
The LGCIUs send information to various systems about whether the aircraft is on ground or in flight. T/F
True
174
Braking and nose wheel steering are controlled by the _________ Unit.
BSCU
175
Prior to takeoff, autobrakes can be armed using the ______ pushbutton.
MAX
176
Autobrakes MAX is used only for takeoff. T/F
True
177
When MAX is armed, maximum auto braking is immediately applied when the ______________ signal is triggered.
Ground spoiler deployment order
178
For normal braking:
a) Green hydraulic system pressure must be available.
b) At least one channel of the BSCU must be operational.
c) The A/SKID & NW STRG switch must be selected to ON.
d) All of the above
D
179
If both the Green and Yellow hydraulic systems fail, braking is still possible through a________
A dedicated accumulator
180
Alternate braking is available with accumulator pressure from the ________ hydraulic system.
Yellow
181
What cockpit lighting is available in EMERG ELEC CONFIG?
Dome light over the FO’s seat & CA instrument flood lights
182
Where are the EXT LT switches located?
Overhead panel
183
The airspeed limitation for the retractable landing lights is 290kts.
T/F
False
184
With the EMER EXIT LT switch set to ARM, which cabin light(s) is/are armed to illuminate automatically if AC BUS 1 is unpowered?
Overhead emergency lights
185
With AC BUS 1 unpowered, what is the normal source of power for the Emergency lights?
DC ESS SHED BUS
186
With DC ESS SHED BUS shed, all three sets of emergency lights are powered by self-contained battery packs. T/F
True
187
When the NOSE light switch is placed in the Taxi position:
The smaller light illuminates
188
When the NOSE light switch is in the T.O. position:
Both lights are illuminated
189
The nose gear lights remain on when the nose gear retracts. T/F
False
190
One ILS receiver is combined with one GPS receiver to form a(n):
Multi mode receiver MMR
191
What is a red VOR 2 on the ND mean
VOR 2 Receiver has Failed
192
The SRS (Speed Reference System) is a managed speed relating to what phase of flight?
Takeoff
193
What is the slowest airspeed that should be flown in the clean configuration?
Green dot
194
If you are flying an ILS approach, what must you press on this EFIS panel?
LS pb
195
You are flying an ILS approach and an amber “ILS” indication is flashing on your PFD. The flashing “ILS” indicates:
The LS pb has not been pushed
196
The yellow arrow is pointing to the M. This symbol on the ND next to the VOR info indicates:
The VOR has been manually tuned
197
Based on the ND displaying “R” next to the VOR indicates
RMP is auto tuning
198
The FMGS remains in the Go-Around phase until the Activate APPR prompt is selected or:
A) A new approach is entered into the FMGS.
B)The thrust levers are placed in the CL detent.
C)The acceleration altitude is reached.
D)A new destination is entered.
D
199
Normally, the VOR, DME, and ILS receivers are tuned
FMGC
200
The PM should display the PERF page, while the PF should display the F-PLAN page. T/F
True
201
Which of the following regarding the SRS system on takeoff is correct?
a)During takeoff, SRS is the active vertical mode and commands a pitch attitude to maintain V2+10 knots.
b)SRS is maintained until acceleration altitude.
C)At acceleration altitude the Climb phase becomes active and the aircraft accelerates to the climb speed designated on the PERF CLB page.
D)All of the above.
D
202
Shortly after takeoff, LVR CLB flashes in column 1 of the FMA, indicating that:
The thrust reduction altitude entered on the PERF page has been reached.
203
During taxi for takeoff, ATC revises the departure runway. After correctly updating the departure runway in the FMGS, the scratchpad message CHECK TAKE OFF DATA appears. What does this message indicate?
The V1, VR and V2 speeds should be confirmed against the takeoff data.
204
Radar returns displayed at ranges greater than 80 miles should be used for strategic evaluation only.
True
205
On the weather radar display, Red indicates what type of return?
Strong to Very Strong
206
With the MULTISCAN switch set to AUTO, ground clutter is minimized from the screen.
True
207
The intensity of the radar display is controlled by:
The outer ring of the ND brightness control knob
208
With the TILT knob set to 0, the radar beam is pointed:
At the horizon as defined by the ADIRS
209
In order for areas of turbulence to be displayed, the ND range must be set to ______ miles or less.
40
210
The CA and FO can control their radar range displays independently. T/F
True
211
Weather radar images can be displayed on all ND modes except:
Plan
212
During takeoff below 100 kts, the radar system provides automatic predictive windshear alerts. T/F
True
213
The Airbus Multiscan Radar uses advanced technology to control and analyze radar returns. T/F
True
214
When the MULTSCAN is in AUTO mode, gain and tilt control is automatic.
True
215
When the MULTSCAN is in AUTO mode
Only weather returns that are a threat to the aircraft are displayed.
216
The black area on weather radar indicates:
Minimal or no precipitation
217
What precipitation level does the color yellow stand for?
Moderate
218
The chemical generators when activated will provide passengers with approximately how many minutes of oxygen flow?
15 Minutes
219
The cabin oxygen masks can be manually deployed at any time by:
Pushing the guarded pb labeled MASK MAN ON.
220
The status of the flight deck oxygen system is found on what system page of the ECAM?
Door
221
At approximately what cabin altitude will the automatic cabin mask deployment signal be sent?
14,000
222
After maintenance replaces your crew oxygen bottle, you notice the `CKPT OXY` indication is showing 980 psi in green, with an amber half-frame around the numeric value. What does this mean to you?
Pressure has dropped below 1000 psi
223
When the “CKPT OXY” amber message is displayed in the upper right hand corner of the ECAM DOOR page and all other indications appear normal, this informs you that:
The CREW SUPPLY pb is selected to OFF on the oxygen panel on the overhead.
224
Illumination of PASSENGER `SYS ON` light on the OXYGEN overhead panel indicates that:
A signal has been sent automatically or manually to open the storage doors.
225
When is the GND symbol displayed on the SD ECAM BLEED Page?
Whenever the aircraft is on the ground
226
The Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) command the engine bleed valves to close whenever:
One or more bleed leaks are detected.
Excessive pressure or temperature is detected.
Reverse airflow is detected.
227
Engine and APU bleed air are the only air sources for the pneumatic system.
False. Ram air
228
The pneumatic system is displayed on which SD ECAM page?
Bleed
229
When engines are running, their bleed sources have priority over the APU bleed source and the APU bleed valve automatically closes. T/F
False
230
With the X BLEED knob in the AUTO position, the crossbleed valve opens and closes in response to the:
APU Bleed Valve
231
While in AUTO, the crossbleed valve will also automatically close in response to a bleed leak.
True
232
Above what altitude must the APU bleed valve be closed?
20000
233
The APU bleed valve is spring-loaded to the closed position in the absence of air flow.
True
234
If an APU Fire is detected on the ground:
The APU automatically shuts down and the halon extinguisher is automatically discharged.
235
The APU may be started and operated in flight. Which of the following is also true?
The APU may be operated up to the maximum certified pressure altitude of 39,000 feet.
236
You have just selected the APU MASTER SW pb to ON. You now select the APU START pb to ON. Which statement is correct?
a)The ECB will not engage the electric starter until the power-up self test is completed satisfactorily and the air intake flap is fully open.
b)The starter will engage when you select the START pb again to the AVAIL position.
c)The APU start valve will open when sufficient pressure is available from the pneumatic system.
radio The electric starter will immediately engage.
A)
237
The APU generator has the same power output as an engine generator. True/False
True
238
Fuel for APU operation is normally supplied from
The left fuel feed line, through the engine 1 feed line.
239
Primary engine indications are displayed on the:
E/WD
240
During a manual start, how many igniters are in use?
2
241
The FADEC provides protection against exceeding N1, N2 overspeed, and monitors EGT during start on the ground.
True
242
Maximum thrust is referred as:
TOGA
